Question 1

Which nerve is involved in carpal tunnel syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel.

Question 2

Cranial nerve II is related to...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve, responsible for vision. Hearing is CN VIII, smell is CN I, and taste is mainly via CN VII, IX, and X.

Question 3

Kernig's sign is a striking feature of what?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Kernig's sign indicates meningeal irritation—pain/resistance to knee extension with the hip flexed—classically seen in meningitis.

Question 4

"Mask-like faces" are typical features of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Masked facies is characteristic of Parkinson's disease due to hypomimia from bradykinesia and rigidity of facial muscles.

Question 5

Which one of the following is the largest portion of the brain in humans?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebrum constitutes the majority of brain mass (about 80%), making it the largest portion of the human brain.

Question 6

A client with myasthenia gravis asks the nurse why the disease occurred. What pathology underlies the nurse's reply?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder causing antibody-mediated destruction of postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, reducing functional receptor sites.

Question 7

The micturition reflex center is located in the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Micturition is coordinated by the pontine micturition center (Barrington’s nucleus) in the pons; it modulates the sacral spinal reflex.

Question 8

What are the causes of neonatal seizures?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: All listed conditions—hypoxic‑ischemic encephalopathy, intracranial hemorrhage, TORCH infections, and hypocalcemia—are established causes of neonatal seizures.

Question 9

Korsakoff's syndrome is caused by the intake of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Korsakoff syndrome is a thiamine-deficiency amnestic disorder most commonly caused by chronic alcohol use; among the options, alcohol is the causative intake.

Question 10

Microcephaly is diagnosed when the head circumference is less than?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard definition: microcephaly is head circumference less than 2 SD below the mean for age and sex (severe at >3 SD).

Question 11

A 23-year-old client is admitted with a tonic-clonic seizure. The nurse knows that the most common cause of tonic-clonic seizures for this age group is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In young adults, new-onset generalized tonic–clonic seizures are most commonly due to head trauma; stroke is typical in older adults, congenital defects in children, and electrolyte imbalance is less common as a primary cause in this age group.

Question 12

Which of the following functions is influenced by the autonomic nervous system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary activity of visceral smooth muscle, including gastrointestinal motility (peristalsis). Knee-jerk and blinking are somatic reflexes.

Question 13

The best prognosis for neonatal seizures is in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among neonatal seizure types, focal clonic seizures are associated with the least underlying brain injury and have the most favorable neurodevelopmental outcome; myoclonic and tonic patterns carry poorer prognosis.

Question 14

Most common type of seizure in a newborn?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In neonates the most frequent seizure type is subtle seizures (e.g., eye deviation, chewing, bicycling) due to immature cortical organization; tonic/clonic and myoclonic types are less common.

Question 15

Klumpke's palsy is due to the involvement of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Klumpke’s palsy involves the lower brachial plexus, classically C8–T1. Among the given options, the closest match is the 7th and 8th cervical nerves.

Question 16

Do simple or typical febrile seizures occur in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typical febrile seizures occur in children between 6 months and 5 years of age; outside this range is atypical.

Question 17

Jitteriness can be distinguished from seizures by all of the following EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Jitteriness is typically stimulus-sensitive and lacks ocular phenomena and autonomic changes, which are common in seizures. Movement frequency is not a reliable distinguishing criterion.

Question 18

Paralysis of both upper & lower extremities is known?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paralysis of all four limbs—both upper and lower extremities—is termed quadriplegia; paraplegia involves only the legs, hemiplegia one side, and monoplegia a single limb.

Question 19

The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which past medical history finding makes the client most at risk for this disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Guillain-Barré syndrome commonly follows a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection 1–4 weeks earlier (e.g., Campylobacter, CMV). Recent infection is the most relevant risk factor.

Question 20

Tingling, numbness and pain in the thumb and fingers of a pregnant women suggestive of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Median nerve compression in the carpal tunnel during pregnancy causes paresthesia and pain in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger—classic for carpal tunnel syndrome.

Question 21

A brain tumor located within the anterior 2/3rd of brain mainly cerebrum is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The anterior two-thirds of the brain consist mainly of the cerebral hemispheres located above the tentorium cerebelli; tumors here are termed supratentorial.

Question 22

Which of the following disorder causes dopamine neurons to die?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parkinson’s disease is characterized by degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to dopamine depletion. The other listed disorders do not primarily cause dopamine neuron death.

Question 23

Olfactory nerve is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cranial nerve I (olfactory) carries special sensory fibers for smell only and has no motor component.

Question 24

The part of the neuron that receive messages from other cells is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dendrites are the neuronal processes that receive synaptic input from other cells; the axon transmits outputs, the soma integrates signals, and Schwann cells are glia.

Question 25

This is the ability to identify an object with sensation only?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Stereognosis is the ability to recognize objects by touch alone; asterognosis is the inability to do so. Ataxia is incoordination and apraxia is impaired purposeful movement.

Question 26

Upper lesions of brachial plexus causes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An upper trunk (C5–C6) brachial plexus injury classically causes Erb-Duchenne palsy. Klumpke palsy results from lower trunk (C8–T1) injury.

