Question 1

Erythropoiesis-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: D) all of the above Erythropoiesis is the physiologic production of red blood cells, primarily in the bone marrow. Tissue hypoxia increases renal erythropoietin release, which stimulates erythroid progenitor proliferation and maturation, raising RBC mass to improve oxygen-carrying capacity. Therefore statements A, B, and C are all true.
Category reason: This tests foundational blood physiology (RBC production and erythropoietin regulation), which belongs to Hematology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 2

Normal percentage of neutrophils -

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B) 70 Neutrophils are the predominant circulating leukocyte in adults, typically comprising about 50%–70% of the total white blood cell count on a differential. Values like 2% are more consistent with basophils, and 25%–40% are more typical of lymphocytes (age-dependent) rather than neutrophils. Therefore, 70% best matches the normal upper-range proportion for neutrophils on a standard CBC differential.
Category reason: This is a question about normal leukocyte differential ranges on a CBC, which is a core concept in blood cell composition and interpretation within Hematology rather than nursing interventions or clinical prioritization.

Question 3

All are granulocytes, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Granulocytes are leukocytes characterized by prominent cytoplasmic granules and include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Monocytes are classified as agranulocytes, with a large kidney-shaped nucleus and minimal specific granules on standard staining. This distinction is a basic hematology concept related to white blood cell morphology and lineage. Therefore, the exception among the listed cells is the agranulocyte.
Category reason: This question tests classification of white blood cells based on morphology (granulocytes vs agranulocytes), which is a foundational Hematology topic rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 4

Red cells in iron deficiency anaemia are -?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Iron deficiency reduces hemoglobin synthesis, leading to smaller-than-normal erythrocytes and a decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV). This produces a microcytic anemia (often also hypochromic). Normocytic red cells are more typical of acute blood loss or anemia of chronic disease early on, not classic iron deficiency. Among the choices, the morphology most characteristic of iron deficiency anemia is microcytosis.
Category reason: This question tests red blood cell morphology in anemia, a core topic in blood disorders and indices (e.g., MCV), which falls under Hematology.

Question 5

Platelets have a lifespan o

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B) 7-10 days Platelets (thrombocytes) typically circulate for about a week to 10 days before being removed mainly by the spleen and liver. Their relatively short lifespan reflects ongoing consumption in normal hemostasis and senescence. This timeframe is clinically relevant for understanding recovery after bone marrow suppression and the expected duration of antiplatelet effects in some contexts.
Category reason: This item tests a foundational fact about blood cell lifespan, which is core content in Hematology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.

Question 6

In vitro coagulation is initiated by clotting factor-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In vitro coagulation (as assessed in lab tubes) is classically initiated by contact activation of the intrinsic pathway when blood contacts negatively charged surfaces. This activates factor XII (Hageman factor), which then triggers a cascade through factor XI and IX leading to activation of factor X and thrombin generation. Factor VII instead initiates the extrinsic pathway in vivo in response to tissue factor exposure.
Category reason: This tests the coagulation cascade and which clotting factor initiates the intrinsic (contact) pathway in vitro, a core concept in blood physiology and hemostasis within Hematology.

Question 7

Hemophilia is due to deficiency of_factor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C) VIII Hemophilia A is caused by an inherited deficiency of coagulation factor VIII, leading to impaired intrinsic pathway function and inadequate thrombin generation. This results in prolonged bleeding, classically into joints (hemarthroses) and soft tissues after minor trauma. Hemophilia B is due to factor IX deficiency, so factor IV (calcium) and factor X deficiency do not match the typical definition of hemophilia in this context.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of coagulation factor deficiencies and the pathogenesis of inherited bleeding disorders, which is core Hematology content.

