Question 1

A 35-year-old woman presents with dyspareunia, fatigue, and infertility. Examination reveals a disease in which endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. This condition is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ectopic growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus defines endometriosis, which commonly presents with dyspareunia and infertility.

Question 2

What is a uterine contraction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Uterine contractions are defined physiologically by rhythmic tightening and shortening of the myometrial muscle fibers; other options do not describe the contraction itself.

Question 3

Which type of placental arrangement is associated with the highest risk of complications in twin pregnancies?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Monochorionic twins share a placenta, creating vascular anastomoses that increase risks such as twin-to-twin transfusion and growth discordance. Dichorionic twins (separate placentas) have lower risk; options with a single umbilical cord are not typical of viable twin gestations.

Question 4

A 21-year-old woman with well-developed breasts and pubic and axillary hair presents with primary amenorrhea; what is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primary amenorrhea with normal breast and pubic/axillary hair suggests normal estrogen and androgen effect; excludes Turner (no breasts) and complete androgen insensitivity (absent/sparse pubic hair). Among options, PCOS (Stein-Leventhal) best fits.

Question 5

How is a Couvelaire uterus described?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Couvelaire uterus (uteroplacental apoplexy) occurs with severe placental abruption, where blood extravasates into the myometrium causing a bluish-purple discoloration and infiltration.

Question 6

In abortion, what does 'recurrent abortion' mean?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Recurrent (habitual) abortion is classically defined as three or more consecutive spontaneous miscarriages, not induced abortions or other complications.

Question 7

What is the single most useful test in identifying the cause of an unexplained term intrauterine fetal demise?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fetal autopsy (often with placental examination) has the highest diagnostic yield for determining the cause of unexplained term intrauterine fetal demise. The other tests are targeted and have lower overall yield.

Question 8

Which of the following conditions will lead to a small-for-gestational fetus due to less blood supply to the fetus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Placental abruption separates the placenta from the uterine wall, reducing uteroplacental perfusion and nutrient delivery, which can cause intrauterine growth restriction and an SGA fetus. Maternal diabetes usually causes LGA, premature labor does not cause SGA, and maternal cardiac disease is less directly linked than acute placental insufficiency.

Question 9

Which of the following is the normal position of the uterus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The normal uterus is tilted forward and bent forward relative to the vagina and cervix—anteverted and anteflexed.

Question 10

What is the most frequent side effect associated with the use of an intrauterine device (IUD)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Copper IUDs commonly increase menstrual bleeding and cramping; serious complications like uterine rupture or ectopic pregnancy are rare, and expulsion is less frequent than menorrhagia.

Question 11

What type of environment does the vaginal canal normally have?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Normal vaginal flora, predominantly Lactobacillus, produce lactic acid, maintaining an acidic pH (~3.8–4.5) that protects against infection.

Question 12

What is the forceful expulsion of semen from the urethra caused by contraction of smooth muscle in the urethra and skeletal muscle surrounding the base of the penis called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The term for the forceful expulsion of semen due to rhythmic contractions of urethral smooth muscle and perineal skeletal muscles is ejaculation.

Question 13

In tubal pregnancy, what symptom may occur if the tube ruptures?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with sudden severe unilateral lower abdominal pain due to intraperitoneal bleeding. Painless bleeding suggests placenta previa; dull or intermittent contractions do not indicate rupture.

Question 14

A patient presents with vulvar irritation and pruritis, a hyperemic, edematous vaginal vault with odorless discharge, and a vaginal pH of 4.0; what is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Candida vaginitis typically presents with intense pruritus, erythematous edematous mucosa, odorless discharge, and a normal to low vaginal pH (around 3.8–4.2). BV and trichomoniasis usually have pH > 4.5 and characteristic odors.

Question 15

The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the following positions with face presentation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Face presentation occurs when the fetal head is fully hyperextended so the face, with the mentum presenting, enters the pelvis.

Question 16

Abruptio placentae is most likely to occur in a woman with which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy damage uteroplacental vessels and are a major risk factor for placental abruption; the other conditions are not typical precipitants.

Question 17

Which clinical entity describes an abortion that has started but has not progressed to a state from which recovery is not possible?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Threatened abortion presents with vaginal bleeding and no cervical dilation; the pregnancy may still continue, so it has not progressed to an inevitable, nonrecoverable state.

Question 18

What is the name of the cord of connective tissue extending between the testis and the abdominal wall?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The spermatic cord is the cordlike structure that extends from the deep inguinal ring of the abdominal wall to the testis, carrying the vas deferens, vessels, nerves, and connective tissue. The gubernaculum is an embryonic guide for testicular descent.

Question 19

Erection of the penis occurs as a result of which physiological process?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Penile erection is produced by increased arterial inflow and venous trapping causing engorgement of the corpora cavernosa with blood.

Question 20

After coming head of breech, in which condition will there NOT be difficulty in delivery?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Difficult after-coming head occurs with deflexion/extension of the head, incomplete cervical dilatation, or a large head (e.g., hydrocephalus). Placenta previa does not mechanically impede delivery of the after-coming head.

