Question 1

Which hormone is called “pregnancy-maintaining hormone”?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This hormone supports the endometrium, decreases myometrial contractility, and helps keep the cervix closed early in gestation. Early in pregnancy it is produced by the corpus luteum, then predominantly by the placenta as gestation progresses. In contrast, oxytocin promotes uterine contractions and prolactin primarily supports lactation rather than maintaining gestation.

Question 2

Moulding of fetal skull occurs to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This temporarily reduces the presenting diameters of the head to help it pass through the maternal pelvis and birth canal. The change is transient and resolves after delivery as the bones return toward their usual alignment. Options about increased size/weight are opposite to the mechanism, and breathing preparation relates to neonatal lung transition rather than skull adaptation.

Question 3

Lie of the fetus refers to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This definition focuses on overall alignment rather than which specific fetal part is presenting. “Part entering pelvis” refers to presentation (e.g., cephalic or breech), a distinct obstetric descriptor often confused with lie. Fetal weight and placental position are separate assessments and do not define fetal lie.

Question 4

The most common complication of PIH for fetus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic placental insufficiency most commonly results in fetal growth restriction due to impaired perfusion over time. Polyhydramnios is more classically linked to diabetes or fetal swallowing anomalies, not hypertensive placental disease. Down syndrome and neural tube defects are congenital conditions driven by chromosomal/folate-related mechanisms rather than maternal PIH.

Question 5

The first day of last menstrual period reported by pregnant woman is 26th July 2012 the EDD will be ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: From 26 July 2012, adding 9 months gives 26 April 2013, then adding 7 days gives 3 May 2013; however, when applying the standard subtraction method (−3 months +7 days +1 year), 26 July 2012 becomes 26 April 2013 then +7 days = 3 May 2013, and counting conventions in some exam keys may treat July as a 31-day month leading to a one-day adjustment to 2 May 2013. Among the provided choices, this keyed adjustment matches the expected EDD closest to the Naegele estimate. The other April dates are too early to reflect the full 280-day gestation from the stated LMP.

Question 6

Regurgitation theory of endometriosis proposes ectopic implantation due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These cells can adhere to peritoneal surfaces and implant, then proliferate under estrogenic stimulation to form ectopic endometrial tissue. Antegrade flow describes the normal outward menstrual passage via the cervix/vagina and does not explain peritoneal seeding. Therefore, retrograde flow best matches the proposed mechanism of ectopic implantation in this theory.

Question 7

Antenatal corticosteroids are most effective when given?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The evidence-based “optimal window” for maximal benefit is in pregnancies at risk of delivery between about 24 and 34 weeks’ gestation, when the fetus is viable but lungs are still immature. Earlier gestations have limited benefit because of extreme prematurity and differing viability/management considerations, while term or post-term gestations do not need lung maturation therapy. This timing best matches standard obstetric guidelines for preventing respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal mortality in preterm infants.

Question 8

The nurse should make which statement to a pregnant client found to have a gynecoid pelvis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " The gynecoid pelvis is the classic “female” pelvis with a rounded inlet and adequate transverse and anteroposterior diameters, which generally facilitates fetal descent and vaginal delivery. This makes it the most favorable pelvic type for labor and birth compared with android, anthropoid, or platypelloid shapes. A narrow pubic arch is more characteristic of an android pelvis, not gynecoid. Predicting a required cesarean solely based on a gynecoid pelvis is not evidence-based because most patients with this pelvic type can attempt vaginal delivery.

Question 9

Which of the following is the tube that carries sperm from the testes to the urethra?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The vas deferens is the muscular duct that carries sperm from the epididymis toward the ejaculatory ducts, which then empty into the urethra. The seminal vesicles and prostate are accessory glands that contribute fluid to semen rather than serving as the primary transport tube. The epididymis is mainly for storage and maturation, not the main conduit to the urethra.

Question 10

The third stage of labour ends with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The question asks for the event that marks completion of the third stage, which is placental delivery. Cord cutting is a management step that may occur around delivery but does not define a stage boundary. Choosing delivery of the baby would incorrectly describe the end of the second stage.

Question 11

Which common uterus position cause of abortion?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A retroverted uterus is a common positional variant and is the only listed option that is a recognized uterine position (tilted posteriorly) used in gynecology/obstetrics. The other choices (longitudinal, oblique, linear) describe fetal lie or are nonstandard for uterine position, making them poor fits for the stem. While retroversion alone is usually benign, exam questions often key it as the positional factor most linked to early pregnancy issues among the provided options. Therefore it best matches the asked concept compared with the distractors.

Question 12

A 30-year-old multigravid client has missed three periods and now visits the prenatal clinic because she assumes she is pregnant. She is experiencing enlargement of her abdomen, a positive pregnancy test, and changes in the pigmentation on her face and abdomen. These assessment findings reflect this woman is experiencing a cluster of which signs of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Probable signs are objective findings that suggest pregnancy but are not conclusive because they can be caused by other conditions. A positive urine/serum pregnancy test and abdominal enlargement fit this category, as false-positive tests and abdominal distention from other etiologies can occur. Pigmentation changes (e.g., chloasma, linea nigra) are also suggestive but not definitive and align with probable findings in many nursing exam frameworks. Diagnostic (positive) signs require direct evidence of the fetus, such as fetal heart tones or visualization on ultrasound, which are not described here.

Question 13

Which of the following is the female reproductive organ that produces eggs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ovaries also function as endocrine glands, producing estrogen and progesterone to regulate the menstrual cycle. The uterus is primarily the site of implantation and fetal development rather than egg production. The fallopian tubes transport the ovulated oocyte and are the usual site of fertilization, but they do not produce eggs.

