Reproductive System Practice Test 3
Reproductive System NCLEX Practice Test
Reproductive System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Reproductive System. This section covers anatomy, physiology, and nursing management of reproductive health conditions. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 3rd part of the Reproductive System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Reproductive System Practice Test 3
LH surge occurs?
- 24 hours after ovulation
- During ovulation
- 24 hours before ovulation
- 4 days after ovulation
Explanation: Answer reason: The LH surge precedes and triggers ovulation, typically 24–36 hours before it occurs. Among the choices, 24 hours before ovulation is the best answer.
A high concentration of estrogen in blood?
- Causes ovulation
- Stimulates lactation
- Inhibits secretion of FSH
- Is one cause of osteoporosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Sustained high estradiol levels provide positive feedback on the hypothalamic–pituitary axis, triggering the LH surge that leads to ovulation. Estrogen does not stimulate lactation and deficiency—not excess—contributes to osteoporosis.
Polyhydramnios is frequently observed in all of the following condition except?
- Esophageal atresia
- Duodenal atresia
- Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
- Hirschprungs disease
Explanation: Answer reason: Polyhydramnios results from impaired fetal swallowing or proximal GI obstruction. Esophageal and duodenal atresia, and sometimes diaphragmatic hernia, reduce swallowing and cause excess fluid. Hirschsprung disease is a distal colonic problem postnatally and does not typically cause polyhydramnios.
The ovarian cycle is initiated by?
- Progesterone
- Estrogen
- Endorphins
- Follicle stimulating hormone
Explanation: Answer reason: FSH from the anterior pituitary initiates the follicular phase by stimulating growth of ovarian follicles; estrogen and progesterone are produced subsequently and endorphins are unrelated.
Fern test is used to assess?
- Ovulation
- Pregnancy
- Cancer cervix
- Menstruation
Explanation: Answer reason: Ferning of dried cervical mucus occurs under high estrogen levels at ovulation, so the fern test is used to assess ovulation.
Which of following is normal position of uterus?
- Retroverted and reflected
- Retroverted and retroflexed
- Retroverted and anteflexed
- Anteverted and anteflexed
Explanation: Answer reason: The uterus is normally anteverted relative to the vagina and anteflexed over the bladder (AVAF).
Gestational diabetes increases risk for the following, EXCEPT?
- Small for date fetus.
- Macrosomia
- Prematurity and still birth.
- Congenital anomalies.
Explanation: Answer reason: Gestational diabetes typically develops after organogenesis, so it does not increase congenital malformations. It is associated with fetal macrosomia and higher risks of preterm delivery and stillbirth when poorly controlled.
What is the leading cause of neonatal mortality in the United States?
- Congenital anomalies
- Birth trauma
- Metabolic disorders
- Maternal complications
Explanation: Answer reason: In the United States, congenital anomalies are the most common cause of neonatal mortality, according to CDC and National Vital Statistics reports. These include structural and functional abnormalities that occur during fetal development and contribute to early neonatal deaths more frequently than prematurity-related complications or birth trauma.
The Normal Duration Of Pregnancy is _______?
- 300 Days
- 280 Days
- 250 Days
- 365 Days
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal human gestation is about 280 days (40 weeks) from the last menstrual period.
Primary postpartum hemorrhage occurs within hours of delivery?
- 6 hours
- 8 hours
- 12 hours
- 24 hours
Explanation: Answer reason: Primary postpartum hemorrhage is defined as bleeding within the first 24 hours after delivery; bleeding after 24 hours up to 6 weeks is secondary PPH.
Cryptorchidism means-?
- Enlargement of testes
- Inflammation of testes
- Small sized testes
- Undescended testes
Explanation: Answer reason: Cryptorchidism is failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum; crypto = hidden, orchis = testis.
Transverse diameter of inlet of pelvis is about?
- 11 cm
- 12 cm
- 13 cm
- 14 cm
Explanation: Answer reason: The transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet—the widest distance between the linea terminalis in the female pelvis—averages about 13 cm.
The inner most layer of uterus is _____?