Question 21

What is the term for spontaneous abortions in three or more successive pregnancies?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Three or more consecutive spontaneous pregnancy losses are termed habitual (recurrent) abortion; other options define different types of single pregnancy loss.

Question 22

Which diameter of the pelvic inlet is the narrowest through which the fetal head must pass?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The obstetrical conjugate is the shortest anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic inlet and is the limiting passage the fetal head must traverse during engagement. The diagonal conjugate is measured to estimate it; the true conjugate is longer, and the transverse is the widest.

Question 23

Metroplasty (for adhesion removal) is done in which type of abortion?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Metroplasty (adhesiolysis) corrects intrauterine adhesions or uterine anomalies that contribute to repeated pregnancy loss; it is used for recurrent abortion, not for missed, complete, or threatened abortions.

Question 24

Which of the following statements is true regarding pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During normal pregnancy, plasma volume and total blood volume increase, heart rate and stroke volume rise, leading to a 30–50% increase in cardiac output. Therefore only option B is true; A and C are false.

Question 25

Which pelvic feature is commonly associated with Deep Transverse Arrest (DTA)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Deep transverse arrest often occurs in android-type pelves where the midpelvis is narrowed by prominent ischial spines, impeding rotation and descent.

Question 26

Which clinical entity describes a process of abortion that has started but has not progressed to a state from which recovery is impossible?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Threatened abortion involves early bleeding with a closed cervix and no expulsion; pregnancy may still continue, so recovery is possible.

Question 27

Which of the following pregnancy complications is NOT related to the presence of pregestational diabetes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pregestational diabetes increases risks of congenital heart defects (e.g., ASDs), miscarriage, pre-eclampsia, and can cause IUGR with vascular disease. Gastroschisis is not associated with maternal diabetes; it is more linked to young maternal age and smoking. Therefore, gastroschisis is the exception.

Question 28

Match the following terms with their correct descriptions: Embryo formation, Sperm, Female external genital, Graafian follicle?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Embryo formation corresponds to fertilization/zygote formation (1); sperm is the male gamete (4); female external genitalia refers to the vulva (3); the Graafian follicle is the mature ovarian follicle containing the ovum (2).

Question 29

Which hormones are responsible for the menstrual cycle?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The menstrual cycle is regulated by pituitary gonadotropins (FSH/LH) and the ovarian steroids estrogen and progesterone; option D includes all of these.

Question 30

Which obstetric emergency is associated with a maternal mortality rate greater than 90%?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare, catastrophic obstetric emergency causing sudden cardiovascular collapse and DIC with historically very high maternal mortality, often cited around 60–90% or higher.

Question 31

What is another name for normal labor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Eutocia means normal or uncomplicated labor; dystocia is difficult labor, eutonia refers to normal muscle tone, and 'reciprocated labour' is not an obstetric term.

Question 32

Which part of the sperm cell contains chromosomes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The chromosomes are housed in the nucleus located in the head of the sperm; the neck contains centrioles and the tail provides motility.

Question 33

What is the widest part of the fallopian tube?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ampulla is the longest and widest segment of the uterine (fallopian) tube; fertilization commonly occurs here. The isthmus and interstitial parts are narrow, and the infundibulum is funnel-shaped but not the widest segment.

Question 34

Which hormone is responsible for ovulation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The LH surge triggers rupture of the dominant follicle and release of the oocyte (ovulation). FSH promotes follicular growth; progesterone is primarily luteal; testosterone is not responsible for ovulation.

Question 35

What is another name for the single uterus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The uterus is commonly called the womb. The cervical canal is part of the cervix, the mons pubis is an external structure, and the ampulla is a segment of the fallopian tube.

Question 36

Where does fertilization take place in humans?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In humans, fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube where the sperm meets the ovum.

Question 37

While you were attending labor in Arbaminch General Hospital you have decided to do vacuum assisted vaginal delivery for prolonged second stage of labor due to poor maternal effort. The principal benefit to be gained by promoting the use of soft cups over rigid cups for vacuum delivery is based on evidence from randomised trials showing that soft cups?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Soft vacuum cups cause fewer superficial fetal scalp injuries compared with rigid cups, but have higher rates of detachment and lower success rates. Thus the key benefit is reduced fetal scalp trauma.

Question 38

Maximum normal time for second stage of labour in primigravida without anaesthesia is about?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For a primigravida without regional anesthesia, the second stage of labor is considered normal up to 2 hours (120 minutes).

Question 39

One of the following is a very common site for ectopic pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The vast majority of ectopic pregnancies implant in the fallopian tube, most commonly the ampulla.

Question 40

The part of the uterus that lies above the entrance of the uterine tube called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The uterine fundus is the dome-shaped superior portion that lies above the openings of the uterine (fallopian) tubes.

Question 41

A fibromuscular glandular organ that surrounds the prostatic urethra is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The prostate is a fibromuscular gland that encircles the prostatic urethra in males.

Question 42

A firm structure lying posterior to the testis, with the vas deferens lying on its medial side is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The epididymis is a firm, curved structure lying along the posterior surface of the testis; the vas deferens ascends from its tail and lies on the medial side.

