Screenings and Immunizations Practice Test 1
Screenings and Immunizations NCLEX Practice Test
Screenings and Immunizations, within the NCLEX test plan under Health Promotion and Maintenance → Growth and Development, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Screenings and Immunizations section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Screenings and Immunizations Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Screenings and Immunizations Practice Test 1
When should immunizations begin for a newborn infant?
- The first series of the DTaP vaccine will be given before discharge.
- DTaP and varicella vaccines will be administered around 3 months of age.
- The series of infant immunizations will begin around 6 months of age.
- At birth (Hepatitis B vaccine)
Explanation: Answer reason: The first recommended immunization for a newborn is the Hepatitis B vaccine, which is administered at birth. Other routine infant vaccines—such as DTaP, Hib, IPV, and others—begin at 2 months of age, not before discharge or at 3–6 months.
The EPI includes all vaccines except?
- DPT
- MMR
- Polio
- BCG
Explanation: Answer reason: The standard EPI schedule includes BCG, DPT, OPV (polio), and the measles vaccine—not MMR. Therefore, MMR is the exception.
What is the correct dose of the tetanus toxoid (T.T.) injection?
- 0.5 mL
- 1.5 mL
- 2 mL
- 2.5 mL
Explanation: Answer reason: The standard dose for the tetanus toxoid/Td vaccine is 0.5 mL administered intramuscularly.
An 18-month-old child is on peritoneal dialysis in preparation for a renal transplant in the near future. When the nurse obtains the child's health history, the mother indicates that the child has not had the first measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization. The PRIORITY nursing action is based on the understanding that?
- Live vaccines are withheld from children with chronic renal illness.
- The MMR vaccine should be given now, prior to the transplant.
- An inactivated form of the vaccine can be given at any time.
- The risk of vaccine side effects precludes administering the vaccine.
Explanation: Answer reason: MMR is a live vaccine and should be administered before transplantation. After transplant, immunosuppressive therapy contraindicates live vaccines due to the increased risk of infection.
The minimum interval between two doses of the TT vaccine given to an antenatal mother should be?
- 1 month
- 2 months
- 3 months
- 4 months
Explanation: Answer reason: For tetanus toxoid in pregnancy, TT2 is administered at least four weeks after TT1; the minimum interval is one month.
Shakir's tape is used to measure?
- Upper mid-arm circumference
- Length of the baby
- Weight of the baby
- Head circumference
Explanation: Answer reason: Shakir’s tape is a color-coded MUAC tape used to measure the mid-upper arm circumference to screen for acute malnutrition in children.
Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
- MMR
- Hepatitis B
- DPT
- DT
Explanation: Answer reason: MMR is a live-attenuated vaccine, and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to theoretical fetal risk. Hepatitis B and tetanus/diphtheria/pertussis vaccines are inactivated and can be given during pregnancy (Tdap recommended).
When did Mission INDERDHANUSH start?
- 24 Dec 2013
- Dec. 2014
- 25 Dec. 2014
- 24 Dec. 2015
Explanation: Answer reason: Mission Indradhanush was launched on Good Governance Day, 25 December 2014, to intensify immunization coverage.
Dose of BCG under 1 year?
- 7 mL
- 0.3 mL
- 0.5 mL
- 0.10 mL
Explanation: Answer reason: BCG is given intradermally. The standard pediatric dose is 0.05 mL for infants under 1 year and 0.1 mL for older children. Among the provided options, 0.1 mL is the only standard vaccine dose listed and is therefore the best available choice.
What is the first vaccination administered before a newborn baby leaves the hospital?
- Polio
- Diphtheria
- MMR (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella)
- Hepatitis B
Explanation: Answer reason: The first routine vaccine given at birth is the hepatitis B vaccine. Polio and diphtheria (DTaP) vaccines begin at 2 months, and MMR is given at 12–15 months.
Which of the following vaccines is administered to the newborn within 12 hours of birth?
- Rubella
- Hepatitis B
- Rotavirus
- Measles
Explanation: Answer reason: The first dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine should be given within 12 hours of birth to prevent perinatal transmission from an infected mother to the infant.
Which method is used to carry small quantities of vaccine?
- Vaccine carrier
- ILR
- Refrigerator
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaccine carriers are insulated containers with ice packs used to transport small quantities of vaccines during outreach sessions; ILR and refrigerators are for stationary storage.
While obtaining the history of a two-week-old infant during the well-baby exam, the nurse finds that the neonatal screening for phenylketonuria (PKU) was done when the infant was less than 24 hours old. It is a PRIORITY for the nurse to?