- Endocardium
- Endometrium
- Perimetrium
- Myometrium
Explanation: Answer reason: The endometrium is the mucosal lining and innermost layer of the uterus; the myometrium is the muscular middle layer, the perimetrium is the outer serosal layer, and endocardium pertains to the heart.
__________ is a procedure which is used to diagnose the presence of ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
- Culdocentesis
- Amniocentesis
- Cystocentesis
- Thoracentesis
Explanation: Answer reason: Culdocentesis involves needle aspiration through the posterior fornix into the pouch of Douglas to detect intraperitoneal blood, helping diagnose a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
A disorder in which the penis maintains a prolonged, rigid erection in the absence of appropriate stimulation?
- Aniridia
- Priapism
- Coloboma
- Hypospadias
Explanation: Answer reason: Priapism is defined as a prolonged, often painful erection not associated with sexual stimulation.
The ratio between placenta weight and birth weight of the newborn is ...?
- 1 : 4
- 1 : 5
- 1 : 6
- 1 : 8
Explanation: Answer reason: At term, placental weight is about 500–600 g and newborn weight is ~3.0–3.5 kg, giving an approximate placenta-to-newborn ratio of 1:6.
Failure to conceive for one year despite unprotected regular intercourse?
- Infertility
- Fecundity
- Sterility
- Subfertility
Explanation: Answer reason: By definition, infertility is failure to achieve pregnancy after 12 months of regular unprotected intercourse. Sterility is absolute inability to conceive; fecundity is the probability of achieving a live birth; subfertility implies reduced fertility but not the standard 12‑month diagnostic term.
Male factor infertility?
- Defective spermatogenesis
- Obstruction of efferent duct system
- Errors in seminal fluid
- All
Explanation: Answer reason: Male infertility can arise from defective sperm production, obstruction of the outflow ducts, or abnormalities in seminal fluid; thus all listed factors are valid causes.
The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is?
- Fallopian tube
- Abdominal cavity
- Ovarian
- Cervical
Explanation: Answer reason: Most ectopic pregnancies implant in the fallopian tube, especially the ampullary portion.
The most common site of ectopic pregnancy in Fallopian tube is?
- Ampulla
- Isthmus
- Fimbrial
- Interstitial
Explanation: Answer reason: Most tubal ectopic pregnancies implant in the ampullary portion of the fallopian tube (about two-thirds of cases).
The widest part of uterine tube is called?
- Isthmus
- Infundibulum
- Fimbriae
- Ampulla
- All of above
Explanation: Answer reason: The fallopian tube is divided into infundibulum (with fimbriae), ampulla, isthmus, and intramural parts; the ampulla is the widest and longest segment.
The out pouching of the testis is?
- Ductus deferens
- Omenta
- Rete testis
- Scrotum
- Tunica albuginea
Explanation: Answer reason: The scrotum is the cutaneous outpouching of the anterior abdominal wall that contains the testes.
Myometrium is the layer of .......?
- Heart
- Uterus
- Kidney
Explanation: Answer reason: The myometrium is the thick smooth muscle middle layer of the uterine wall.
A pregnancy in which the fertilised egg implants outside the uterus is ........?
- Ectopic Pregnancy
- Intrauterine Pregnancy
Explanation: Answer reason: Implantation outside the uterine cavity defines an ectopic pregnancy, most commonly in a fallopian tube. Intrauterine pregnancy is normal implantation in the uterus.
When fetus is in attitude of flexion, presentation is?
- Cephalic
- Vertex
- Brow
- Face
Explanation: Answer reason: With complete flexion of the fetal head, the occiput leads, resulting in a vertex presentation. Brow and face occur with extension; cephalic is only a general category.
Widest and Longest part of uterine tube?
- Intramural
- Fimbriae
- Ampulla
- Isthmus
Explanation: Answer reason: The ampulla is the longest and widest segment of the fallopian tube; the intramural and isthmus are narrow, and fimbriae are the fringe at the infundibulum.
Abnormal proliferation of uterine endometrial tissue outside uterus is known as?
- Endometriosis
- Menorrhagia
- Cystic fibrosis
- Metrorrhagia
Explanation: Answer reason: Endometriosis is the presence and growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus. Menorrhagia is heavy menstrual bleeding, metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods, and cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive pulmonary/pancreatic disorder.
