Question 1

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a. cerebrum Balance and coordination are primarily mediated by the cerebellum, but that structure is not offered among the choices. Of the listed options, the cerebrum is the best available because it contributes to planning and execution of voluntary motor activity and integrates sensory input that supports coordinated movement. The brainstem mainly governs vital autonomic functions and basic arousal/reflex pathways, and the thalamus is chiefly a sensory relay rather than a primary motor coordination center.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about which brain region is responsible for specific neurologic functions, which falls under Neurology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 2

Q.783 NORMAL RANGE OF ICP IS-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In adults, normal intracranial pressure is typically about 5–15 mmHg when measured in the supine position. Values sustained above ~20–22 mmHg are generally considered elevated and clinically concerning for intracranial hypertension. The lower ranges listed are below the usual physiologic range, and the higher range overlaps with abnormal elevations rather than normal.
Category reason: This question tests factual knowledge of a normal physiologic parameter (intracranial pressure) related to the nervous system rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, so it fits Neurology within NursingScience.

Question 3

Brain cells are called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neurons are the primary functional cells of the nervous system responsible for receiving, processing, and transmitting electrical and chemical signals in the brain. In contrast, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets are blood components involved in oxygen transport, immune defense, and clotting, respectively. While glial cells also exist in the brain, the best answer among the given options for “brain cells” is neurons.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of the nervous system’s cellular components, which falls under Neurology rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 4

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. Cerebellum It integrates proprioceptive input with vestibular and visual information to fine-tune posture, gait, and the timing/precision of voluntary movements. Lesions classically cause ataxia, dysmetria, intention tremor, and impaired rapid alternating movements, reflecting loss of motor coordination. In contrast, the cerebrum handles higher cognitive and voluntary motor planning, the medulla governs vital autonomic functions, and the hypothalamus regulates endocrine and homeostatic processes.
Category reason: This is a foundational neuroanatomy question about which brain region governs motor balance and coordination, which fits Neurology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 5

A client with long-standing diabetes complains of burning foot pain. What is the likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic hyperglycemia damages peripheral nerves and impairs microvascular supply, leading to distal symmetric neuropathy. This commonly causes burning, tingling, or shooting pain in the feet and can be worse at night. Retinopathy affects vision, DKA presents with dehydration and metabolic acidosis symptoms, and hypoglycemia causes adrenergic/neuroglycopenic symptoms rather than isolated burning foot pain.
Category reason: The question tests the pathophysiologic basis of a diabetes complication (nerve damage causing neuropathic pain), which is foundational biomedical knowledge within Neurology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 6

Auto -Abs against As on the myelin sheath:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune demyelinating disease of the central nervous system in which immune-mediated inflammation targets myelin and oligodendrocytes, leading to plaques and neurologic deficits. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis and Graves’ disease are autoimmune thyroid disorders affecting thyroid tissue and receptors rather than myelin. Myasthenia gravis targets postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, producing fatigable weakness without primary myelin sheath involvement.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about which disease involves autoimmune attack on CNS myelin, which is primarily a neurology concept rather than a nursing management/intervention scenario.

Question 7

Hypertension nuchal rigidity, fever and headache classical signs of :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A) Meningitis Nuchal rigidity with fever and headache is the classic triad of meningeal irritation due to infection/inflammation of the meninges. The stiff neck reflects pain and reflex muscle spasm when the inflamed meninges are stretched. While increased ICP can cause headache and hypertension (often with bradycardia), it does not characteristically produce fever and prominent nuchal rigidity as the defining presentation. Hypervolemia and Parkinson’s disease do not match this acute infectious meningeal symptom cluster.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a classic neurologic clinical presentation (meningitis) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, so it fits NursingScience under Neurology.