- Schedule the infant for a repeat test in two weeks.
- Obtain a repeat blood test at this point.
- Contact the hospital of birth for the results.
- Document that the test results are pending.
Explanation: Answer reason: PKU screening before 24 hours can be unreliable because the infant has not ingested sufficient protein; therefore a repeat blood specimen should be obtained by the third week of life. At two weeks, the priority is to repeat the test now.
First vaccine for newborn baby______?
- Polio
- DTP
- BCG
- Tetanus
Explanation: Answer reason: At birth the routine immunization schedule includes BCG (for tuberculosis). DTP is started later (around 6 weeks) and tetanus is not given to newborns as a standalone vaccine.
What is the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine used to prevent?
- Lung cancer
- Cervical cancer
- Uterine cancer
Explanation: Answer reason: HPV infection is the primary cause of cervical cancer; vaccination prevents HPV and thereby lowers cervical cancer risk. It does not prevent lung or generic uterus cancers.
Pap smear test is used for _____?
- Fungal examinations of the cervix
- Vaginal Examinations
- Lung cancer detection
- Cervical cancer detection
Explanation: Answer reason: A Pap smear collects cervical cells to detect precancerous and cancerous changes of the cervix; it is not for fungal or general vaginal exams and not related to lung cancer.
All of the following vaccines are given at birth except?
- BCG
- Polio
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis A
Explanation: Answer reason: At birth, BCG, polio (OPV zero dose), and hepatitis B birth dose are given; hepatitis A is not started until later in infancy (around 12 months).
When did the global immunization programme start?
- 1870
- 1974
- 1976
- 1985
Explanation: Answer reason: WHO launched the Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI) in 1974, establishing the global immunization program.
How many diseases are vaccinated according to the National Immunization Schedule?
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
Explanation: Answer reason: The classic National/Expanded Immunization Program targets six vaccine‑preventable diseases: tuberculosis, diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, poliomyelitis, and measles.
What should the interval between two doses of TT in a pregnant woman be?
- 1 week
- 2 weeks
- 1 month
- 1 year
Explanation: Answer reason: For pregnant clients, two doses of tetanus toxoid are administered at least 4 weeks apart, i.e., one month between doses.
RBSK includes 4 'D's, except?
- Defects after birth
- Developmental delay, including disabilities
- Disease in children
- Deficiency conditions
Explanation: Answer reason: RBSK’s 4 Ds are Defects at birth, Diseases in children, Deficiencies, and Developmental delays including disabilities. “Defects after birth” is incorrect; it should be “at birth.”.
RBSK includes all Except?
- Defects at birth
- Disease in children
- Disease in infant
- Deficiency conditions
Explanation: Answer reason: RBSK focuses on the 4 Ds: Defects at birth, Diseases in children, Deficiencies, and Developmental delays including disabilities. 'Disease in infant' is not one of the 4 Ds.
Cholera vaccine provides protection for-?
- Life time
- 3-5 Years
- 36 Months
- 5 Years
Explanation: Answer reason: Current oral cholera vaccines provide protection for about 3 years, with boosters recommended at 3-year intervals; hence 36 months is correct.
Which of the following sentences is not true?
- If immunisation status of a child is unknown then there is no harm in giving appropriate vaccines again
- A minimal interval of eight weeks is required between the administration of two live antigens
- BCG is administered intradermally over the deltoid muscles
- Oral polio vaccine is a live vaccine
Explanation: Answer reason: The minimal interval between two live vaccines (if not given on the same day) is four weeks, not eight. All other statements are true regarding immunization practices.
What should the nurse advise a 62-year-old client with a blood pressure reading of 160/96 mmHg who states their blood pressure is usually much lower?
- Get blood pressure checked within the next 48 to 72 hours
- Check blood pressure again in two months
- See the health care provider immediately
- Visit the health care provider within 1 week for blood pressure check
Explanation: Answer reason: A BP of 160/96 mmHg reflects stage 2 hypertension but without emergency symptoms. The safest advice is prompt recheck/confirmation within 48–72 hours and arrange follow-up, rather than immediate emergency care or delaying for weeks.
When should the varicella (chickenpox) vaccination be given to an infant after birth?
- The infant received this vaccination at the hospital when he was born.
- The varicella vaccination will be given at the infant’s 1-month checkup.
- The infant should receive the immunization immediately if he is exposed to varicella.
- The varicella vaccination is administered after 12 months.
Explanation: Answer reason: The first dose of varicella vaccine is recommended at 12–15 months of age. It is not given at birth or 1 month, and exposure alone is not an indication for immediate routine vaccination in infants under 12 months.