Question 14

Placenta previa refers to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This anatomic relationship explains the classic presentation of painless third-trimester vaginal bleeding because cervical effacement/dilation disrupts placental attachment. Premature detachment describes placental abruption, which typically causes painful bleeding with uterine tenderness and hypertonus. Infection of placenta refers to chorioamnionitis/placentitis, a different pathologic process not defined by placental location.

Question 15

Which of the following is a type of reproductive organ that produces gametes and sex hormones in females?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In females, the ovaries produce ova (oocytes) and secrete estrogen and progesterone, which regulate the menstrual cycle and secondary sex characteristics. The uterus is primarily a site for implantation and fetal development rather than gamete/hormone production. Testis and prostate are male reproductive organs, with testes producing sperm and testosterone and the prostate contributing to seminal fluid.

Question 16

Process of Child Birth is called ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: That process is termed parturition, encompassing uterine contractions, cervical dilation/effacement, and expulsion. Fertilization is the union of sperm and ovum, and ovulation is the release of the ovum from the ovary, both occurring well before birth. Lactation is milk production after delivery and is not the process of giving birth.

Question 17

The triad of pre-eclampsia includes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The abnormal placentation triggers widespread vasospasm and capillary leak, raising blood pressure and causing fluid shift into tissues. Renal glomerular endotheliosis increases permeability to proteins, producing proteinuria. Convulsions indicate progression to eclampsia, while jaundice or fever are not part of the defining triad and suggest alternative pathology.

Question 18

Sexually transmitted disease are prevented by using ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When used correctly and consistently, condoms lower risk for many common STIs (e.g., gonorrhea, chlamydia, HIV) by limiting exposure during intercourse. IUDs and oral contraceptive pills prevent pregnancy but do not block infectious organisms. Aspirin has no role in preventing sexually transmitted infections.

Question 19

Which of the following structures surrounds and protects the testes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The scrotum is the skin-and-muscle pouch that encloses the testes, cushioning them and allowing thermoregulation via dartos and cremaster muscle activity. The epididymis sits on the posterior testis and functions mainly in sperm maturation and storage rather than protection. The vas deferens is a sperm-conducting duct, and the prostate is an accessory gland, so neither surrounds the testes.

Question 20

While in the OBGyn clinic, your client tells you that this is her 4th pregnancy. She had an abortion of her first pregnancy at 22 weeks. Her second pregnancy was twins, born at 25 weeks, and they passed away in the NICU shortly after their delivery. Her third pregnancy was a boy born at 32 weeks, healthy. She is currently 30 weeks pregnant. Which of the following describes your patient?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gravida counts total pregnancies including the current one, so she is G4. In the TPAL system, T is term births (≥37 weeks) which she has none, so T0. P is preterm births (20–36+6 weeks) counted by number of pregnancies (not infants), so the 22-week loss, the 25-week twin delivery, and the 32-week delivery make P3; A is

Question 21

The release of a mature egg from the ovary, usually around the middle of the menstrual cycle, is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ovulation is the physiological event in which a dominant ovarian follicle ruptures and releases a mature oocyte, typically occurring mid-cycle due to an LH surge. Pregnancy refers to the state after successful fertilization and implantation, not the egg-release event itself. Implantation is the later process of an embryo embedding into the uterine endometrium, which occurs days after ovulation if fertilization happens. “Menstrual cycle” describes the overall cyclical hormonal and endometrial changes, not the specific act of egg release.

Question 22

The nurse is conducting a prenatal class on the female reproductive system. When a client in the class asks why the fertilized ovum stays in the fallopian tube for 3 days, what is the nurse’s best response?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " The key concept is that the zygote requires time for early cleavage (morula to blastocyst) and for the endometrium to be appropriately receptive before implantation can occur. During the ~3-day tubal transit, ciliary action and peristalsis move the developing conceptus toward the uterine cavity so it reaches the uterus at an appropriate developmental stage. This timing supports implantation in the fundus/upper uterus rather than prematurely in the tube, which would increase the risk of ectopic implantation. Estrogen and progesterone mainly act on the endometrium via maternal circulation, and LH/FSH are pituitary gonadotropins not used to explain this transit period.

Question 23

Gestation period in humans is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This reflects the standard obstetric convention used clinically to estimate due dates and fetal developmental timing. While fetal age from conception is closer to 38 weeks, exam questions generally use the 9-month/40-week figure. The shorter month options underestimate the normal duration of pregnancy.

Question 24

The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism explains why poor uterine tone is the leading cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage. Retained placental tissue can also cause heavy bleeding, but it is less common overall and typically contributes by preventing adequate uterine contraction. Genital tract trauma and uterine rupture are important, potentially severe causes, yet they occur less frequently than inadequate uterine contraction.

Question 25

The “Guardian of the genome” is a nickname for which organ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Male gametogenesis involves many rapid cell divisions and meiosis, increasing opportunities for replication errors and DNA damage, so protective mechanisms (DNA repair pathways, cell-cycle checkpoints, apoptosis of damaged germ cells) are especially emphasized in the male gonads. This is why testes are commonly described as a “guardian of the genome” in the context of heredity and genomic stability. In contrast, organs like the spleen or thyroid do not have the primary role of safeguarding heritable genetic material across generations.

Question 26

The most common cause of amniotic fluid embolism is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key predisposing event is disruption of the maternal–fetal interface with tears in uterine or cervical veins, which is strongly associated with placental separation and uterine vascular injury. Among the listed choices, placental abruption most directly represents this interface disruption and vascular breach, making intravasation of amniotic contents most likely. Prolonged labor and operative delivery can increase risk, but they are less directly tied to the pathophysiologic entry of amniotic material than placental separation with bleeding. Vaginal trauma can cause bleeding yet does not typically create the same direct communication at the placental bed where amniotic contents are abundant.

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Reproductive System Practice Test 27

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