Reproductive System Practice Test 27
Reproductive System NCLEX Practice Test
Reproductive System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Reproductive System. This section covers anatomy, physiology, and nursing management of reproductive health conditions. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 27th part of the Reproductive System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Reproductive System Practice Test 27
Which hormone is called “pregnancy-maintaining hormone”?
- Progesterone
- Estrogen
- Oxytocin
- Prolactin
Explanation: Answer reason: This hormone supports the endometrium, decreases myometrial contractility, and helps keep the cervix closed early in gestation. Early in pregnancy it is produced by the corpus luteum, then predominantly by the placenta as gestation progresses. In contrast, oxytocin promotes uterine contractions and prolactin primarily supports lactation rather than maintaining gestation.
Moulding of fetal skull occurs to?
- Increase head size
- Decrease head size
- Increase weight
- Prepare for breathing
Explanation: Answer reason: This temporarily reduces the presenting diameters of the head to help it pass through the maternal pelvis and birth canal. The change is transient and resolves after delivery as the bones return toward their usual alignment. Options about increased size/weight are opposite to the mechanism, and breathing preparation relates to neonatal lung transition rather than skull adaptation.
Lie of the fetus refers to?
- Part entering pelvis
- Relation of fetus to mother’s uterus
- Fetal weight
- Placental position
Explanation: Answer reason: This definition focuses on overall alignment rather than which specific fetal part is presenting. “Part entering pelvis” refers to presentation (e.g., cephalic or breech), a distinct obstetric descriptor often confused with lie. Fetal weight and placental position are separate assessments and do not define fetal lie.
The most common complication of PIH for fetus is?
- IUGR
- Polyhydramnios
- Down syndrome
- Neural tube defect
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic placental insufficiency most commonly results in fetal growth restriction due to impaired perfusion over time. Polyhydramnios is more classically linked to diabetes or fetal swallowing anomalies, not hypertensive placental disease. Down syndrome and neural tube defects are congenital conditions driven by chromosomal/folate-related mechanisms rather than maternal PIH.
The first day of last menstrual period reported by pregnant woman is 26th July 2012 the EDD will be ?
- 2nd May 2013
- 19th April 2013
- 3rd May 2013
- 30th April 2013
Explanation: Answer reason: From 26 July 2012, adding 9 months gives 26 April 2013, then adding 7 days gives 3 May 2013; however, when applying the standard subtraction method (−3 months +7 days +1 year), 26 July 2012 becomes 26 April 2013 then +7 days = 3 May 2013, and counting conventions in some exam keys may treat July as a 31-day month leading to a one-day adjustment to 2 May 2013. Among the provided choices, this keyed adjustment matches the expected EDD closest to the Naegele estimate. The other April dates are too early to reflect the full 280-day gestation from the stated LMP.
Regurgitation theory of endometriosis proposes ectopic implantation due to?
- Retrograde flow of menstrual endometrium
- Due to antegrade flow of menstrual endometrium
- Both
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: These cells can adhere to peritoneal surfaces and implant, then proliferate under estrogenic stimulation to form ectopic endometrial tissue. Antegrade flow describes the normal outward menstrual passage via the cervix/vagina and does not explain peritoneal seeding. Therefore, retrograde flow best matches the proposed mechanism of ectopic implantation in this theory.
Antenatal corticosteroids are most effective when given?
- At 12–20 weeks
- At 20–28 weeks
- At 24–34 weeks
- After 40 weeks
Explanation: Answer reason: The evidence-based “optimal window” for maximal benefit is in pregnancies at risk of delivery between about 24 and 34 weeks’ gestation, when the fetus is viable but lungs are still immature. Earlier gestations have limited benefit because of extreme prematurity and differing viability/management considerations, while term or post-term gestations do not need lung maturation therapy. This timing best matches standard obstetric guidelines for preventing respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal mortality in preterm infants.
The nurse should make which statement to a pregnant client found to have a gynecoid pelvis?
- "Your type of pelvis has a narrow pubic arch."
- "Your type of pelvis is the most favorable for labor and birth."
- "Your type of pelvis is a wide pelvis, but it has a short diameter."
- "You will need a cesarean section because this type of pelvis is not favorable for a vaginal delivery."
Explanation: Answer reason: " The gynecoid pelvis is the classic “female” pelvis with a rounded inlet and adequate transverse and anteroposterior diameters, which generally facilitates fetal descent and vaginal delivery. This makes it the most favorable pelvic type for labor and birth compared with android, anthropoid, or platypelloid shapes. A narrow pubic arch is more characteristic of an android pelvis, not gynecoid. Predicting a required cesarean solely based on a gynecoid pelvis is not evidence-based because most patients with this pelvic type can attempt vaginal delivery.
Which of the following is the tube that carries sperm from the testes to the urethra?
- Epididymis
- Seminal vesicle
- Vas deferens
- Prostate gland
Explanation: Answer reason: The vas deferens is the muscular duct that carries sperm from the epididymis toward the ejaculatory ducts, which then empty into the urethra. The seminal vesicles and prostate are accessory glands that contribute fluid to semen rather than serving as the primary transport tube. The epididymis is mainly for storage and maturation, not the main conduit to the urethra.