Question 43

Of the following methods, the safest, most precise and simplest for placental localization is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ultrasound safely and accurately localizes the placenta without ionizing radiation and is more precise than palpation or auscultation; radiography is less safe in pregnancy.

Question 44

Bleeding from the genital tract that is out of the normal menstrual cycle in terms of duration of stay, frequency, amount, and quality?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: AUB stands for abnormal uterine bleeding—bleeding that is abnormal in timing, frequency, duration, or volume compared with a normal menstrual cycle. DUB is a subset of AUB (ovulatory dysfunction), while PPH and APH are obstetric hemorrhages postpartum and antepartum.

Question 45

Following is not a posterior vaginal wall defect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Posterior vaginal wall defects include rectocele and enterocele. A perineal tear is an obstetric injury of the perineum, not a defect of the posterior vaginal wall.

Question 46

One is not a management option for Hydatidiform Mole,?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Management of hydatidiform mole includes uterine evacuation, hysterectomy in selected cases, and prophylactic chemotherapy for high-risk/persistent disease. There is no specific underlying 'cause' to treat, so this is not a management option.

Question 47

A fibro muscular glandular organ that surrounds the prostatic urethra is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The prostate is a fibromuscular gland that encircles the proximal (prostatic) urethra.

Question 48

Male hormones are produced by which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Androgens (primarily testosterone) are produced by Leydig cells in the testes; the other listed structures do not secrete systemic male sex hormones.

Question 49

Threatened abortion?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding with mild cramps, a closed cervical os with uterine size appropriate for gestational age, and a viable fetus; therefore all listed findings are correct.

Question 50

A firm structure lying posterior to the testis, with the vas deferens lying on its medial side is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The epididymis is a firm, elongated structure attached to the posterior surface of the testis, with the vas deferens arising from its medial side.

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Reproductive System NCLEX Practice Test

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A 35-year-old woman presents with dyspareunia, fatigue, and infertility. Examination reveals a disease in which endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. This condition is called?

What is a uterine contraction?

Which type of placental arrangement is associated with the highest risk of complications in twin pregnancies?

A 21-year-old woman with well-developed breasts and pubic and axillary hair presents with primary amenorrhea; what is the most probable diagnosis?

How is a Couvelaire uterus described?

In abortion, what does 'recurrent abortion' mean?

What is the single most useful test in identifying the cause of an unexplained term intrauterine fetal demise?

Which of the following conditions will lead to a small-for-gestational fetus due to less blood supply to the fetus?

Which of the following is the normal position of the uterus?

What is the most frequent side effect associated with the use of an intrauterine device (IUD)?

What type of environment does the vaginal canal normally have?

What is the forceful expulsion of semen from the urethra caused by contraction of smooth muscle in the urethra and skeletal muscle surrounding the base of the penis called?

In tubal pregnancy, what symptom may occur if the tube ruptures?

A patient presents with vulvar irritation and pruritis, a hyperemic, edematous vaginal vault with odorless discharge, and a vaginal pH of 4.0; what is the most likely diagnosis?

The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the following positions with face presentation?

Abruptio placentae is most likely to occur in a woman with which condition?

Which clinical entity describes an abortion that has started but has not progressed to a state from which recovery is not possible?

What is the name of the cord of connective tissue extending between the testis and the abdominal wall?

Erection of the penis occurs as a result of which physiological process?

After coming head of breech, in which condition will there NOT be difficulty in delivery?

What is the term for spontaneous abortions in three or more successive pregnancies?

Which diameter of the pelvic inlet is the narrowest through which the fetal head must pass?

Metroplasty (for adhesion removal) is done in which type of abortion?

Which of the following statements is true regarding pregnancy?

Which pelvic feature is commonly associated with Deep Transverse Arrest (DTA)?

Which clinical entity describes a process of abortion that has started but has not progressed to a state from which recovery is impossible?

Which of the following pregnancy complications is NOT related to the presence of pregestational diabetes?

Match the following terms with their correct descriptions: Embryo formation, Sperm, Female external genital, Graafian follicle?

Which hormones are responsible for the menstrual cycle?

Which obstetric emergency is associated with a maternal mortality rate greater than 90%?

What is another name for normal labor?

Which part of the sperm cell contains chromosomes?

What is the widest part of the fallopian tube?

Which hormone is responsible for ovulation?

What is another name for the single uterus?

Where does fertilization take place in humans?

Maximum normal time for second stage of labour in primigravida without anaesthesia is about?

One of the following is a very common site for ectopic pregnancy?

The part of the uterus that lies above the entrance of the uterine tube called?

A fibromuscular glandular organ that surrounds the prostatic urethra is?

A firm structure lying posterior to the testis, with the vas deferens lying on its medial side is?

Of the following methods, the safest, most precise and simplest for placental localization is?

Bleeding from the genital tract that is out of the normal menstrual cycle in terms of duration of stay, frequency, amount, and quality?

Following is not a posterior vaginal wall defect?

One is not a management option for Hydatidiform Mole,?

A fibro muscular glandular organ that surrounds the prostatic urethra is?

Male hormones are produced by which of the following?

Threatened abortion?

A firm structure lying posterior to the testis, with the vas deferens lying on its medial side is?

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