Question 1

Crown rump length of fetus is measured from?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is because early gestational dating relies on a consistent anatomic endpoint before leg extension and variable flexion make limb-including lengths less reliable. Measuring to the coccyx (rump) provides a reproducible estimate of gestational age in the first trimester. Options that measure to the heel represent crown–heel length and are used later, and “head to coccyx” is less precise terminology than vertex to rump.

Question 2

Which of the following white sticky substance covered the fetus at birth?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its primary role is to protect fetal skin from prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid and it also provides a barrier that reduces friction and helps limit bacterial contamination during birth. Lanugo is fine hair on the fetus rather than a sticky white coating, while amnion and chorion are fetal membranes and do not form a surface covering on the newborn’s skin. Therefore the described “white sticky substance” corresponds to vernix caseosa.

Question 3

Healthy sperm can survive upto .... in female body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard reproductive physiology teaching places maximal survival at about 3–5 days, which explains the fertile window extending several days before ovulation. Among the options, this duration best matches established fertility counseling and timing-of-intercourse guidance. Shorter durations can occur in hostile vaginal/cervical conditions, but they do not represent the typical upper limit tested. Much longer values are not considered physiologically typical for viable sperm capable of fertilization.

Question 4

The mucus plug seen at the internal os during pregnancy is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The term for this pregnancy mucus plug is operculum. “Show” refers to the blood-tinged mucus discharge that occurs when the plug is released as labor approaches, not the plug itself. Leukorrhea is increased normal vaginal discharge in pregnancy, and lochia is postpartum uterine discharge.

Question 5

All of the following are risk factors for cancer cervix except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early onset of sexual activity increases lifetime HPV exposure, multiparity is associated with higher risk (likely via hormonal/immune and cervical trauma-related mechanisms), and smoking promotes cervical carcinogenesis and persistence of HPV. Early menarche is classically linked to prolonged estrogen exposure and is a risk factor for endometrial and sometimes breast cancer, not cervical cancer. Therefore it is the exception among the listed choices.

Question 6

Normal female pevis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pelvic architecture generally provides the most favorable dimensions for vaginal birth compared with other pelvic types. Android pelvis is more common in males and tends to have a narrower, heart-shaped inlet that can impede labor progress. Anthropoid and platypelloid types can be seen in females but are less commonly considered the standard pelvic type.

Question 7

Which of the following is a risk factor for cervical cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early reproductive/sexual life timing is associated with earlier cervical transformation-zone exposure and typically correlates with early sexual debut and higher likelihood of HPV acquisition, making adolescent pregnancy a recognized risk-related factor in exam contexts. A single lifetime partner lowers HPV exposure risk compared with multiple partners. Sedentary lifestyle and obesity are more strongly linked with other malignancies and are not primary cervical cancer risk drivers.

Question 8

Cyclic bleeding at normal intervals but either excessive in amount or duration is termed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Regular, cyclic menses occurring at normal intervals that are abnormally heavy and/or prolonged are termed menorrhagia. In contrast, metrorrhagia refers to bleeding at irregular, non-cyclic intervals, and dysmenorrhoea refers to painful menstruation rather than increased bleeding. Epimenorrhoea describes more frequent cycles (shortened interval), not excessive flow at normal intervals.

Question 9

Most common cause of PPH is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postpartum hemorrhage is most commonly caused by uterine atony, where the uterus fails to contract effectively after delivery. Without strong myometrial contraction, uterine vessels at the placental site remain open, leading to brisk bleeding. This mechanism is more frequent than hemorrhage due to retained products, genital tract trauma, or coagulation disorders. A key clinical correlate is a “boggy” enlarged uterus with heavy lochia that improves with uterine massage and uterotonics.

Question 10

During the stage of the menstrual cycle does the endometrium layer thicken?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This hormone stimulates proliferation of the functional layer and growth of glands and stroma to rebuild the uterine lining. The luteal/secretory period instead emphasizes progesterone-mediated glandular secretion and maturation of an already thickened endometrium rather than the main growth phase. Ovulation is a brief event and not the stage classically defined by maximal lining proliferation.