Which of the following statements about anthropometric measurements is NOT true?
- Birth weight should be measured within the first hour
- Skinfold thickness is measured in the supraumbilical region
- Weight is measured to the nearest 100 gram
- Length is measured within the first 3 days
Explanation: Answer reason: Standard pediatric skinfold sites are triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac—not the supraumbilical region—so B is false. The other statements align with routine newborn anthropometric practices.
A patient at 10 weeks’ gestation is not immune to rubella; what is the appropriate timing for MMR vaccination?
- Administer MMR vaccination now
- Administer MMR vaccination at 28 weeks
- Administer MMR vaccination postpartum
- She does not need MMR vaccination
Explanation: Answer reason: MMR is a live-attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy; it should be given after delivery to protect future pregnancies.
A baby born vaginally at 39 weeks to a chronic hepatitis B carrier mother should receive which therapy on the first day of life?
- Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)
- Hepatitis B vaccination
- HBIG and hepatitis B vaccination
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Infants born to HBsAg-positive mothers should receive both hepatitis B vaccine and HBIG within 12 hours of birth to prevent vertical transmission.
If no scar appears after administering BCG, should one re-vaccinate the child?
- Yes
- No
- Double dose should be given
- Half dose should be given
Explanation: Answer reason: Absence of a BCG scar does not prove lack of immunity; WHO and immunization guidelines do not recommend revaccination solely for no scar.
The pentavalent vaccine provides protection against which diseases?
- Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, Hemophilus B
- Polio, TB, Measles, Mumps, Hemophilus B
- Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Hepatitis B, Hemophilus B
- Measles, Mumps, Hepatitis B, Hemophilus B
Explanation: Answer reason: Pentavalent vaccine combines DPT with Hepatitis B and Hib, covering diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, hepatitis B, and Hemophilus influenzae type b.
Which of the following advice is appropriate for a mother who refuses to immunize her baby?
- Vaccines are expensive and here you get it free
- Immunization is okay for your child
- It is up to you to get illness
- Vaccines will prevent diseases
Explanation: Answer reason: Therapeutic education should provide accurate benefits of immunization; vaccines prevent many infectious diseases. Other options are non-therapeutic or irrelevant.
What is the best response by the nurse when a 76-year-old male client asks about his chances of getting osteoporosis like his wife?
- This is only a problem for women.
- Exercise is a good way to prevent this problem.
- You are not at risk because of your small frame.
- You might think about having a bone density test.
Explanation: Answer reason: Men can also develop osteoporosis and a small frame increases risk, not decreases. The best response is to recommend appropriate screening with a bone density test in an older adult male.
Which of the following is a true statement about the DPT vaccine?
- Route of administration of DPT vaccine is IM
- DPT booster is given at 16-24 months
- It is a killed vaccine
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: All listed statements are correct: DPT is administered intramuscularly; a booster is recommended at 16–24 months; and it is an inactivated vaccine (toxoid components with killed pertussis).
Which statement about BCG vaccination is correct?
- Dose of BCG at birth is 0.05 ml
- Dose of BCG if not given at birth is 0.1 ml
- BCG protects against tuberculosis
- All the above
Explanation: Answer reason: BCG dose is 0.05 mL intradermal for newborns and 0.1 mL for older children; it provides protection against tuberculosis, particularly severe forms. Hence all statements are correct.
Which vaccines should a 4-week-old infant who was immunized earlier never receive?
- BCG, OPV, Measles
- BCG, OPV, DPT
- Measles
- BCG, OPV, Vitamin A
Explanation: Answer reason: At 4 weeks, no vaccines are due if birth doses were already given. BCG and OPV birth doses are not repeated at 4 weeks, and measles is not given until 9 months; therefore these should not be administered now.
Which medicine should be given by nursing staff to a burned patient as soon as possible after admission?
- Vitamin K
- Isoproterenol
- Tetanus toxoid
- Gamma globulin
Explanation: Answer reason: Burn wounds disrupt skin integrity and risk tetanus contamination; immediate tetanus prophylaxis with tetanus toxoid is indicated on admission. Other options do not prevent wound-related tetanus.
What is a contraindication for rubella immunization?
- Fever
- Pregnancy
- Diarrhea
Explanation: Answer reason: Rubella (MMR) is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated in pregnancy due to potential fetal risk. Fever or diarrhea alone are not absolute contraindications.
Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy?