Problems with the ______ separating from the uterus too soon is a cause of birth asphyxia?
- Umbilical cord
- Placenta
- Endometrial lining
- Amniotic fluid
Explanation: Answer reason: Premature separation of the placenta (placental abruption) cuts off maternal-fetal gas exchange, leading to fetal hypoxia and potential birth asphyxia.
The diagnostic and therapeutic procedure involves dilating the uterine cervix so that the lining tissue (endometrium) of the uterus can be removed by scraping or suction. It is a safe procedure that is done for a variety of reasons?
- Conization
- Dilatation and curettage (D&C)
- Papanicolau smear test (Pap smear)
- Ultrasonography
Explanation: Answer reason: D&C specifically involves dilating the cervix and scraping or suctioning the endometrium for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.
An inflammation of the testes that most often occurs as a complication of a blood borne infection originating in the epididymis?
- Balanitis
- Nephritis
- Orchitis
- Prostatitis
Explanation: Answer reason: Inflammation of the testes is termed orchitis; it commonly results from spread of infection from the epididymis (epididymo-orchitis). The other options involve inflammation of the glans penis, kidney, or prostate.
Differential diagnosis?
- Appendicitis
- Ectopic pregnancy
- Endometritis
- Ovarian cyst
- Ovarian torsion
Explanation: Answer reason: No single best answer can be determined because there is no question.
Which one sentence is true for the mammary gland?
- It synthesizes , secretes and ejects milk for nourishment of the newborn
- Passage way for child birth
- Protect the microorganism to inter into vagina
- Synthesize the ova
Explanation: Answer reason: Mammary glands function in lactation—producing, secreting, and ejecting milk to nourish the newborn. The other options describe functions of the birth canal, general protection, or ovarian function, not the mammary gland.
What is the most common problem associated with the use of an intrauterine device (IUD)?
- Perforation of the uterus
- Spontaneous device expulsion
- Discomfort associated with coitus
- Development of vaginal infections
Explanation: Answer reason: Expulsion is the most frequent complication of IUD use, especially in the first year; uterine perforation and infections are less common, and dyspareunia is not typical.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding breech presentation in a pregnant woman?
- Breech presentation is the most common fetal position during the third trimester.
- Vaginal delivery is always the preferred method for breech presentation.
- Breech presentation is associated with higher risks during delivery compared to cephalic presentation.
- The majority of breech presentations will resolve to a head-down position by the time of labor.
Explanation: Answer reason: Breech births carry increased risks such as cord prolapse, head entrapment, asphyxia, and birth trauma compared with cephalic presentation. A is false (cephalic is most common), B is false (cesarean often preferred depending on case), and D is not reliably true when breech persists into late pregnancy.
Why are the testes located in the scrotum outside the body cavity?
- Are closer to the penis than they would be in the body cavity
- Are originally developed in the scrotum
- Must be at a lower temperature than the body cavity for sperm production
- Are pushed out because there is no room in the body cavity
Explanation: Answer reason: Spermatogenesis requires temperatures a few degrees below core body temperature; the scrotum provides this cooler environment via testicular descent and thermoregulation.
A woman at 9 weeks gestation reports vaginal spotting; on examination, her cervix is closed and fetal heartbeat is present; what type of abortion is this?
- Complete abortion
- Inevitable abortion
- Threatened abortion
- Missed abortion
Explanation: Answer reason: Vaginal bleeding with a closed cervix and a live fetus (cardiac activity present) indicates a threatened abortion. Inevitable has an open cervix; complete involves expulsion of all products; missed has fetal demise with no heartbeat.
What is the definition of cord prolapse?
- When size of cord is short
- Cord having multiple infections
- Cord is lying inside the vagina
- An abnormal condition in which the umbilical cord is located outside the vulva and caught between the vaginal wall and the fetal head
Explanation: Answer reason: Umbilical cord prolapse occurs when the cord descends ahead of the presenting part and may protrude beyond the vulva; option D describes this condition.