Question 8

The Place where RBCs are produced is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Erythropoiesis in adults occurs primarily in the hematopoietic tissue of red bone marrow (e.g., pelvis, ribs, sternum, vertebrae). The liver is a major site of RBC production only during fetal development, and blood is the transport medium rather than the production site. Testes are not involved in RBC formation. Erythropoietin from the kidneys stimulates marrow production in response to hypoxia.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about where red blood cells are formed, which is a core topic in blood cell formation and function within Hematology rather than a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 9

Common cause of anemia is deficiency of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Iron is essential for hemoglobin synthesis and normal red blood cell production; deficiency leads to microcytic, hypochromic anemia. It is one of the most common nutritional deficiencies worldwide, often related to chronic blood loss (e.g., menstruation, GI bleeding) or inadequate intake/absorption. Calcium and sodium do not cause anemia through hemoglobin production failure. Vitamin C deficiency can impair iron absorption and cause scurvy-related bleeding, but it is not the most common direct cause of anemia compared with iron deficiency.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of the nutrient required for hemoglobin and red blood cell production, which is core content within Hematology rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.

Question 10

Which blood cells help in clotting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They are key mediators of primary hemostasis by adhering to damaged endothelium, activating, and aggregating to form the initial platelet plug. They also provide a phospholipid surface that accelerates the coagulation cascade to generate fibrin for clot stabilization. In contrast, red cells mainly transport oxygen, white cells primarily support immune defense, and plasma is the fluid component that carries clotting factors but is not a cell type.
Category reason: This tests foundational knowledge of blood components and their roles in hemostasis, which is a core topic within Hematology rather than nursing decision-making.

Question 11

The antibody usually responsible for PCH is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: PCH (paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria) is classically associated with a biphasic hemolysin known as the Donath–Landsteiner antibody. This antibody is typically an IgG autoantibody with anti-P specificity that binds RBCs in the cold and triggers complement-mediated intravascular hemolysis upon warming. Therefore, the option indicating anti-P (written here as anti Po) best matches the antibody usually responsible for PCH.
Category reason: This question tests immunohematology knowledge about which RBC antibody is implicated in a specific hemolytic condition (PCH), which fits Hematology rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 12

The warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is due to ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is classically mediated by antibodies that react optimally at body temperature (around 37°C). These are predominantly IgG antibodies that bind to RBCs and promote extravascular hemolysis, mainly in the spleen via Fc receptor–mediated phagocytosis. In contrast, cold agglutinin disease is typically IgM-mediated with complement activation at lower temperatures.
Category reason: This is a foundational immuno-hematology knowledge question about which immunoglobulin class causes a specific type of hemolytic anemia, fitting Hematology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 13

The blood group individuals which are found to be resistance to a west African malaria parasite ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Duffy blood group antigen (DARC/ACKR1) is used by Plasmodium vivax to invade red blood cells. Many individuals in West Africa are Duffy-negative, which prevents this invasion pathway and provides relative resistance to P. vivax malaria. The other listed blood group systems (Kell, Kidd, Lutheran) are important in transfusion reactions but are not the classic determinant of resistance to this malaria parasite.
Category reason: This question tests blood group antigens and their relationship to malaria susceptibility, which is a hematology topic involving red blood cell surface antigens.

Question 14

The color of anti-sera A :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In standard ABO blood grouping reagents, anti-A serum is typically dyed blue to allow quick visual identification and reduce mix-ups during slide/tube testing. This color-coding helps ensure the correct antisera is applied to the patient’s red cell sample. Accurate reagent identification is essential to avoid ABO typing errors that could lead to incompatible transfusion.
Category reason: This question tests factual knowledge about ABO blood grouping reagents used in blood typing, which is a core topic in Hematology rather than nursing-care decision making.

Question 15

The color of anti-sera B is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Commercial ABO blood grouping reagents are color-coded to reduce identification errors during forward typing. Anti-B reagent is conventionally dyed blue so it can be distinguished from anti-A (typically blue-tinted/other color codes depending on kit) and anti-D (often colorless). This standardization supports safe, rapid setup and interpretation of agglutination reactions in transfusion testing.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of laboratory blood grouping reagents used in ABO typing, which falls under Hematology.