Question 8

The visual area of brain is located in__?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primary visual processing occurs in the primary visual cortex (V1), which is located in the occipital lobe along the calcarine fissure. This region receives visual input relayed from the retina through the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Damage here commonly leads to visual field deficits (e.g., homonymous hemianopia) or cortical blindness depending on extent and laterality.
Category reason: This question tests localization of a brain function (vision) to a specific cerebral lobe, which is a foundational neuroanatomy/neurophysiology concept within Neurology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 9

Which lobe is responsible for hearing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The primary auditory cortex is located in the temporal lobe (superior temporal gyrus), where sound information from the cochlea is processed. Lesions in this region can impair sound perception and interpretation, including aspects of speech comprehension. By contrast, the occipital lobe is primarily visual processing, and the frontal/parietal lobes are more associated with executive/motor and somatosensory functions.
Category reason: This item tests localization of brain function (auditory cortex within a cerebral lobe), which is foundational neuroanatomy/physiology and best classified under Neurology rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 10

Which is the sensory cranial nerve?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b) Optic The optic nerve (CN II) carries afferent sensory information for vision from the retina to the brain, making it a purely sensory cranial nerve. Oculomotor (CN III) and trochlear (CN IV) are primarily motor nerves that control extraocular muscles. The accessory nerve (CN XI) is motor to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
Category reason: This question tests classification and function of cranial nerves (sensory vs motor), which is core nervous system anatomy/physiology under Neurology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 11

The motor speech area (Broca's area) lies in—

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Broca’s area is located in the dominant hemisphere’s inferior frontal gyrus and is responsible for the motor planning and production of speech. Damage here classically causes expressive (nonfluent) aphasia, where comprehension is relatively preserved but speech output is impaired. The temporal lobe is more associated with language comprehension (Wernicke’s area), while parietal and occipital lobes do not house the primary motor speech area.
Category reason: This question tests neuroanatomical localization of a cortical language area, which is foundational Neurology knowledge rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 12

Which tract carries pain & temperature?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The anterolateral (spinothalamic) pathway transmits pain and temperature sensations from the body to the thalamus and then to the cortex. Primary afferents synapse in the dorsal horn, and the second-order neurons decussate within 1–2 spinal cord levels via the anterior white commissure. By contrast, dorsal columns carry vibration/proprioception, corticospinal carries voluntary motor function, and vestibulospinal influences posture and balance.
Category reason: This is a foundational neuroanatomy question about spinal cord sensory tracts and the modalities they transmit, which fits Neurology within NursingScience rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 13

Reflex action occurs through—

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reflex actions are rapid, involuntary responses that are mediated primarily by spinal reflex arcs, allowing a fast response without needing cortical processing. Sensory (afferent) input synapses in the spinal cord (often via an interneuron) and activates motor (efferent) neurons to produce an immediate response. While the brain can modulate reflex intensity, it is not required for the basic reflex pathway. Hypothalamus and cerebellum are involved in autonomic/endocrine regulation and coordination respectively, not the primary reflex arc integration site.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about where reflex arcs are integrated in the nervous system, which is a Neurology concept rather than a nursing intervention or care decision.

Question 14

Which lobe of brain controls personality & judgment?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The prefrontal cortex within the frontal lobe mediates executive functions such as judgment, planning, impulse control, and socially appropriate behavior, which collectively shape personality. Damage here classically leads to disinhibition, poor decision-making, and personality change. The temporal lobe is more associated with memory and auditory processing, the occipital lobe with vision, and the parietal lobe with somatosensory integration and spatial processing.
Category reason: This question tests brain lobe functional neuroanatomy (executive function and behavior localization), which is core Neurology content rather than nursing intervention/priority decisions.

Question 15

Parkinson’s disease is due to deficiency of—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parkinson’s disease results from degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta, leading to reduced dopamine in the striatum. This dopamine deficiency disrupts the normal balance between dopaminergic inhibition and relative cholinergic activity in basal ganglia circuits, producing bradykinesia, rigidity, and resting tremor. Treatments (e.g., levodopa/carbidopa, dopamine agonists) aim to restore dopaminergic signaling rather than increase serotonin, acetylcholine, or GABA as the primary deficit.
Category reason: This question tests the core neurotransmitter deficit and neuroanatomical basis of a neurologic disorder, which is foundational biomedical knowledge in Neurology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 16

The most basic difference between neurosis and psychosis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In neurosis, reality testing is intact and the person generally recognizes their symptoms as unreasonable or excessive, reflecting preserved insight. In psychosis, there is impaired reality testing with delusions and/or hallucinations, and insight into the abnormality of these experiences is typically absent. This distinction affects help-seeking behavior, safety risk, and the need for structured treatment. Therefore, insight is the key differentiator.
Category reason: This question tests a foundational concept differentiating psychiatric conditions based on reality testing/insight, which is part of basic neurosciences and mental status concepts rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 17

Which among the following is a perceptual abnormality?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A perceptual abnormality is a disturbance in sensory perception, meaning the person experiences a sensory event without an external stimulus. Hallucinations are classic perceptual disturbances (e.g., hearing voices when no sound is present). In contrast, orientation and attention are cognitive functions, and conceptualisation relates to thought processes rather than perception.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a neurological/mental status concept (perception vs cognition/thought process), which fits best under Neurology as foundational nursing science knowledge.