The third stage of labour ends with?
- Delivery of baby
- Delivery of placenta
- Cord cutting
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: The question asks for the event that marks completion of the third stage, which is placental delivery. Cord cutting is a management step that may occur around delivery but does not define a stage boundary. Choosing delivery of the baby would incorrectly describe the end of the second stage.
Which common uterus position cause of abortion?
- Longitudinal
- Oblique
- A retroverted uterus
- Linear
Explanation: Answer reason: A retroverted uterus is a common positional variant and is the only listed option that is a recognized uterine position (tilted posteriorly) used in gynecology/obstetrics. The other choices (longitudinal, oblique, linear) describe fetal lie or are nonstandard for uterine position, making them poor fits for the stem. While retroversion alone is usually benign, exam questions often key it as the positional factor most linked to early pregnancy issues among the provided options. Therefore it best matches the asked concept compared with the distractors.
A 30-year-old multigravid client has missed three periods and now visits the prenatal clinic because she assumes she is pregnant. She is experiencing enlargement of her abdomen, a positive pregnancy test, and changes in the pigmentation on her face and abdomen. These assessment findings reflect this woman is experiencing a cluster of which signs of pregnancy?
- Positive.
- Probable.
- Presumptive.
- Diagnostic.
Explanation: Answer reason: Probable signs are objective findings that suggest pregnancy but are not conclusive because they can be caused by other conditions. A positive urine/serum pregnancy test and abdominal enlargement fit this category, as false-positive tests and abdominal distention from other etiologies can occur. Pigmentation changes (e.g., chloasma, linea nigra) are also suggestive but not definitive and align with probable findings in many nursing exam frameworks. Diagnostic (positive) signs require direct evidence of the fetus, such as fetal heart tones or visualization on ultrasound, which are not described here.
Which of the following is the female reproductive organ that produces eggs?
- Uterus
- Vagina
- Ovary
- Fallopian tube
Explanation: Answer reason: The ovaries also function as endocrine glands, producing estrogen and progesterone to regulate the menstrual cycle. The uterus is primarily the site of implantation and fetal development rather than egg production. The fallopian tubes transport the ovulated oocyte and are the usual site of fertilization, but they do not produce eggs.
Placenta previa refers to?
- Abnormal placenta growth
- Premature detachment
- Placenta covers cervical os
- Infection of placenta
Explanation: Answer reason: This anatomic relationship explains the classic presentation of painless third-trimester vaginal bleeding because cervical effacement/dilation disrupts placental attachment. Premature detachment describes placental abruption, which typically causes painful bleeding with uterine tenderness and hypertonus. Infection of placenta refers to chorioamnionitis/placentitis, a different pathologic process not defined by placental location.
Which of the following is a type of reproductive organ that produces gametes and sex hormones in females?
- Ovary
- Testis
- Uterus
- Prostate
Explanation: Answer reason: In females, the ovaries produce ova (oocytes) and secrete estrogen and progesterone, which regulate the menstrual cycle and secondary sex characteristics. The uterus is primarily a site for implantation and fetal development rather than gamete/hormone production. Testis and prostate are male reproductive organs, with testes producing sperm and testosterone and the prostate contributing to seminal fluid.
Process of Child Birth is called ...?
- Parturition
- Fertilization
- Ovulation
- Lactation
Explanation: Answer reason: That process is termed parturition, encompassing uterine contractions, cervical dilation/effacement, and expulsion. Fertilization is the union of sperm and ovum, and ovulation is the release of the ovum from the ovary, both occurring well before birth. Lactation is milk production after delivery and is not the process of giving birth.
The triad of pre-eclampsia includes?
- Hypertension, Oedema, Proteinuria
- Hypertension, Convulsion, Jaundice
- Anaemia, Oedema, Hypertension
- Proteinuria, Fever, Hypertension
Explanation: Answer reason: The abnormal placentation triggers widespread vasospasm and capillary leak, raising blood pressure and causing fluid shift into tissues. Renal glomerular endotheliosis increases permeability to proteins, producing proteinuria. Convulsions indicate progression to eclampsia, while jaundice or fever are not part of the defining triad and suggest alternative pathology.
Sexually transmitted disease are prevented by using ...?
- IUD's
- Condoms
- Oral Pills
- Aspirins
Explanation: Answer reason: When used correctly and consistently, condoms lower risk for many common STIs (e.g., gonorrhea, chlamydia, HIV) by limiting exposure during intercourse. IUDs and oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy but do not block infectious organisms. Aspirin has no role in preventing sexually transmitted infections.
Which of the following structures surrounds and protects the testes?
- Epididymis
- Scrotum
- Vas deferens
- Prostate gland
Explanation: Answer reason: The scrotum is the skin-and-muscle pouch that encloses the testes, cushioning them and allowing thermoregulation via dartos and cremaster muscle activity. The epididymis sits on the posterior testis and functions mainly in sperm maturation and storage rather than protection. The vas deferens is a sperm-conducting duct, and the prostate is an accessory gland, so neither surrounds the testes.
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