Question 16

The normal range of hemoglobin in adult females is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. 12–16 g/dL This tests standard reference ranges for hemoglobin by sex, where adult females typically have a lower range than males due to factors such as menstruation and generally lower androgen-driven erythropoiesis. Values below this range suggest anemia and warrant evaluation for iron deficiency, blood loss, chronic disease, or other causes. Values well above the upper limit suggest polycythemia or hemoconcentration and require assessment of hypoxia, dehydration, or myeloproliferative disorders.
Category reason: This is a question about a normal laboratory reference range for hemoglobin, which is a core topic in blood and hematologic physiology/diagnostics.

Question 17

Which of the following organs is known as the “graveyard” of RBCs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Senescent and damaged erythrocytes are primarily removed from circulation by macrophages in the splenic red pulp, making it the classic “graveyard” of RBCs. The spleen filters blood through narrow splenic cords/sinusoids, where less deformable aged RBCs become trapped and are phagocytosed. Hemoglobin is broken down, with iron recycled and heme converted to bilirubin for further processing. The liver can also clear RBCs, but the spleen is the most commonly cited primary site in basic physiology/hematology questions.
Category reason: This question tests where aged red blood cells are destroyed and recycled, a core concept in blood cell turnover and reticuloendothelial function, which fits Hematology.

Question 18

The nurse is talking to a client that is being evaluated for possible acute leukemia. Which question is the nurse is most relevant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. Did you have a respiratory infection recently? Acute leukemia commonly causes bone marrow failure with neutropenia, which increases susceptibility to bacterial and fungal infections; recent or recurrent infections are therefore a highly relevant symptom to assess. Respiratory infections are particularly common and can be an early presentation prompting evaluation. The other options are more nonspecific constitutional or lifestyle questions and are less directly linked to a hallmark complication of acute leukemia.
Category reason: This item tests hallmark manifestations/complications of acute leukemia related to marrow suppression (e.g., neutropenia and infections), which is foundational blood-disorder knowledge within Hematology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 19

Which mineral is essential for hemoglobin synthesis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hemoglobin contains heme groups that require iron to bind oxygen, so adequate iron availability is necessary for normal erythropoiesis and hemoglobin production. Iron deficiency impairs heme synthesis and leads to microcytic, hypochromic anemia with reduced oxygen-carrying capacity. Calcium and sodium are not structural components of hemoglobin, and iodine is primarily required for thyroid hormone synthesis rather than red blood cell hemoglobin formation.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about the mineral requirement for hemoglobin production and red blood cell physiology, which is best categorized under Hematology rather than nursing interventions.

Question 20

Factor II of blood clotting is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the coagulation cascade, factor II is the inactive zymogen that is converted to thrombin (factor IIa) by the prothrombinase complex. Thrombin then catalyzes conversion of fibrinogen (factor I) into fibrin to form a stable clot. By contrast, Christmas factor is factor IX, fibrinogen is factor I, and thromboplastin corresponds to tissue factor (factor III).
Category reason: This item tests factual knowledge of coagulation factor numbering and names within blood physiology and hemostasis, which falls under Hematology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 21

One of fibrinogen group is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fibrinogen is coagulation factor I, but among the choices provided the only one within the classic “fibrinogen group” (fibrinogen-prothrombin-stable factor) is factor II (prothrombin). Factors V and VIII are “labile factors,” and factors VII and IX are vitamin K–dependent but not part of the fibrinogen group classification. Therefore, factor II is the best match from the listed options.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of blood coagulation factor classifications, which is foundational science content within hematology rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision scenario.