Question 18

False sensory perception with no actual basis is called as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A hallucination is a sensory experience (e.g., hearing voices, seeing images) occurring without an external stimulus. In contrast, a delusion is a fixed false belief rather than a perceptual disturbance. “Perception” and “attention” are normal cognitive processes and do not specifically indicate a false sensory experience. Therefore, the term that best matches the definition is hallucination.
Category reason: This item tests a core neuropsychiatric definition distinguishing perceptual disturbances from belief disorders, which fits foundational neuroscience/mental status concepts rather than a nursing intervention or care-priority decision.

Question 19

Filling up blank memories with false stories is called as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This describes an unintentional process in which a person produces fabricated or distorted details to fill memory gaps, typically without awareness that the information is inaccurate. It is classically associated with disorders affecting memory circuits (e.g., Korsakoff syndrome, some dementias, and certain brain injuries). The key feature is that the false account is not deliberate lying but a response to impaired recall.
Category reason: This item tests a core neurocognitive/memory phenomenon and its terminology, which is foundational neuroscience rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 20

Disturbance of consciousness is common in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Disturbance of consciousness (e.g., fluctuating alertness, disorientation, impaired attention as in delirium) typically indicates an underlying medical/neurologic cause. Organic psychoses are associated with brain dysfunction from conditions such as infections, metabolic derangements, intoxication/withdrawal, or structural CNS disease, where consciousness can be impaired. In functional psychoses (e.g., schizophrenia, mood disorders with psychotic features), the level of consciousness is usually clear, even when thought content is abnormal.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of consciousness disturbance as a feature of brain dysfunction (delirium/organic mental disorders), which is primarily a neurobiological concept rather than a nursing intervention scenario, fitting Neurology within NursingScience.

Question 21

The junction between two nerve cells is known as _______.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A synapse is the functional junction where one neuron communicates with another neuron (or an effector cell). It includes the presynaptic terminal, synaptic cleft, and postsynaptic membrane, enabling transmission via neurotransmitters or electrical coupling. “Tendon” relates to musculoskeletal attachments, and “corpus” is a nonspecific term that does not define a neuron-to-neuron junction. Therefore, the best term for the junction between two nerve cells is the synapse.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of how neurons connect and transmit signals, which is a core concept within Neurology rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision-making scenario.

Question 22

Which part of the brain controls emotions and memory?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is the major neural network involved in emotional processing and in forming and consolidating memory, particularly via structures such as the amygdala and hippocampus. By contrast, the cerebellum primarily coordinates movement, balance, and motor learning. The brainstem mainly regulates vital autonomic functions like respiration, heart rate, and arousal rather than higher emotional and memory functions.
Category reason: This tests foundational knowledge of brain regions and their functions (emotion and memory control), which is core neuroanatomy/neurophysiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 23

How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in the human body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Human anatomy classically includes 12 pairs of cranial nerves (CN I–XII) that arise from the brain/brainstem and provide sensory, motor, and parasympathetic functions primarily to the head and neck, with the vagus extending into thoracoabdominal organs. The option 31 refers to pairs of spinal nerves, not cranial nerves. The other numbers listed do not match the standard anatomical count taught in neuroanatomy.
Category reason: This is a foundational neuroanatomy fact about the number of cranial nerve pairs, which is best classified under Neurology rather than a nursing care/judgment scenario.

