Neurology Practice Test 1
Neurology NCLEX Practice Test
Neurology, within the NCLEX test plan under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Neurology section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Neurology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Neurology Practice Test 1
Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
- Cerebrum
- Cerebellum
- Medulla oblongata
- Hypothalamus
Explanation: Answer reason: The cerebellum coordinates balance, posture, and fine motor control. The cerebrum handles higher cognition, the medulla oblongata controls vital autonomic functions, and the hypothalamus regulates homeostasis and endocrine activity.
Fourth cranial nerve is?
- Trigeminal
- Facial
- Trochlear
- Abducens
Explanation: Answer reason: The fourth cranial nerve (CN IV) is the trochlear nerve, which innervates the superior oblique muscle.
Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are?
- Enkephalins
- Kinins
- Prostaglandins
- Histamine
Explanation: Answer reason: Tissue injury releases several substances that sensitize pain receptors (nociceptors); prostaglandins are key chemical mediators that lower the threshold for pain. Enkephalins are inhibitory peptides, kinins act indirectly, and histamine is less specific.
Number of cranial nerves in human is?
- 10 pairs
- 16 pairs
- 12 pairs
- 8 pairs
Explanation: Answer reason: Humans have 12 pairs of cranial nerves, numbered I through XII.
Which is the longest nerve in the human body?
- Olfactory
- Trochlear
- Sciatic
Explanation: Answer reason: The sciatic nerve is the longest and thickest nerve, running from the lumbosacral region down to the foot.
What is the major neurotransmitter involved in the occurrence of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
- Dopamine
- Acetylcholine
- Epinephrine
- Serotonin
Explanation: Answer reason: OCD is strongly linked to dysregulation of serotonergic pathways; the effectiveness of SSRIs supports serotonin as the key neurotransmitter.
There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves, of which 8 lie in?
- Thoracic
- Sacral
- Cervical
- Coccygeal
Explanation: Answer reason: Spinal nerves are distributed as: 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 1 coccygeal pair. Therefore, 8 lie in the cervical region.
Which brain structure is responsible for smell?
- Hippocampus
- Cerebellum
- Olfactory bulb
- Medulla
Explanation: Answer reason: The olfactory bulb receives and processes olfactory (smell) input. The hippocampus is involved in memory, the cerebellum in coordination, and the medulla in autonomic functions.
Which cranial nerve regulates heart rate?
- VII
- IX
- VIII
- X
Explanation: Answer reason: Cranial nerve X (the vagus) provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart, slowing SA and AV nodal activity and regulating heart rate.
Voluntary movement disorder: impairment of the ability to perform rapid alternating movements is called ______?
- Adiadochokinesia
- Diadokokonesi
- Dysdiadochokinesia
- Cerebral palsy
Explanation: Answer reason: Dysdiadochokinesia is an impaired ability to perform rapid alternating movements, typically due to cerebellar dysfunction.
What is the function of the cerebellum in the brain?
- Control of voluntary muscle movements
- Regulation of body temperature
- Memory storage
- Coordination and balance
Explanation: Answer reason: The cerebellum fine-tunes voluntary movements and maintains posture, balance, and coordination. Temperature regulation is hypothalamic; memory storage is primarily hippocampal and cortical; initiation of voluntary movement is the motor cortex.
What is the largest part of the brain?
- Cerebrum
- Pons
- Medulla
- Hypothalamus
Explanation: Answer reason: The cerebrum comprises the majority of the brain's volume and is the largest brain region, responsible for higher cognitive functions.
Speech Centre is?
- Broca's area
- Premotor area
- Frontal area
- Postcentral area
Explanation: Answer reason: The motor speech center is Broca's area in the dominant inferior frontal gyrus; the premotor and postcentral areas are for motor planning and somatosensation, not speech production.
In which part of the brain is the respiratory center situated?
