Question 1

Which organ of the body confirms death of a human being?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Death is medically confirmed by irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain (brain death), not by isolated failure of the heart, lungs, or eyes.

Question 2

Battle's sign is indicative of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Battle's sign (mastoid ecchymosis) is a classic indicator of a basilar skull fracture.

Question 3

The heat regulating center is found in the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thermoregulation is controlled by the hypothalamus (preoptic/anterior area for heat loss and posterior area for heat conservation), not the medulla, thalamus, or pons.

Question 4

Which organ cannot be transplanted?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The brain cannot be transplanted because neural connections to the spinal cord and body cannot be re-established; heart and liver are routinely transplantable organs.

Question 5

Kernig’s sign is seen in which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Kernig’s sign indicates meningeal irritation, classically present in meningitis; it is not a feature of epilepsy, encephalopathy, or stroke.

Question 6

What is the most common complication in Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: GBS causes ascending paralysis that can involve the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, leading to hypoventilation and respiratory failure—the most frequent and life‑threatening complication.

Question 7

Which neurotransmitter is reduced in depression?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Depression is associated with decreased monoamines, especially serotonin; antidepressants often work by increasing synaptic serotonin (e.g., SSRIs). The other options are not typically decreased in depression.

Question 8

Which nerve is responsible for facial expressions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression. Trigeminal is primarily facial sensation and mastication; olfactory is smell; optic is vision.

Question 9

Which condition is most associated with the clinical feature shown?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bell's palsy is a peripheral facial nerve (CN VII) palsy causing unilateral facial weakness; scoliosis and lordosis are spinal curvature disorders and are unrelated.

Question 10

What is the most common type of stroke?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ischemic strokes account for the vast majority of strokes (about 80–85%), whereas hemorrhagic types and CVST are far less common.

Question 11

What is ataxia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ataxia is a neurological sign defined by impaired coordination of voluntary muscle movements, commonly due to cerebellar dysfunction.

Question 12

What is the disorder characterized by sudden and uncontrollable attacks of deep sleep, sometimes accompanied by paralysis and hallucinations?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Narcolepsy presents with sudden irresistible sleep attacks and may include cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic hallucinations. The other options describe different sleep issues.

Question 13

What is the most common cause of primary hydrocephalus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primary (often congenital) hydrocephalus is most commonly due to obstruction of CSF pathways, such as aqueductal stenosis. Overproduction is rare and impaired absorption causes communicating hydrocephalus, not the most common primary cause.

Question 14

Which of the following is a common symptom of Parkinson's disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parkinson's disease often causes bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor, and postural instability, producing a characteristic stooped posture. The other choices are not typical features.

Question 15

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by the compression of which nerve?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of the median nerve as it passes beneath the flexor retinaculum in the carpal tunnel; the radial and ulnar nerves do not traverse this tunnel, and the femoral nerve is in the thigh.

Question 16

What is the primary treatment for congenital hydrocephalus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A ventriculoperitoneal (V-P) shunt diverts excess CSF and is the definitive primary treatment for congenital hydrocephalus; drugs like acetazolamide or furosemide/glycerin are only temporary adjuncts.

Question 17

Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) produced?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CSF is produced by specialized ependymal cells of the choroid plexus within the brain ventricles.

Question 18

What is the function of the myelin sheath in neurons?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Myelin insulates axons and enables saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier, which greatly increases the speed of nerve impulse transmission.

Question 19

What is a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: TIA is a transient reduction or blockage of cerebral blood flow, causing temporary neurologic deficits without infarction.

Question 20

Which cranial nerve controls facial expressions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The facial nerve (CN VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression. Trigeminal is mainly facial sensation and mastication; vagus controls parasympathetic/phonation; glossopharyngeal aids swallowing and taste.

Question 21

Spinal anesthesia is injected into which space?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Spinal (intrathecal) anesthesia is injected into the cerebrospinal fluid within the subarachnoid space; epidural anesthesia is placed in the epidural space.

Question 22

A diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often delayed because of the varied symptoms experienced by those affected with the disease. Which symptom is most common in those with multiple sclerosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Visual disturbances, especially diplopia (double vision) and optic neuritis, are among the most common early manifestations of multiple sclerosis due to demyelination of optic pathways. Resting and pill-rolling tremors are characteristic of Parkinson disease, and flaccid paralysis suggests lower motor neuron involvement such as Guillain–Barré.

Question 23

A client has a tentative diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The nurse recognizes that myasthenia gravis involves?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder of the neuromuscular junction that reduces acetylcholine receptor function, impairing nerve-to-muscle impulse transmission. The other options describe MS (A), peripheral neuropathy/GBS with sensory loss (C), and Parkinsonism (D).

Question 24

A client is admitted to the emergency room after falling down a flight of stairs. Initial assessment reveals a large bump on the front of the head and a 2-inch laceration above the right eye. Which finding is consistent with injury to the frontal lobe?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Frontal lobe functions include motor control, speech (Broca), executive functions, and part of the gustatory cortex (frontal operculum). Taste identification loss is consistent with frontal lobe injury. Other options localize to occipital (vision), brainstem (respiratory drive), and parietal (touch).