Question 24

Which of the following is the longest cranial nerve?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is the longest cranial nerve because it extends from the medulla through the neck and thorax into the abdomen, providing extensive parasympathetic innervation to major visceral organs. In contrast, the optic, facial, and trigeminal nerves primarily distribute within the head/face and do not traverse to thoracoabdominal organs. This broad anatomical course makes it the cranial nerve with the greatest length.
Category reason: This question tests factual knowledge of cranial nerve anatomy and distribution, which is a core topic in neurology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 25

Sciatica pain usually radiates along which area?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sciatica refers to pain from irritation/compression of the sciatic nerve roots (often L4–S3), producing radicular pain that follows the nerve distribution. Classic radiation is from the low back/buttock down the posterior thigh and into the leg/foot. Anterior thigh or groin patterns suggest other nerve involvement (e.g., femoral or obturator) or hip pathology rather than sciatic nerve distribution.
Category reason: This tests knowledge of pain radiation patterns along a specific nerve distribution, which is a neuroanatomy/neurology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 26

Q. Alzheimer's disease affects which organ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alzheimer’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by progressive loss of neurons and synapses, especially in the hippocampus and cerebral cortex. These changes lead to worsening memory impairment and cognitive decline, reflecting primary involvement of the central nervous system. The hallmark pathologies (amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles) occur within brain tissue, not peripheral organs like the ear, eye, or stomach.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of which organ system is primarily affected by a neurodegenerative disease, which is a Neurology topic rather than a nursing care/priority decision.

Question 27

Which organ is called the “control center” of human body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B). Brain The brain integrates sensory input, generates motor output, and regulates vital autonomic functions such as breathing, heart rate, temperature, and consciousness through the central nervous system. It coordinates endocrine regulation via hypothalamic control and supports higher cognitive processes (learning, memory, behavior). The heart, liver, and lungs are essential organs but they do not serve as the central integrative command organ for the body’s functions.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge about which organ serves as the body’s central control structure, a core concept of the nervous system rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision.

Question 28

Which of the following is the earliest sign of Parkinson’s disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parkinson’s disease classically presents early with a resting “pill-rolling” tremor due to degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. Tremor and other motor features (bradykinesia, rigidity) typically appear before later cognitive changes. Disturbed vision and muscle atrophy are not typical early hallmark findings of Parkinson’s disease and suggest alternative diagnoses.
Category reason: This item tests foundational knowledge of a neurologic disorder’s typical early clinical manifestation (Parkinson’s motor signs), which fits Neurology rather than nursing intervention/priority setting.

Question 29

The motor area responsible for speech production is located in the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is the dominant frontal-lobe language area responsible for motor planning and production of speech. Lesions here classically cause expressive (nonfluent) aphasia with relatively preserved comprehension. Wernicke’s area is primarily for language comprehension, while the precentral gyrus is the primary motor cortex not specific to speech language formulation. The temporal lobe contains auditory and comprehension-related language regions rather than the motor speech center.
Category reason: This question tests localization of brain function (speech production centers) within the nervous system, which is core Neurology content rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 30

A nurse is assessing a newborn and strokes the sole of the foot. The infant responds by fanning the toes outward. This is an example of which reflex?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Stroking the lateral sole of a newborn’s foot producing dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes is the classic extensor plantar response. This finding is normal in infants due to incomplete myelination of the corticospinal tracts and typically disappears by about 12–24 months. By contrast, the Moro reflex is a startle response with arm abduction/extension, rooting is turning toward a cheek stimulus, and tonic neck is the “fencer” posture with head turning.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a primitive neonatal reflex and its neurologic basis (normal extensor plantar response in infancy), which is foundational neurodevelopment knowledge rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 31

BRAIN IS A PART OF?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The brain is a primary organ of the central nervous system, along with the spinal cord. It integrates sensory information, coordinates motor output, and regulates higher cognitive functions. While it influences endocrine function via the hypothalamus and pituitary control, it is not classified as part of the endocrine system itself.
Category reason: This question tests basic identification of which body system the brain belongs to, a foundational neuroanatomy/neurology concept rather than a nursing intervention or patient-care decision.

Question 32

Which part of the brain acts as the relay station for sensory impulses to the cortex?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The thalamus is the major subcortical relay center that routes most sensory information (except olfaction) to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex for perception. It also participates in filtering and modulating sensory signals and contributes to attention and arousal. In contrast, the hypothalamus mainly regulates autonomic and endocrine homeostasis, the pons is primarily a brainstem conduction/respiratory and cranial nerve center, and the cerebellum coordinates movement and balance.
Category reason: This question tests foundational neuroanatomy/functional localization of brain structures (sensory relay pathways), which is best classified under Neurology rather than patient-care decision-making.