Question 11

A positive over the counter pregnancy test is considered a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: “Probable” signs include positive hCG tests and other objective uterine/cervical changes that can still have alternative causes (e.g., trophoblastic disease, certain tumors, recent pregnancy loss). “Presumptive” signs are subjective symptoms felt by the patient (amenorrhea, nausea, breast tenderness), so a test result is not in that category. The only “positive/diagnostic” confirmation is direct evidence of a fetus (e.g., ultrasound visualization or fetal heart tones).

Question 12

Which vitamin prevents neural tube defects during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Periconceptional folic acid supplementation significantly reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. This is why routine prenatal guidance emphasizes starting supplementation before conception and continuing through early pregnancy. Other B vitamins support neurologic function and hematopoiesis, but they are not the primary, evidence-based preventive intervention for neural tube defects.

Question 13

The urethra which opens on the dorsal surface of the penis is termed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A dorsal urethral opening defines epispadias and is classically associated with the exstrophy-epispadias complex. In contrast, hypospadias refers to a ventral opening and is therefore the common distractor here. Cryptorchidism and anorchidism describe abnormalities of testicular descent or absence, not urethral opening location.

Question 14

In vaginal delivery done in the hospital setting, the doctor routinely orders an oxytocin to be given to the mother parenterally. The oxytocin is usually given after the placenta has been delivered and not before because?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: If given before the placenta is expelled, intensified uterine tone and contraction can contribute to constriction at the lower uterine segment/cervical area, potentially preventing placental expulsion and leading to a retained placenta. A retained placenta increases ongoing bleeding risk and may require manual removal. The key safety rationale for timing is to avoid trapping placental tissue prior to complete placental delivery while still achieving effective postpartum uterine contraction afterward.

Question 15

The refers to the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the centralised uterus or maternal spine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This concept differentiates longitudinal, transverse, and oblique orientations, which directly matches the stem’s definition. Presentation refers to the fetal part entering the pelvic inlet (e.g., cephalic or breech), not the axis-to-axis relationship. Attitude is the relationship of fetal parts to one another (degree of flexion/extension), and denominator is a landmark on the presenting part used to describe fetal position.

Question 16

What is the term for a small collection of blood that forms underneath the skull as a result of birth trauma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because it is beneath the periosteum, it is limited by suture lines and feels like a firm, well-demarcated swelling that may appear hours after delivery. This matches the description of blood collecting “underneath” the skull coverings due to trauma. Caput succedaneum is scalp edema that crosses sutures, while vernix caseosa and erythema toxicum are normal newborn skin findings rather than hemorrhages.

Question 17

Amniocentesis is done to detect all fetal abnormalities except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It can diagnose trisomy 21 via fetal karyotype and screen/confirm open neural tube defects through elevated amniotic fluid AFP and acetylcholinesterase. It can also assess fetal lung maturity using the lecithin–sphingomyelin ratio. Cognitive outcome without a specific detectable genetic/metabolic cause cannot be diagnosed prenatally by amniocentesis, so this is the exception.

Question 18

Fertilized egg is transported by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The fertilized ovum (zygote) normally forms in the fallopian tube and must be moved to the uterine cavity for implantation. Coordinated ciliary action of the tubal epithelium and smooth muscle peristalsis provide this transport. The ovary releases the oocyte but does not carry it to the uterus, and the uterus is primarily the site of implantation and fetal development rather than transport. Disruption of tubal transport increases risk for ectopic implantation within the tube.

Question 19

The artificial rupture of the amniotic membranes is known as what?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The medical term for this procedure is the surgical rupture of the membranes, which aligns with the definition of amniotomy. Amniocentesis instead refers to needle aspiration of amniotic fluid for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. Cervical cerclage is suturing an incompetent cervix, and cervical ripening refers to preparing the cervix (e.g., prostaglandins or mechanical methods) before induction rather than rupturing membranes.

Question 20

Which of the following findings is not a probable sign of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amenorrhea, ballottement, and Chadwick's sign fall into presumptive/probable categories and are not definitive on their own. A pregnancy test that detects hCG is considered a positive (diagnostic) sign because it provides objective biochemical evidence of pregnancy. Therefore this option does not belong in the probable category, unlike physical exam signs that can have alternative explanations.