- Hypothalamus
- Pons
- Cerebral
- Medulla
Explanation: Answer reason: The primary respiratory centers (dorsal and ventral respiratory groups) reside in the medulla oblongata, which generates the basic rhythm of breathing; the pontine centers only modulate it.
What is the most common HIV-related neurological complication?
- Toxoplasmosis
- Tuberculosis
- Kaposi's sarcoma
- Lymphoma
Explanation: Answer reason: In patients with AIDS, reactivation of Toxoplasma gondii is the most common cause of focal CNS disease, producing brain abscesses and neurologic deficits; primary CNS lymphoma is less common.
Which of the following mediators is found mainly in long descending pathways from the midbrain to the dorsal horn?
- Prostaglandin E
- Dynorphin
- Enkephalin
- Glutamate
Explanation: Answer reason: Descending pain-modulating pathways from the midbrain to the dorsal horn use opioidergic mechanisms, with enkephalins being prominent in these long projections; the other options are not primary mediators of these descending tracts.
What is the falx cerebri made of?
- Dura mater
- Pia mater
- Pericardium
- Myocardium
Explanation: Answer reason: The falx cerebri is a vertical sickle-shaped fold of dura mater that separates the two cerebral hemispheres.
Chemical mediators in the nociceptive pathway are all of the following except?
- enkephalins
- Kinins
- Prostaglandins
- Substance P
Explanation: Answer reason: Kinins, prostaglandins, and substance P are pronociceptive mediators that activate or sensitize nociceptors. Enkephalins are endogenous opioid peptides that inhibit pain transmission, not mediators that promote nociception.
Which neurotransmitter is believed to be decreased in cognitive disorders, such as Alzheimer's disease?
- Acetylcholine
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
- GABA
Explanation: Answer reason: Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the loss of basal forebrain cholinergic neurons, leading to reduced acetylcholine; hence, cholinesterase inhibitors are used to treat symptoms.
This is the inability to identify an object by sensation alone?
- Stereognosis
- Astereognosis
- Ataxia
- Apraxia
Explanation: Answer reason: Astereognosis is the loss of the ability to recognize objects by touch alone; stereognosis is the normal ability. Ataxia is impaired coordination, and apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements.
Which of the following dopaminergic systems is most closely related to behavior?
- The hypothalamic-pituitary system
- The extrapyramidal system
- The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
- The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla.
Explanation: Answer reason: Behavior, reward, and motivation are mediated primarily by the mesolimbic and mesocortical (mesofrontal) dopamine pathways; the hypothalamic-pituitary axis controls prolactin, the extrapyramidal system governs motor function, and the medullary CTZ mediates emesis.
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit after falling on an icy sidewalk and striking the right side of the head. An MRI revealed a right-sided epidural hematoma. Which physical force explains the location of the client's injury?
- Coup
- Contrecoup
- Deceleration
- Acceleration
Explanation: Answer reason: A coup injury occurs at the site of impact; the right-sided blow produced a right-sided epidural hematoma. Contrecoup is opposite the impact; acceleration and deceleration describe motion forces but not same-side localization.
Damage to the seventh cranial nerve results in?
- Facial pain
- Absence of the ability to smell
- Absence of eye movement
- Tinnitus
Explanation: Answer reason: CN VII (facial nerve) innervates the stapedius; an injury can produce auditory symptoms such as hyperacusis and tinnitus. The other options reflect CN I (smell), CN III, IV, and VI (eye movements), and CN V (facial pain).
Which cell is a dendrite part of?
- Nerve cell
- Muscle cell
- Liver cell
Explanation: Answer reason: Dendrites are receptive processes of neurons, present in nerve cells but not in muscle or liver cells.
Which artery is the posterior communicating artery a branch of?
- Posterior superior cerebellar artery
- External carotid artery
- Middle cerebral artery
- Internal carotid artery
Explanation: Answer reason: In the Circle of Willis, the posterior communicating artery arises from the internal carotid artery and connects it to the posterior cerebral artery.