Question 22

Thrombopoietin control the formation of:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thrombopoietin (TPO) is the primary hormone regulating megakaryocyte proliferation and maturation in the bone marrow, which directly increases platelet production. It is produced mainly by the liver (and also kidney/stroma) and acts via the c-Mpl receptor on megakaryocyte lineage cells. In contrast, erythropoietin primarily regulates red blood cell production, and colony-stimulating factors regulate various white blood cell lines.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of hematopoietic growth factors and which blood cell lineage they regulate, which falls under Hematology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 23

Parasitic disease is associated with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Helminth and other parasitic infections commonly trigger a Th2 immune response with increased IL-5, which drives eosinophil production and activation. Eosinophils participate in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity against parasites and are therefore characteristically elevated in many parasitic diseases. Monocytosis is more typical of chronic inflammation or certain infections (e.g., TB), lymphocytosis is often seen in viral infections, and basophilia is classically associated with myeloproliferative disorders or allergic states.
Category reason: This question tests which leukocyte pattern is classically associated with parasitic infections, a foundational blood/immune cell concept within Hematology rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision-making scenario.

Question 24

Biochemical changes in the stored blood RBCs:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During storage, red cells develop “storage lesions,” including reduced ATP and membrane lipid/protein changes that make them less deformable and alter their shape. Membrane damage and changes in ion pumps lead to shifts in intracellular/extracellular electrolytes and water handling, making cells more susceptible to hemolysis under hypotonic stress (increased osmotic fragility). Because both listed changes occur in stored RBCs, the combined option is the best answer.
Category reason: This tests knowledge of storage-related cellular and biochemical changes of erythrocytes, which is a foundational hematology concept rather than a nursing decision-making scenario.

Question 25

The red cells in frozen state can be stored for years by addition of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Glycerol acts as a cryoprotectant that penetrates red blood cells and reduces intracellular ice crystal formation during freezing. This prevents membrane rupture and hemolysis, allowing long-term storage at very low temperatures. The other listed gases do not provide cryoprotection for cellular preservation in frozen blood products.
Category reason: This tests knowledge of blood product preservation and the role of cryoprotectants in red blood cell storage, which is a hematology topic rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 26

Dark red color and blood bag means:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blood donation services commonly use standardized color-coding on blood bag labels/tags to quickly identify ABO and Rh type. In that scheme, a dark red color code corresponds to O positive. Correct identification helps prevent ABO/Rh incompatibility reactions, which can be rapidly fatal if mismatched blood is transfused.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of ABO/Rh blood group labeling conventions rather than nursing interventions, fitting foundational transfusion/hematology knowledge.

Question 27

Which blood group is known as the universal recipient?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Individuals with AB blood type lack anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma, so they can accept red blood cells from A, B, AB, or O types without an ABO mismatch. Being Rh-positive also allows them to receive both Rh-positive and Rh-negative red cells (whereas Rh-negative recipients should preferentially receive Rh-negative blood). Therefore, AB+ is considered the universal recipient for packed red blood cell transfusions. This concept applies to RBC transfusion compatibility, not plasma (where AB is the universal donor).
Category reason: This question tests ABO/Rh blood group compatibility and transfusion principles, which are core concepts in blood and immune cell science and belong to Hematology rather than nursing intervention decision-making.

Question 28

The ratio of the volume of cellular elements to that of whole blood is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hematocrit measures the proportion (ratio/percentage) of blood volume occupied by red blood cells relative to total whole blood volume. It is commonly reported as a percent and reflects red cell mass and plasma volume status. In contrast, MCV is average RBC size, MCH is hemoglobin amount per RBC, and MCHC is hemoglobin concentration within RBCs.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of standard hematology indices and what each laboratory parameter represents, which is foundational biomedical science rather than a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 29

Major cross match:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The major crossmatch tests whether antibodies in the recipient’s serum will react against antigens on the donor’s red blood cells, which is the most clinically dangerous incompatibility. Agglutination or hemolysis indicates the recipient has antibodies that could cause an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. This is why the recipient serum is mixed with donor cells prior to transfusion to confirm compatibility and prevent severe transfusion complications.
Category reason: This question tests the laboratory principle of pretransfusion compatibility testing (major crossmatch) and antigen–antibody reactions in blood transfusion, which is core Hematology knowledge rather than a nursing action/prioritization scenario.