Question 27

Which area in the frontal lobe is responsible for language production?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Broca's area, located in the inferior frontal gyrus of the frontal lobe, is responsible for language production; Wernicke's is for comprehension, prefrontal for executive functions, and motor cortex for voluntary movement.

Question 28

The process of thinking is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cognition refers to the mental processes involved in thinking, understanding, and knowing. Awareness, alertness, and attention are related states but not the comprehensive process of thinking.

Question 29

Which organ controls all body activities?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The brain is the body’s control center; it coordinates and regulates all bodily activities via the nervous system. The lungs, liver, and heart have specific functions but do not control all activities.

Question 30

Which device is used to detect brain wave activity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: EEG (electroencephalogram) records electrical activity of the brain; MRI images structure, ECG measures heart activity, and endoscopy visualizes internal lumens.

Question 31

Brain is what percent of body weight?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The adult human brain weighs about 1.3–1.4 kg, which is roughly 2% of average body weight.

Question 32

What part of the brain controls movement?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Voluntary movement is initiated by the primary motor cortex of the cerebral cortex; the brainstem handles vital functions and reflexes, and 'cerebrum' is too broad.

Question 33

Which part of the brain controls emotions and memory?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The amygdala is central to processing emotions and forming emotional memories; pons and medulla handle brainstem functions, and the occipital lobe is visual.

Question 34

“Saturday night palsy” is due to compression of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Saturday night palsy results from prolonged compression of the radial nerve in the spiral groove, typically after sleeping with the arm draped over a chair, leading to wrist drop.

Question 35

Positive Romberg test indicates problem in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Romberg assesses balance; loss of postural stability is classically tied to balance/coordination systems—among the choices, the cerebellum is the most directly responsible.

Question 36

The central nervous system is composed of the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord; peripheral nerves (motor or sensory) belong to the peripheral nervous system.

Question 37

Excessive daytime sleepiness is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Narcolepsy is characterized by irresistible sleep attacks and excessive daytime sleepiness; enuresis is bedwetting, insomnia is difficulty sleeping, and somnambulism is sleepwalking.

Question 38

A student nurse is observing a neurological nurse perform an assessment. When the nurse asks the client to "stick out his tongue," the nurse is assessing the function of which cranial nerve?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Protrusion and movement of the tongue are controlled by cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal). CN I is smell, CN II is vision, and CN X is mainly palate, gag, and autonomic functions.

Question 39

A client is admitted to the hospital with seizures. The client has jerking of the right arm and twitching of the face, but is alert and aware of the seizure. This behavior is characteristic of which type of seizure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Focal motor activity with preserved awareness is characteristic of a simple partial (focal aware) seizure; complex partial and generalized seizures involve impaired consciousness.

Question 40

A client is admitted with a tumor in the parietal lobe. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor's location?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The parietal lobe contains the primary somatosensory cortex; lesions commonly cause contralateral sensory loss or abnormal sensations (paresthesias). Hemiplegia is from the motor cortex (frontal), aphasia is typically frontal/temporal dominant hemisphere, and nausea is nonspecific.

Question 41

Which of the following statements about neurotransmitter changes in depression and mania is correct?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Depression is classically linked to decreased monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine) with relative cholinergic predominance; hence increased acetylcholine is associated with depression. Option A is opposite of expected, D incorrectly cites epinephrine, and C is not the core tested change for mania.

Question 42

What set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the brain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sensory (afferent) nerves transmit impulses from peripheral receptors to the CNS; motor (efferent) carry signals from the CNS to muscles. Cranial and vertebral are not the correct functional categories.

Question 43

Which part of the brain regulates hunger?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The hypothalamus contains the hunger and satiety centers (e.g., lateral and ventromedial nuclei) and integrates signals like leptin and ghrelin to regulate appetite.

Question 44

In a dangerous situation while walking alone, which part of your nervous system is activated to help you find an escape route?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Danger triggers the autonomic fight-or-flight response, mediated by the sympathetic nervous system, which heightens alertness and readiness to escape.

Question 45

The primary neurotransmitter involved in depression is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Depression is strongly linked to decreased serotonergic activity; SSRIs that increase serotonin are first-line treatments.

Question 46

The paralysis of both upper and lower extremities is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Quadriplegia refers to paralysis of all four limbs; hemiplegia is one side of the body, paraplegia affects both lower limbs, and monoplegia affects a single limb.

Question 47

Respiratory rhythm centre is present in which part of brain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The basic respiratory rhythm is generated by medullary centers (dorsal and ventral respiratory groups including the pre-Bötzinger complex). The pons modulates but does not generate the rhythm.

Question 48

Which part of the brain processes visual signals?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Visual processing occurs primarily in the occipital lobe, which contains the primary visual cortex.

Question 49

The Respiration centre is in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primary respiratory rhythm is generated by medullary centers (dorsal and ventral respiratory groups); pontine centers modulate but do not initiate breathing.

Question 50

Where is dopamine primarily produced in the body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dopamine is chiefly synthesized in the brain, especially in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area.

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