Broca's (motor) aphasia refers to?
- Fluent, nonsensical speech.
- Inability to express oneself
- Inability to understand spoken language.
- Fluent, nonsensical speech.
Explanation: Answer reason: Broca's area lesions cause expressive (motor) aphasia, characterized by nonfluent speech with impaired verbal output; patients cannot effectively express themselves while comprehension is relatively preserved.
Which nerve is involved in carpal tunnel syndrome?
- Radial nerve
- Axillary nerve
- Median nerve
- Ulnar nerve
Explanation: Answer reason: Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve beneath the flexor retinaculum in the wrist.
Claw deformity is caused by injury to which nerve?
- Ulnar nerve
- Median nerve
- Radial nerve
- Axillary nerve
Explanation: Answer reason: Claw hand (ulnar claw) classically results from ulnar nerve injury, with paralysis of the interossei and lumbricals to the ring and little fingers, causing MCP hyperextension and IP flexion.
Which body system does cobra venom primarily attack?
- Respiratory system
- Immune system
- Circulatory system
- Nervous system
Explanation: Answer reason: Cobra venom is predominantly neurotoxic, blocking neuromuscular transmission and causing paralysis; thus, it mainly affects the nervous system.
The innermost layer of the meninges of the spinal cord is?
- Dura mater
- pia mater
- Arachnoid mater
- Subarachnoid space
Explanation: Answer reason: Pia mater is the delicate, innermost meningeal layer that closely adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord; the arachnoid is the middle layer, the dura is the outer layer, and the subarachnoid is a space, not a layer.
Which kind of pain can be caused by a musculoskeletal injury?
- Cutaneous
- Somatic
- Visceral
- Referred
Explanation: Answer reason: Musculoskeletal structures (bones, joints, muscles, and connective tissues) generate deep somatic pain. Visceral pain is from internal organs, cutaneous pain is from the skin, and referred pain is perceived at a distant site.
The somatic nervous system controls?
- Voluntary activities
- Involuntary activities
- Both A and B
- None of the above.
Explanation: Answer reason: The somatic nervous system innervates skeletal muscles and is responsible for conscious, voluntary motor control; involuntary functions are controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
Which of the following disorders is characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep during the day?
- Dyslexia
- Epilepsy
- Hydrocephalus
- narcolepsy
- Shingles
Explanation: Answer reason: Narcolepsy is a neurological sleep disorder marked by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden sleep attacks. The other options do not cause uncontrollable daytime sleep episodes.
What is the total number of cranial nerves in the human body?
- 12 pairs
- 24 pairs
- 31 pairs
- 62 pairs
Explanation: Answer reason: Humans have 12 pairs of cranial nerves (I–XII) emerging from the brain. 31 pairs refer to spinal nerves.
Which finding requires the nurse to notify the health care provider before inserting a nasogastric tube in a client with a severe facial injury from a motor vehicle accident?
- Positive halo test for nasal drainage added to a gauze sponge.
- A laceration located just above the lip is oozing a small amount of bright red blood.
- Client reports a throbbing headache rated 7/10 on a numeric pain scale.
- A significant amount of bruising on the client's forehead.
Explanation: Answer reason: A positive halo sign indicates cerebrospinal fluid leakage, commonly associated with a basilar skull fracture. Inserting an NG tube through the nasal passage could breach the cranial cavity, leading to severe brain injury; thus, the provider must be notified immediately.
Which cranial nerve connects directly to the cerebrum?
- Optic
- Olfactory I
- Trigeminal
- Oculomotor
Explanation: Answer reason: Unlike other cranial nerves, the olfactory nerve (CN I) projects directly to the olfactory cortex of the cerebrum without first synapsing in the thalamus.
The cranial nerve that innervates the superior oblique muscle is?