- Tetanus
- Hepatitis B
- Influenza (inactivated)
- Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR)
Explanation: Answer reason: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to theoretical risk to the fetus. Tdap (tetanus), hepatitis B, and inactivated influenza vaccines are safe in pregnancy.
What is the first vaccine injected into a newborn baby?
- Oral polio
- DPT
- DPT and Oral polio
- BCG
Explanation: Answer reason: BCG is administered at birth as an intradermal injection. Oral polio is not injected, and DPT is scheduled later in infancy.
A client is admitted to the emergency room with a gunshot wound to the right arm. After dressing the wound and administering the prescribed antibiotic, the nurse should?
- Ask the client if he has any medication allergies
- Check the client's immunization record
- Apply a splint to immobilize the arm
- Administer medication for pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Gunshot wounds are puncture injuries with tetanus risk. After stabilizing the wound and giving antibiotics, the nurse should verify tetanus immunization status to determine need for booster or immune globulin. Allergies should have been verified before antibiotics; splinting is not universally indicated; pain control is appropriate but prevention of tetanus is the priority next step.
The local health clinic recommends vaccination against influenza for all its employees. The influenza vaccine is given annually in?
- November
- December
- January
- February
Explanation: Answer reason: Influenza vaccination is administered annually prior to or early in flu season, typically scheduled in the fall (October–November). Among the choices, November is the appropriate time.
A 4-month-old is brought to the well-baby clinic for immunization. In addition to the DPT and polio vaccines, the baby should receive?
- Hib titer
- Mumps vaccine
- Hepatitis B vaccine
- MMR
Explanation: Answer reason: At 4 months, routine vaccines include DTaP, IPV, and Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib). MMR/mumps are first given at 12–15 months, and Hepatitis B is typically at birth, 1–2 months, and 6–18 months.
A client tells the nurse that she is allergic to eggs, dogs, rabbits, and chicken feathers. Which order should the nurse question?
- TB skin test
- Rubella vaccine
- ELISA test
- Chest x-ray
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaccines can contain residual animal/egg proteins. With allergies to eggs and chicken feathers (and animals used in vaccine culture), the rubella vaccine order should be questioned. TB skin test, ELISA blood test, and chest x-ray are not affected by these allergies.
Which vaccine is most sensitive to heat?
- Pertussis vaccine
- Typhoid vaccine
- Polio vaccine
- BCG vaccine
Explanation: Answer reason: Oral polio vaccine is the most heat-sensitive vaccine and requires strict cold-chain handling; BCG is mainly light-sensitive.
At what age is the MMR vaccine typically given?
- 4 months
- 9 months
- 15 months
- 2 years
Explanation: Answer reason: The first dose of MMR is recommended at 12–15 months; among the choices, 15 months is correct. Earlier ages risk interference from maternal antibodies, and 2 years is later than recommended.
A 2-month-old infant has just received her first Tetramune injection. The nurse should tell the mother that the immunization?
- Will need to be repeated when the child is 4 years of age
- Is given to determine whether the child is susceptible to pertussis
- Is one of a series of injections that protects against diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus and H.influenza b
- Is a one-time injection that protects against measles, mumps, rubella and varicella
Explanation: Answer reason: Tetramune is a combination vaccine (DTaP-Hib). At 2 months it begins a series of doses that protect against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. It is not a diagnostic test (B), not a one-time MMRV dose (D), and focusing only on a 4-year repeat (A) ignores the series starting in infancy.
The home health nurse is visiting a client who plans to deliver her baby at home. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding regarding screening for phenylketonuria (PKU)?
- “I will need to take the baby to the clinic within 24 hours of delivery to have blood drawn.”
- “I will need to schedule a home visit for PKU screening when the baby is 3 days old.”
- “I will remind the midwife to save a specimen of cord blood for the PKU test.”
- “I will have the PKU test done when I take her for her first immunizations.”
Explanation: Answer reason: PKU screening is done after adequate protein feeding at 48–72 hours of life; not from cord blood, not within 24 hours, and certainly not delayed until immunizations.
At what age is the MMR vaccine given?
- 9 months
- 15 months
- 2 years
- 18 months
Explanation: Answer reason: The first MMR dose is recommended at 12–15 months; among the options, 15 months is correct. Nine months is earlier than routine MMR and 2 years is later than recommended.
Which system is used to help the storage and transportation of vaccines at low temperature?
- Cold Box
- Cold chain
- Refrigerator
Explanation: Answer reason: Cold chain is the integrated system of equipment and procedures that maintains vaccines at required low temperatures during storage and transport; a cold box or refrigerator are individual devices, not the system.
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