Question 33

Which structure acts as the brain's main relay station, receiving sensory information and sending it to the appropriate areas of the cortex for processing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is the major sensory relay nucleus, routing most incoming sensory signals (except olfaction) to the appropriate cortical regions for interpretation. It also helps regulate arousal, attention, and consciousness through widespread connections with the cortex. By contrast, the hippocampus is primarily involved in memory formation, the hypothalamus in homeostasis/endocrine control, and the amygdala in emotional processing (especially fear and threat).
Category reason: This question tests identification of a specific brain structure’s function in sensory signal relay to the cortex, which is a core topic within neuroanatomy/neurophysiology under Neurology.

Question 34

Medulla Oblongata is part of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The medulla oblongata is a structure of the brainstem, located between the pons and the spinal cord. It contains vital autonomic centers that regulate respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure. Because it is part of the central nervous system and specifically the brainstem, it is classified as part of the brain rather than a separate organ system like the heart, kidneys, or lungs.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about the location of a specific nervous system structure (medulla oblongata) within the brainstem, which falls under Neurology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 35

Q.1264: Brown Sequard syndrome is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Brown-Séquard syndrome classically results from a hemicord lesion that disrupts specific ascending and descending tracts. This produces ipsilateral motor weakness and loss of proprioception/vibration (corticospinal and dorsal column), with contralateral loss of pain and temperature below the lesion (spinothalamic). A complete transection would cause bilateral deficits, while brainstem or cerebellar lesions create different, non-hemicord patterns.
Category reason: This item tests identification of the neuroanatomic lesion responsible for a named spinal cord syndrome, which is foundational neurologic pathology rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 36

Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vision depends on afferent sensory input from the retina traveling to the brain via the second cranial nerve. This nerve carries visual information for acuity, color, and visual fields to central visual pathways. By contrast, CN III and CN IV primarily control extraocular movements, CN I mediates smell, and CN V mediates facial sensation and muscles of mastication.
Category reason: This question tests cranial nerve function (sensory pathways for vision), which is a foundational neuroanatomy/neurophysiology topic rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 37

Which type of nerve fibers are most commonly affected first in diabetic neuropathy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diabetic peripheral neuropathy typically begins as a length-dependent “small fiber” neuropathy, affecting thinly myelinated A-delta and unmyelinated C fibers first. These fibers mediate pain and temperature, matching early symptoms such as burning pain, tingling, and altered thermal sensation in a stocking-glove distribution. Larger myelinated fibers (vibration/proprioception) and significant motor involvement usually occur later, while autonomic involvement can occur but is not the typical earliest pattern in the most common distal symmetric polyneuropathy.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about which nerve fiber types are affected first in a disease process (diabetic neuropathy), which is primarily neurophysiology/pathophysiology content within Neurology rather than a nursing-intervention judgment.

Question 38

Cushing's triad includes all except:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cushing’s triad is a classic physiologic response to increased intracranial pressure with brainstem compression. It consists of widened pulse pressure/systemic hypertension, bradycardia (reflex vagal response), and irregular respirations due to impaired respiratory centers. An increased heart rate is not part of the triad and would be inconsistent with the expected reflex bradycardia.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a classic sign cluster related to increased intracranial pressure and brainstem dysfunction, which is core Neurology (foundational pathophysiology) knowledge rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 39

Which glial cell type plays a critical role in forming the blood-brain barrier and regulating the extracellular environment of neurons in the central nervous system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They contribute to the blood-brain barrier via astrocytic end-feet that support and signal to cerebral capillary endothelial cells to maintain tight junction integrity. They also regulate the neuronal extracellular milieu by buffering potassium, clearing neurotransmitters (e.g., glutamate), and helping maintain water and pH balance. In contrast, oligodendrocytes myelinate CNS axons, microglia provide immune/phagocytic defense, and ependymal cells line ventricles and participate in CSF dynamics.
Category reason: This question tests foundational neuroglial cell functions (blood-brain barrier formation and extracellular homeostasis), which is core neuroanatomy/physiology knowledge rather than nursing care decision-making, so it fits NursingScience under Neurology.