A 35 years old woman came to a clinic with complain of dyspareunia, fatigue, and infertility. After examination, a disease was diagnosed in which the endometrial tissues grows outside the uterus. This condition is called?
- Endometriosis
- Fibroids Tumors
- Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
- Prolapsed uterus
Explanation: Answer reason: Endometriosis is characterized by endometrial tissue growing outside the uterus and commonly presents with dyspareunia, infertility, and pelvic pain/fatigue.
What is the role of hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) hormone in the blood and urine of women?
- It confirms pregnancy
- It regulates blood sugar levels
- It controls blood pressure
- It stimulates thyroid function
Explanation: Answer reason: HCG is produced by trophoblastic tissue early in pregnancy and is detectable in blood and urine; pregnancy tests measure hCG to confirm pregnancy.
What is the definition of the true conjugate length in obstetrics?
- The distance from the tip of the sacral promontory to the upper border of the symphysis pubis
- The distance from the tip of the sacral promontory to the lower border of the symphysis pubis
- The diagonal distance from the tip of the sacral promontory to the lower border of the symphysis pubis
Explanation: Answer reason: The true (anatomic) conjugate is measured from the sacral promontory to the superior border of the pubic symphysis. The lower border measurements describe the diagonal conjugate.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?
- Prior history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
- Prior history of infertility
- Prior history of uterine fibroids
- Prior history of ectopic pregnancy
- Prior history of tubal surgery
Explanation: Answer reason: Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy relate to fallopian tube damage or dysfunction: prior PID, infertility treatments, prior ectopic, and tubal surgery increase risk. Uterine fibroids do not increase tubal implantation risk.
Dystocia is ...?
- Abortion
- Normal labour
- Abnormal labour
- Caesarean section
Explanation: Answer reason: Dystocia is defined as difficult or abnormal labor due to problems with power, passenger, or passage; therefore it is abnormal labour.
Which of the following lead to greenish discoloration of the amniotic fluid?
- Lanugo
- Hydramnios
- Vernix
- Meconium
Explanation: Answer reason: Meconium-stained amniotic fluid appears green. Lanugo and vernix do not cause green discoloration; hydramnios refers to increased volume, not color change.
The commonest cause of breech presentation is?
- Prematurity
- Hydrocephalus
- Placenta previa
- Polyhydramnios
Explanation: Answer reason: Breech presentation occurs most frequently in preterm fetuses; before term many fetuses remain breech and later convert to cephalic, making prematurity the most common association.
Placenta is implanted in lower uterine segment, then it is called?
- Placenta previa
- Vasa previa
- Abruptio placenta
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Implantation of the placenta in the lower uterine segment is by definition placenta previa. Vasa previa refers to fetal vessels over the os, and abruptio placenta is premature separation of a normally implanted placenta.
Painful menstruation is termed as ?
- Menorrhagia
- Amenorrhea
- Dysmenorrhoea
- Decrease production of prostaglandin
Explanation: Answer reason: Painful menstruation is termed dysmenorrhea. Menorrhagia is heavy bleeding, amenorrhea is absence of menses, and decreased prostaglandin production is not a term.
The number of polar bodies are released at the time of ovum discharge-?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Explanation: Answer reason: At ovulation, meiosis I has just completed, producing a secondary oocyte and the first polar body. The second polar body forms only after fertilization.
What is the term for the first fetal movement felt by mother?
- Ballottement
- Quickening
- Lightening
- Engagement
Explanation: Answer reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the mother (typically around 16–20 weeks). Ballottement is an examiner-elicited rebound, lightening is fetal descent into the pelvis, and engagement is when the presenting part reaches the ischial spines.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for endometrial proliferation?
- Progesterone
- Estrogen
- HCG
- FSH
Explanation: Answer reason: Estrogen stimulates the proliferative phase of the endometrium. Progesterone promotes the secretory phase, hCG maintains the corpus luteum, and FSH stimulates follicle growth.
What is the normal vaginal pH?
- Acidic
- Alkaline
- Neutral
- None of them
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal vaginal pH is acidic (about 3.8–4.5) due to lactic acid from Lactobacillus, which inhibits pathogens.
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