Question 21

Which is the most common type of twin pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism occurs more frequently than spontaneous embryo splitting, which produces monozygotic twins. Rates of dizygotic twinning also vary with maternal factors such as increasing age, higher parity, family history, and assisted reproductive technologies, making them overall the predominant type encountered clinically. Conjoined and monoamniotic twins are rare outcomes related to atypical timing of monozygotic splitting and therefore are far less common.

Question 22

Polyhydramnios means?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., elevated amniotic fluid index or deepest vertical pocket on ultrasound). The term contrasts with oligohydramnios, which refers to low fluid volume and is a common distractor. Clinically, excess fluid is often related to impaired fetal swallowing (e.g., GI obstruction, anencephaly) or increased fetal urination (e.g., maternal diabetes), supporting that the core meaning is increased quantity rather than infection. Therefore the option describing a high quantity of amniotic fluid matches the definition.

Question 23

Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of the intrauterine contraceptive device?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Active pelvic infection is a contraindication due to risk of ascending infection and PID. Pregnancy is a contraindication because an IUD can increase risks such as miscarriage and infection if inserted with an existing pregnancy. Unexplained uterine bleeding requires evaluation first to rule out malignancy or other significant disease; by contrast, having never given birth is not, by itself, a contraindication to IUD use.

Question 24

Which of the following scores is used to identify maternal readiness for labor induction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Bishop score is the standardized scoring system used to quantify these factors and guide whether cervical ripening is needed before induction. Chadwick sign refers to bluish discoloration of the cervix/vagina in pregnancy, not induction readiness. Leopold maneuvers assess fetal lie/presentation, and the New Ballard score estimates neonatal gestational age after birth, neither of which measures cervical readiness for induction.

Question 25

Appropriate time for chorionic villus sampling is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The optimal window is about 10–13 weeks; performing it before 10 weeks is avoided due to increased risk of limb reduction defects and other complications. Later gestational ages (mid-trimester) are more consistent with amniocentesis timing rather than CVS. Therefore, the 10–12 week window best matches the standard recommended timing for CVS.

Question 26

What's the average blood loss during c-section delivery?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A commonly taught benchmark is about 1000 mL for cesarean delivery (vs ~500 mL for vaginal), and postpartum hemorrhage thresholds mirror this difference. Therefore the option that best matches the expected average range for a C-section is the one centered around 1 liter. Lower ranges align more closely with typical vaginal delivery blood loss rather than operative delivery.

Question 27

Largest cell of human body is...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ovum is approximately 100 micrometers in diameter and contains abundant cytoplasm and nutrient reserves to support early embryonic development before placental support is established. Sperm cells are specialized for motility and are among the smallest human cells, with minimal cytoplasm. Neurons can be the longest cells by length due to axons, but they are not the largest by overall cell size/diameter.

Question 28

A 32-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks of gestation presents with sudden painless vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This contrasts with abruptio placentae, which typically causes painful bleeding with uterine tenderness and hypertonicity. Vasa previa bleeding is also painless but is characteristically associated with rupture of membranes and rapid fetal compromise from fetal blood loss, which is not described here. Uterine rupture usually presents with severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate, and often occurs in the setting of a prior uterine scar rather than an uncomplicated primigravida.

Question 29

Fertilization usually occurs in—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After ovulation, the oocyte is captured by the fimbriae and propelled by ciliary action and tubal peristalsis toward the uterine cavity, making the tube the physiologic site for conception. The uterus is primarily the site of implantation after the zygote has undergone early cleavage during tubal transit. Ectopic pregnancies frequently occur in the tube, further reinforcing that normal fertilization occurs there rather than in the uterus, ovary, or cervix.

Question 30

Breathing, weak cry, and limp tone scores?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Findings such as absent/ineffective breathing, weak or absent cry (poor respiration), and limp muscle tone correspond to 0 points for respiration and activity, reflecting severe neonatal depression. When multiple domains are 0, the total Apgar falls in the lowest range, which is interpreted as critically low and requiring immediate resuscitative support. Compared with mid-range totals (4–6) or normal (7–10), these findings most strongly align with the 0–3 category.