Question 40

Which of the following is a function of the Cerebellum?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: D) Balance and Coordination The cerebellum fine-tunes voluntary motor activity by integrating proprioceptive, vestibular, and visual input to produce smooth, coordinated movement. It is essential for postural control and gait stability, and cerebellar damage typically causes ataxia, dysmetria, and intention tremor. Memory storage is primarily mediated by hippocampal/temporal lobe circuits, thirst sensation by the hypothalamus, and emotion regulation largely by limbic and prefrontal networks.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about the functional role of a specific brain structure (the cerebellum), which is core content in Neurology rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 41

Inability to speak?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This describes an acquired language disorder causing impaired ability to produce and/or comprehend speech, commonly from dominant-hemisphere stroke. It differs from dysarthria (motor speech weakness) and from impaired consciousness/sedation. The other options refer to pain relief, loss of sensation, or coordination/gait disturbance rather than language production.
Category reason: This tests recognition of a neurologic language deficit term (speech/language function), which is a core Neurology concept rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 42

Which of the following symptoms is commonly reported by the patient immediately following cerebral aneurysm rupture?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rupture of a cerebral aneurysm most often causes subarachnoid hemorrhage with a sudden, severe “thunderclap” headache due to acute meningeal irritation and a rapid rise in intracranial pressure. This is classically described as the worst headache of the patient’s life and is typically the earliest and most commonly reported immediate symptom. Photophobia can occur from meningeal irritation but is less primary and may not be the first complaint. Focal deficits such as hemiparesis are more variable and depend on secondary ischemia/vasospasm or associated intracerebral bleeding rather than being the most common immediate report.
Category reason: The item tests recognition of classic presenting symptoms of aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage, which is foundational neurologic pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization decision.

Question 43

Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for vision?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The primary visual cortex (V1) is located in the occipital lobe, where visual signals from the retina (via the optic nerves, chiasm, tracts, and lateral geniculate nucleus) are first processed for conscious perception. Damage to this region commonly causes visual field defects such as contralateral homonymous hemianopia or cortical blindness. Other lobes have different primary functions (frontal: executive/motor; temporal: hearing/memory; parietal: somatosensory/spatial processing).
Category reason: This item tests foundational neuroanatomy localization of function (which cerebral lobe contains the primary visual cortex), which is biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing action/priority decision.

Question 44

The gaps between the segments of oligodendrocytes or between individual Schwann cells are called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These are the unmyelinated gaps between successive myelin segments formed by Schwann cells in the PNS and oligodendrocytes in the CNS. They contain a high density of voltage-gated sodium channels, enabling saltatory conduction. This arrangement markedly increases nerve impulse conduction velocity compared with continuous conduction along unmyelinated axons.
Category reason: This question tests foundational neuroanatomy/physiology terminology about myelination and axonal conduction, which falls under Neurology rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 45

Meningitis is the Inflammation of ........?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A) Meninges Meningitis refers to inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord (dura, arachnoid, and pia mater). This inflammation is most commonly due to infection (bacterial, viral, fungal), leading to meningeal irritation and increased intracranial pressure. In contrast, inflammation of the spinal cord itself is termed myelitis.
Category reason: This is a foundational definition question about a neurologic condition and which nervous system structure is inflamed, which fits Neurology within NursingScience rather than nursing interventions or clinical prioritization.

Question 46

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by__?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CSF is secreted primarily by the choroid plexus within the brain’s ventricles via specialized ependymal cells and associated capillaries. Arachnoid villi (granulations) function mainly in reabsorbing CSF into the venous circulation, not producing it. The pia and dura mater are meningeal layers that provide protection and vascular support but are not the principal sites of CSF formation.
Category reason: This tests foundational neuroanatomy/physiology of CSF production and circulation, which falls under Neurology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 47

Which is the largest cranial nerve?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b) Trigeminal It is the largest cranial nerve (CN V) and has extensive sensory distribution to the face, cornea, nasal and oral cavities, and dura, along with a substantial motor component to the muscles of mastication. Its large mixed (sensory and motor) root and broad anatomic territory make it larger than other cranial nerves listed. By contrast, the vagus is longest and has widespread parasympathetic functions, but it is not the largest by size.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about cranial nerve anatomy and identification, which falls under Neurology rather than patient-care decision-making.