Question 30

The platelet are stored at ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Platelets are stored at controlled room temperature because refrigeration increases the risk of platelet activation and decreases post-transfusion survival and function. Standard blood bank practice maintains platelets around 20–24°C (often specified as 20–26°C) with continuous gentle agitation to preserve viability. Freezing temperatures (e.g., -180°C) are not used for routine platelet storage, and 2–6°C is typical for packed red blood cells rather than platelets.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of blood component storage conditions, which is a core topic within Hematology rather than nursing judgment or patient-care prioritization.

Question 31

The shelf life of deglycerolized blood is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a- 24 hours Once red blood cells are deglycerolized (washed after thawing), the process increases the risk of bacterial contamination and the product must be stored in an open/less-sterile system. Because of that contamination risk, the allowable refrigerated storage time is very short compared with standard packed RBC units. Standard transfusion practice therefore limits deglycerolized RBCs to a 24-hour shelf life at 1–6°C (commonly cited for open-system washing). This prevents transfusion of a unit with unacceptable microbial risk.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of blood product processing and storage requirements (deglycerolized red cells), which is a transfusion medicine topic within Hematology rather than a nursing judgment/action scenario.

Question 32

Fanconi’s anemia is a type of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b- aplastic anemia Fanconi anemia is an inherited bone marrow failure syndrome characterized by progressive pancytopenia due to reduced hematopoietic stem cell function. This produces an aplastic anemia picture (hypocellular marrow) rather than a nutritional megaloblastic anemia from folate or vitamin B deficiency. Thalassemia is a genetic hemoglobin synthesis disorder causing microcytic anemia, which is a different mechanism. The defining feature in Fanconi anemia is marrow aplasia/failure, often with congenital anomalies and increased malignancy risk.
Category reason: This question tests classification of a blood disorder by its underlying hematologic pathology (bone marrow failure leading to pancytopenia), which is foundational biomedical knowledge in Hematology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 33

The most abundant leukocyte in a normal blood smear of adult is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: d- Neutrophil In a normal adult differential count, neutrophils are the predominant circulating white blood cell, typically comprising about 50–70% of leukocytes. They are the primary rapid responders of innate immunity, especially against bacterial infection, which explains their higher baseline proportion. Lymphocytes are usually second most common (~20–40%), while monocytes and eosinophils are present in smaller percentages under normal conditions.
Category reason: This question tests normal leukocyte distribution in peripheral blood (differential count), which is a core concept in Hematology.

Question 34

The largest leukocyte is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Monocytes are the largest circulating leukocytes, typically ~12–20 µm in diameter. Neutrophils are generally smaller (~10–12 µm) and lymphocytes are often the smallest among these (~7–10 µm for small lymphocytes). Monocytes can further differentiate into macrophages in tissues, reflecting their larger size and abundant cytoplasm.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge about blood cell types and their characteristics (relative size of leukocytes), which belongs to Hematology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 35

Increased platelet count is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b- thrombocytosis An increased platelet count is termed thrombocytosis, whereas thrombocytopenia refers to a decreased platelet count. Thrombocytosis can be reactive (e.g., inflammation, infection, iron deficiency) or due to a myeloproliferative disorder (e.g., essential thrombocythemia). Elevated platelets can increase thrombotic risk, while very high levels may also be associated with bleeding due to platelet dysfunction.
Category reason: This is a terminology/definition question about platelet count abnormalities, which is a core topic in Hematology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 36

Decreased platelet count is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a- thrombocytopenia A decreased platelet count is termed thrombocytopenia. Thrombocytosis refers to an increased platelet count, which is the opposite condition. Thrombopoietin is a hormone that regulates platelet production rather than describing the lab abnormality itself. Therefore, “all of the above” is incorrect because the terms are not synonymous.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a hematologic term describing an abnormal platelet count, which is foundational blood science rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 37