Question 31

Zygote formation occurs at—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The single-cell zygote forms immediately after fusion of the gametes and then begins cleavage as it travels toward the uterus. Implantation, by contrast, occurs later in the uterine endometrium, not at the site of zygote formation. The ovary releases the oocyte but is not the usual location where sperm and oocyte unite.

Question 32

Which of the following is not a positive sign of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A urine or serum pregnancy test detects hCG, which is a presumptive sign because hCG can be elevated in other conditions (e.g., trophoblastic disease, some tumors) and can yield false positives/negatives depending on timing and assay factors. Therefore, while it strongly suggests pregnancy, it is not definitive on its own. In contrast, Doppler fetal heart tones and ultrasound visualization provide direct confirmation of a developing fetus.

Question 33

A normal APGAR score at 1 minute is usually?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Scores of 7–10 indicate the newborn is generally adapting well and typically requires only routine care. Scores of 4–6 suggest moderate difficulty that may need supportive measures such as stimulation and oxygen. Scores of 0–3 indicate severe compromise needing immediate resuscitation, and values above 10 are not possible because the scale’s maximum is 10.

Question 34

Which structure releases the oocyte during ovulation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ovary is therefore the organ that releases the oocyte into the peritoneal cavity near the fimbriae. The fallopian tube does not release the oocyte; it captures it and is the usual site of fertilization. The uterus and cervix are involved in implantation, menstruation, and labor-related functions rather than oocyte release.

Question 35

Human ovum remains viable for fertilization for—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This aligns with the common clinical teaching that the egg remains viable for roughly 12–24 hours in the female reproductive tract. In contrast, 48–72 hours overestimates oocyte survival and is more consistent with sperm viability under favorable conditions. A duration of 1 week is not physiologically plausible for an unfertilized human ovum.

Question 36

Which is a barrier method of contraception?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A condom creates a mechanical barrier over the penis (or within the vagina, for female condoms) and is also the only option here that reduces transmission of many STIs. In contrast, an IUCD primarily prevents fertilization/implantation via intrauterine mechanisms, oral pills inhibit ovulation through hormonal suppression, and vasectomy is a surgical sterilization method that blocks sperm transport rather than acting as a removable barrier during intercourse.

Question 37

Capacitation occurs in—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This biochemical and membrane change occurs within the female genital tract, driven by uterine/tubal secretions that remove decapacitation factors and alter sperm membrane permeability and motility. It does not occur in the ovary because sperm do not enter the ovary under normal physiology, and it is not completed in the male tract where sperm are stored and transported without acquiring fertilizing capacity. The uterus and fallopian tubes are key sites for these changes, with completion typically in the upper tract prior to fertilization.

Question 38

Fertilization is the fusion of—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This requires penetration of a single sperm into an ovum followed by fusion of their pronuclei. Fusion of two sperms or two ova cannot produce a normal human zygote and is biologically incompatible with typical human development. The key concept tested is the basic reproductive definition of fertilization as gamete fusion between opposite sexes.

Question 39

Human sperm remains viable in female tract for—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Under typical exam assumptions, sperm can remain capable of fertilization for about 2–3 days after intercourse, which aligns with the commonly taught fertile window. Options like 12–24 hours underestimate sperm viability (that timeframe is closer to ovum survival after ovulation). While some sources note rare survival up to 5 days, the standard single-best answer in many nursing/medical MCQs is 48–72 hours.

Question 40

A pregnant woman has painless vaginal bleeding in the 3rd trimester. Most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester classically indicates placental tissue covering or near the cervical os. This condition bleeds as the lower uterine segment thins and the cervix begins to efface/dilate, without the painful uterine tenderness typical of other causes. In contrast, placental abruption usually presents with painful bleeding, uterine rigidity/tenderness, and may have concealed hemorrhage. Ectopic pregnancy is typically an early pregnancy presentation (first trimester) with abdominal pain and bleeding, making it unlikely here.