Question 48

The gap between two Schwann cells is—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These are the periodic gaps in the myelin sheath between adjacent Schwann cells along a peripheral axon. They contain high densities of voltage-gated sodium channels, enabling saltatory conduction. This mechanism increases conduction velocity by allowing action potentials to “jump” from node to node rather than propagate continuously along the entire membrane.
Category reason: This question tests foundational neuroanatomy/neurophysiology terminology about myelinated peripheral nerves (Schwann cells and nodes), which fits best under Neurology rather than nursing-care decision making.

Question 49

Most common side effect of ECT is defect in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ECT commonly causes cognitive adverse effects, most notably transient confusion and memory impairment. Patients may have anterograde memory problems and retrograde amnesia for events around the treatment period, which typically improves over days to weeks. Speech, thought, and judgment are not the characteristic primary deficits compared with the well-known short-term memory effects.
Category reason: This question tests a biomedical fact about a neuropsychiatric treatment’s common adverse effect rather than a nursing care decision or prioritization, so it fits NursingScience under Neurology.

Question 50

A disorder of disturbance in mood, behaviour and thinking is supposed to be?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is a psychiatric disorder characterized by disturbances in multiple domains, including thinking (e.g., disorganized thought, delusions), behavior (e.g., disorganized or catatonic behavior), and affect/mood (e.g., blunted or inappropriate affect, mood symptoms). Mania and depression are primarily mood disorders, and delusion is a symptom rather than a full syndrome. The broad triad of thought, behavior, and affect disturbance best matches schizophrenia as a clinical diagnosis.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a psychiatric/brain-based disorder and its defining clinical features rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, fitting foundational neuro/mental health science knowledge.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Neurology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

Q.783 NORMAL RANGE OF ICP IS-?

Brain cells are called?

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

A client with long-standing diabetes complains of burning foot pain. What is the likely cause?

Auto -Abs against As on the myelin sheath:

Hypertension nuchal rigidity, fever and headache classical signs of :

The visual area of brain is located in__?

Which lobe is responsible for hearing?

Which is the sensory cranial nerve?

The motor speech area (Broca's area) lies in—

Which tract carries pain & temperature?

Reflex action occurs through—

Which lobe of brain controls personality & judgment?

Parkinson’s disease is due to deficiency of—?

The most basic difference between neurosis and psychosis is?

Which among the following is a perceptual abnormality?

False sensory perception with no actual basis is called as?

Filling up blank memories with false stories is called as?

Disturbance of consciousness is common in?

The junction between two nerve cells is known as _______.?

Which part of the brain controls emotions and memory?

How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in the human body?

Which of the following is the longest cranial nerve?

Sciatica pain usually radiates along which area?

Q. Alzheimer's disease affects which organ?

Which organ is called the “control center” of human body?

Which of the following is the earliest sign of Parkinson’s disease?

The motor area responsible for speech production is located in the?

A nurse is assessing a newborn and strokes the sole of the foot. The infant responds by fanning the toes outward. This is an example of which reflex?

BRAIN IS A PART OF?

Which part of the brain acts as the relay station for sensory impulses to the cortex?

Which structure acts as the brain's main relay station, receiving sensory information and sending it to the appropriate areas of the cortex for processing?

Medulla Oblongata is part of?

Q.1264: Brown Sequard syndrome is caused by?

Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

Which type of nerve fibers are most commonly affected first in diabetic neuropathy?

Cushing's triad includes all except:

Which glial cell type plays a critical role in forming the blood-brain barrier and regulating the extracellular environment of neurons in the central nervous system?

Which of the following is a function of the Cerebellum?

Inability to speak?

Which of the following symptoms is commonly reported by the patient immediately following cerebral aneurysm rupture?

Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for vision?

The gaps between the segments of oligodendrocytes or between individual Schwann cells are called?

Meningitis is the Inflammation of ........?

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by__?

Which is the largest cranial nerve?

The gap between two Schwann cells is—?

Most common side effect of ECT is defect in?

A disorder of disturbance in mood, behaviour and thinking is supposed to be?

Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?

Leave a Reply Cancel reply