- Abducens nerve
- Facial
- Optic
- Trochlear
Explanation: Answer reason: The superior oblique extraocular muscle is innervated by cranial nerve IV, the trochlear nerve. The abducens (VI) supplies the lateral rectus; the facial (VII) controls facial expression; the optic (II) is sensory for vision.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for closing the jaw?
- Trigeminal
- Facial
- Abducens
- Trochlear
Explanation: Answer reason: The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) innervates the muscles of mastication—masseter, temporalis, and medial pterygoid—that close the jaw. The facial nerve controls facial expression, the abducens nerve moves the lateral rectus, and the trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique.
Cranial nerve I is assessed in this body part?
- Nose
- Eyes
- Tongue
- Ears
Explanation: Answer reason: Cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve, which is tested by assessing the sense of smell via the nose.
The cutaneous branch of intercostal nerves supplies the?
- Intercostal muscle
- Skin
- Parietal pleura
- Abdominal muscles
Explanation: Answer reason: Cutaneous branches are sensory branches of the intercostal nerves that innervate the skin of the thoracic and abdominal walls; motor supply to the intercostal and abdominal muscles is via muscular branches, not the cutaneous branches.
The total volume of CSF is?
- 50 mL
- 100 mL
- 150 mL
- 275 mL
Explanation: Answer reason: In adults, the total cerebrospinal fluid volume is about 150 mL (with roughly 500 mL produced per day, circulating and being reabsorbed).
The length of the medulla oblongata is about?
- 45 cm
- 90 cm
- 25 cm
- 45 mm
Explanation: Answer reason: The medulla oblongata is only a few centimeters long; among the options, 45 mm is the only size consistent with that length, whereas the centimeter values are far too large.
What is the study of the brain called?
- Nephrology
- Neonatology
- Neurology
- Entomology
Explanation: Answer reason: Neurology is the study of the brain and nervous system. Nephrology is the study of the kidneys. Neonatology is the study of newborns. Entomology is the study of insects.
Translation of physical energy into electrical signals by specialized receptor cells?
- Perception
- Transition
- Translucent
- Transduction
Explanation: Answer reason: Sensory receptor cells convert physical stimulus energy into electrical signals; this process is called transduction.
Who treats diseases of the brain and nerves?
- Endocrinologist
- Neurologist
- Dentist
- Surgeon
Explanation: Answer reason: Neurologists specialize in diagnosing and treating disorders of the brain and nervous system.
Wrist drop is caused by damage to which nerve?
- Radial nerve
- Ulnar nerve
- Axillary nerve
- Median nerve
Explanation: Answer reason: Wrist drop results from paralysis of wrist and finger extensors, which are innervated by the radial nerve; radial nerve palsy causes inability to extend the wrist.
In which part of the brain is the respiratory center situated?
- Hypothalamus
- Thalamus
- Cerebellum
- Pons
Explanation: Answer reason: Respiratory centers reside in the brainstem—medulla oblongata and pontine centers. Among the choices, the pons is the correct location.
The physician has ordered a lumbar puncture for a client with suspected Guillain-Barré syndrome. The client's spinal fluid typically shows?
- Decreased protein concentration with a normal cell count.
- Increased protein concentration with a normal cell count.
- Increased protein concentration with an abnormal cell count.
- Decreased protein concentration with an abnormal cell count.
Explanation: Answer reason: Guillain-Barre syndrome classically shows albuminocytologic dissociation in CSF: elevated protein with a normal white cell count.
How many neurons are lost approximately every minute during an ischaemic stroke?
- 12,000
- 800,000
- One million
- 1.9 million
- 2.4 billion
Explanation: Answer reason: Time is brain: published estimates show acute ischemic stroke destroys about 1.9 million neurons per minute.
Which organ cannot be transplanted?
- Liver
- Heart
- Kidney
- Brain
Explanation: Answer reason: Brain transplantation is not feasible because the central nervous system cannot be reconnected and preserved; other listed organs (liver, heart, kidney) are routinely transplanted.
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