Question 41

When beginning testing for infertility, which diagnostic test is most commonly performed first?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Male factor contributes substantially to infertility, and semen testing is inexpensive, quick, and directly evaluates sperm concentration, motility, and morphology. This makes it the typical first-line diagnostic step when a couple presents for infertility workup. Tests like hysterosalpingogram are more invasive and are usually pursued after basic screening suggests the need to evaluate tubal patency or uterine cavity abnormalities.

Question 42

First polar body is produced during—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first polar body forms when the primary oocyte completes meiosis I, producing a secondary oocyte and the first polar body (typically just before/at ovulation). Fertilization triggers completion of meiosis II and extrusion of the second polar body, not the first. Spermatogenesis produces four functional sperm cells without polar body formation, and cleavage refers to early embryonic mitotic divisions after fertilization.

Question 43

Abortion is defined as termination of pregnancy before?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Abortion is commonly defined as pregnancy loss/termination before 20 weeks’ gestation (often also described as before fetal weight reaches ~500 g). This cutoff distinguishes it from later pregnancy losses that are categorized as preterm delivery or stillbirth depending on local definitions. Choices with higher gestational ages reflect later viability thresholds and therefore do not match the standard definition tested in basic OB nursing/medicine questions.

Question 44

Which of the following is a probable sign of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Softening of the uterine isthmus (a cervical/uterine change felt on bimanual exam) fits this definition. By contrast, fetal heart sounds and ultrasound visualization of the fetus are positive (diagnostic) signs because they directly confirm a fetus. Amenorrhea is only a presumptive sign since it is a subjective symptom and has many nonpregnancy causes.

Question 45

What is colpocleisis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The term literally refers to closure (cleisis) of the vagina (colpo-). In contrast, repair of rectocele or cystocele are posterior/anterior colporrhaphy procedures that reinforce the vaginal wall rather than close the canal. Cervical amputation is a separate cervical surgery and does not define colpocleisis.

Question 46

Breastfeeding jaundice occurs due to—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With fewer feeds, the infant receives less fluid and calories, resulting in less bilirubin excretion through stool and urine and higher unconjugated bilirubin levels. This mechanism fits a well-appearing newborn in the first days of life where feeding is ineffective or infrequent. In contrast, hemolysis, infection, or liver disease typically suggest pathologic jaundice with additional risk factors and concerning clinical findings beyond simple low intake.

Question 47

The layer surrounding ovum that sperm penetrates is—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The sperm first passes through the cumulus/corona radiata and then binds to and penetrates the zona pellucida via the acrosome reaction (e.g., zona-binding proteins and enzymes). Only after zona penetration does the sperm reach the oocyte plasma membrane (oolemma) to fuse and trigger the cortical reaction that blocks polyspermy. Cytoplasm and the polar body are not protective layers that a sperm penetrates to achieve fertilization.

Question 48

Acrosomal reaction is triggered by—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This binding increases sperm membrane permeability to calcium and initiates release of acrosomal enzymes (e.g., hyaluronidase, acrosin) needed to penetrate the zona. The corona radiata is crossed mainly via enzymatic and mechanical action but does not provide the key receptor-mediated trigger. Fusion with the ovum plasma membrane occurs after zona penetration and is therefore downstream of the acrosome reaction.

Question 49

What is the commonest presentation of uterine prolapse?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Uterine prolapse is a pelvic organ support defect in which the uterus descends toward or beyond the vaginal introitus. The most characteristic and commonly reported symptom is a vaginal bulge/pressure sensation, often described as something “coming out” of the vagina and worse with standing or straining. Low backache can occur from pelvic floor strain but is less specific and not the typical primary complaint. Bleeding and abdominal pain are not common presenting features and should prompt evaluation for alternative or additional pathology.

Question 50

Postpartum psychosis usually occurs within?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postpartum psychosis is an obstetric psychiatric emergency that classically has an abrupt onset in the first 1–2 weeks after birth, often within the first several days. This timing aligns with rapid postpartum hormonal shifts and sleep deprivation, which can precipitate severe mood and psychotic symptoms in vulnerable patients (e.g., bipolar history). An onset at 3–4 weeks is more typical of postpartum depression onset patterns rather than acute psychosis. Presentations months to a year postpartum are less consistent with the usual time course and should prompt evaluation for other primary psychotic or mood disorders.

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