All these are causes of thrombocytopenia except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thrombocytopenia results from decreased platelet production, increased destruction/consumption, or splenic sequestration. Cytotoxic drugs and radiotherapy suppress bone marrow megakaryopoiesis, and aplastic anemia causes global marrow failure, all leading to low platelet counts. Acute bleeding primarily causes loss of circulating blood volume; platelet count is typically normal unless there is massive transfusion–related dilution or concurrent consumptive coagulopathy, so it is not a primary cause.
Category reason: This question tests mechanisms/etiologies of a hematologic lab abnormality (low platelets) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, so it fits Hematology within NursingScience.

Question 38

Prothrombin time is done to test?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: PT evaluates the extrinsic arm of coagulation (primarily factor VII) and the shared common pathway (factors X, V, II, and fibrinogen). Clinically it is used to monitor warfarin therapy and to assess conditions that reduce vitamin K–dependent factor synthesis (e.g., liver disease, vitamin K deficiency). In contrast, aPTT assesses the intrinsic and common pathways, so it is not the best test when asking specifically about PT targets.
Category reason: This item tests foundational knowledge of the coagulation cascade and which laboratory test corresponds to specific clotting pathways, which is core Hematology content rather than a nursing judgment/intervention scenario.

Question 39

Normal bleeding time by Duke's method:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This asks for the normal reference range for Duke’s bleeding time, a test of primary hemostasis reflecting platelet function and small-vessel integrity. The accepted normal range for the Duke method is a few minutes, and values expressed in seconds would be far too short for physiologic bleeding cessation under this method. A prolonged result suggests platelet dysfunction, thrombocytopenia, or von Willebrand disease, whereas a normal result supports intact primary hemostasis.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of normal hemostasis-related laboratory values and diagnostic test reference ranges, which falls under Hematology.

Question 40

Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Auer rods are needle-like azurophilic inclusions in myeloblasts and are a classic morphologic feature of acute myeloid leukemia. Low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase is more typical of chronic myeloid leukemia rather than AML. Pelger-Huët anomaly is a neutrophil nuclear hyposegmentation finding that can be congenital or acquired (including myelodysplastic syndromes) and is not a defining hallmark of AML, so “all of the above” is incorrect.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a defining hematologic morphology finding (Auer rods) used to identify acute myeloid leukemia, which is foundational disease knowledge rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 41

Increase D-dimers and fibrin degradation products are seen in cases of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DIC causes widespread activation of coagulation with secondary fibrinolysis, leading to elevated fibrin degradation products and D-dimer. These markers reflect breakdown of cross-linked fibrin formed during pathologic clotting. In hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease, impaired clot formation does not produce increased fibrin breakdown, so D-dimer is not typically elevated. Vitamin K deficiency reduces synthesis of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors and prolongs PT/INR but does not characteristically raise D-dimer/FDP unless there is concurrent thrombosis.
Category reason: This question tests interpretation of coagulation/fibrinolysis laboratory markers (D-dimer and FDP) and their association with a hematologic disorder, which is foundational biomedical knowledge in Hematology rather than a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 42

Activated protein C degrades:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Activated protein C (with protein S as a cofactor) inactivates key amplification cofactors in the coagulation cascade by proteolytic cleavage. Its main physiologic targets are factors Va and VIIIa, reducing thrombin generation and limiting clot propagation. Among the choices given, VIIIa is a direct substrate, whereas IXa and XIa are not primary APC targets.
Category reason: This question tests coagulation cascade regulation by activated protein C, which is core blood physiology and hemostasis content within Hematology rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 43

Heparin is found in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Basophils (and closely related mast cells) contain cytoplasmic granules rich in heparin and histamine. Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps modulate clotting during inflammatory and allergic responses. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes have other primary functions (phagocytosis, parasite/allergy modulation, antigen presentation) and are not the main cellular storage site for heparin.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about which leukocyte type stores specific granule contents (heparin), which belongs to blood/immune cell biology within Hematology rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 44