Question 25

What action do Golgi tendon organs (GTO) help muscles to perform?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Golgi tendon organs sense tension in tendons and via Ib afferents produce autogenic inhibition of alpha motor neurons, leading to muscle relaxation.

Question 26

In a normal child, approximately how many milliliters per hour of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CSF is produced at about 0.3–0.4 mL/min, which equals roughly 18–24 mL/hr (~500 mL/day). The closest option is 20 ml/hr.

Question 27

Meninges are the covering of which organ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The meninges are the three protective membranes—dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater—that envelop the brain and spinal cord.

Question 28

Acute brain syndrome is a disorder of which mental function?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute brain syndrome (delirium) is characterized by an acute, fluctuating disturbance in attention and level of consciousness; thus consciousness is the primary mental function affected.

Question 29

What is the normal pressure range of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Normal CSF opening pressure in adults is approximately 60–150 mm H2O; 60–140 mm H2O best matches this range among the options.

Question 30

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: From the provided choices, 24 is the only plausible spine-related count; note that the true anatomical number of spinal nerve pairs is 31, which is not listed.

Question 31

What is the number of human spinal nerves?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Humans have 31 pairs of spinal nerves (8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal), totaling 62.

Question 32

Parkinson's disease is due to the loss of which neurotransmitter?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parkinson's disease results from degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, causing dopamine deficiency in the striatum.

Question 33

Where is the thermoregulatory center of the body located?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thermoregulation is controlled by the hypothalamus, which maintains the body’s temperature set point and coordinates heat production and loss. The pituitary is endocrine, and the pons/medulla primarily regulate respiration and autonomic reflexes.

Question 34

Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling balance and coordination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum coordinates balance, posture, and fine motor control. The cerebrum handles higher cognition, the brainstem regulates vital autonomic functions, and the hypothalamus controls endocrine and autonomic homeostasis.

Question 35

What is dementia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dementia is a syndrome characterized chiefly by progressive memory impairment with other cognitive decline; the other options are separate conditions or unrelated symptoms.

Question 36

What is the primary function of the medulla oblongata?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The medulla oblongata contains autonomic centers that regulate vital functions such as cardiovascular and respiratory activity, including heart rate and breathing.

Question 37

Inflammation of the meninges is known as what?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Meningitis is inflammation of the meninges; encephalitis is inflammation of the brain, myelitis is inflammation of the spinal cord, and hydrocephalus is excess cerebrospinal fluid.

Question 38

Which clinical test is used to assess balance?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Romberg test evaluates balance by assessing proprioception and vestibular function; instability with eyes closed indicates impaired balance.

Question 39

A 9-year-old is admitted with suspected rheumatic fever. Which finding is suggestive of Sydenham's chorea?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sydenham's chorea is a neurologic manifestation of rheumatic fever characterized by involuntary, purposeless choreiform movements and facial grimacing. The other options describe subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum, and migratory arthritis.

Question 40

Which part of the body does not feel pain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Brain parenchyma lacks nociceptors, so it cannot feel pain, unlike the skin and hand which contain pain receptors.

Question 41

Which cranial nerve disorder causes Bell's palsy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bell's palsy is an acute unilateral lower motor neuron palsy of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII).

Question 42

Which part of the human brain is responsible for higher cognitive functions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Higher cognitive functions such as reasoning, planning, and problem solving are mediated by the cerebral cortex of the forebrain.

Question 43

What covers the spinal cord?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The spinal cord is enveloped by the meninges (dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater), the protective membranes of the central nervous system.

Question 44

Brudzinski’s sign is used to assess which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Brudzinski’s sign—hip and knee flexion with passive neck flexion—indicates meningeal irritation, classically seen in meningitis.

Question 45

Identify the type of headache?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among common primary headaches, migraine is characterized by unilateral throbbing pain and associated features like photophobia and nausea; it best fits the identification prompt.

Question 46

What is the corpus callosum of the cerebrum made of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The corpus callosum is a large commissural tract composed of white matter, i.e., bundles of myelinated axons connecting the cerebral hemispheres.

Question 47

What is the innermost layer of the meninges?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: From superficial to deep, the meninges are dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater; the pia mater is the innermost layer adherent to the brain and spinal cord.

Question 48

What is the term for muscular hypertonicity with increased resistance to stretch?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Spasticity is a velocity-dependent increase in muscle tone causing increased resistance to passive stretch; atonicity is decreased tone, while jerking movements and reflexes are not terms for hypertonicity.

Question 49

Which part of the brain is responsible for coordinating voluntary movements and balance?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, balance, and posture; the cerebrum handles higher cognition, the medulla controls vital autonomic functions, and the hypothalamus regulates homeostasis.

Question 50

Which psychiatric disorder often follows Wernicke's encephalopathy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Wernicke encephalopathy from thiamine deficiency often progresses to Korsakoff psychosis, a chronic amnestic syndrome with confabulation.

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