In hemophilia A the test which will be prolonged is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hemophilia A is due to factor VIII deficiency, which impairs the intrinsic coagulation pathway. The activated partial thromboplastin time evaluates the intrinsic and common pathways, so it becomes prolonged when factor VIII is low. Prothrombin time primarily reflects the extrinsic pathway (factor VII) and is typically normal in hemophilia A. Bleeding time assesses platelet function and is generally normal in isolated factor VIII deficiency.
Category reason: This question tests interpretation of coagulation studies in a specific bleeding disorder, which is a hematology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 45

Detecting ABO grouping by using the cells of the patient is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b- forward grouping This uses the patient’s red blood cells tested against known anti-A and anti-B antisera to identify which ABO antigens are present on the RBC surface. Reverse (backward) grouping instead uses the patient’s serum/plasma to detect naturally occurring anti-A/anti-B antibodies by reacting it with reagent A and B cells. Using patient cells therefore corresponds to the cell (antigen) typing step. This is standard practice in pre-transfusion ABO determination.
Category reason: This question tests understanding of ABO blood typing methods (antigen vs antibody testing) within transfusion medicine, which is a core topic in Hematology.

Question 46

Detecting ABO grouping using the serum of the patient is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a- reverse grouping In ABO typing, using the patient’s serum (which contains naturally occurring anti-A and/or anti-B antibodies) to test against known reagent red cells is the reverse (also called back) grouping method. Forward grouping instead uses the patient’s red cells tested with anti-A and anti-B reagents to detect antigens on the RBC surface. Reverse grouping serves as a confirmatory check that should be consistent with forward typing, helping detect discrepancies.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of blood group testing principles (forward vs reverse/back typing) within transfusion medicine, which is part of Hematology.

Question 47

Patient with anti A antibodies in his serum , his blood group is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b- group B ABO typing is based on antigens on RBCs and naturally occurring antibodies in serum. Individuals with type B blood express B antigen and therefore have anti-A antibodies in their plasma. Type A would have anti-B, type AB has neither antibody, and type O has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
Category reason: This question tests ABO blood group antigen–antibody relationships, a core concept in blood typing and transfusion science within Hematology.

Question 48

The red cells of a patient with neither A nor B antigen on the surface , his blood group is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the ABO system, RBCs are categorized by the presence of A and/or B antigens on their surface. If neither A nor B antigen is present, the phenotype is type O, which has anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma (unless altered by special clinical conditions). This is a foundational blood typing principle used for transfusion compatibility.
Category reason: This question tests ABO blood group antigen expression on red blood cells, which is a core topic in blood typing and transfusion science within Hematology.

Question 49

Cryoprecipitated is used for the treatment of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a- hemophilia A Cryoprecipitate is rich in factor VIII, fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, and factor XIII, so it can be used to replace deficient clotting factors when specific concentrates are unavailable. Hemophilia A is due to factor VIII deficiency, making this product therapeutically appropriate for correcting the coagulation defect and reducing bleeding. Anemia is treated with red blood cells, thrombocytopenia with platelets, and leukemia is not treated with blood component replacement as a primary therapy.
Category reason: This question tests which blood component (cryoprecipitate) is indicated for a coagulation factor deficiency, which is core content in Hematology rather than nursing-priority decision-making.

Question 50

Universal donor is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: d- group O Red blood cells of group O lack A and B antigens, so they are least likely to be attacked by recipient anti-A or anti-B antibodies in ABO-incompatible situations. For packed RBC transfusion, group O (especially O negative when considering Rh) is used as the safest emergency donor type. In contrast, group AB is the universal recipient for RBCs because it lacks anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Therefore, the universal donor in the ABO system is group O.
Category reason: This question tests blood group compatibility concepts (ABO typing and transfusion immunohematology), which fall under Hematology rather than nursing process or patient-care decision-making.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Hematology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning