Question 1

Which type of angina occurs with exercise or at rest and increases in duration, frequency, or severity over time?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pattern indicates a high risk of progression to myocardial infarction and requires urgent evaluation and management. Stable angina is typically reproducible with exertion and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin without a progressive trend. Prinzmetal’s/variant angina is due to coronary vasospasm and classically occurs at rest with transient ST elevation, rather than a crescendo pattern over time.

Question 2

Which of the following Artery supply the Brain with Blood?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the options, the carotid artery is the major named vessel that directly carries oxygenated blood toward the brain and contributes to the Circle of Willis. The brachial and femoral arteries supply the upper and lower limbs, respectively, not the brain. The coronary arteries supply the myocardium, not cerebral tissue.

Question 3

Which procedure is NOT part of the treatment for hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The standard surgical sequence is the Norwood (neonatal) followed by the bidirectional Glenn (superior cavopulmonary connection) and then the Fontan (total cavopulmonary connection). The remaining option is a vascular procedure conceptually associated with peripheral venous disease rather than congenital single-ventricle reconstruction. Therefore it is the one that does not belong in the HLHS treatment pathway.

Question 4

The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of stage 1 hypertension. Which of the following blood pressure results should the nurse anticipate assessing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This reading falls within that range for both systolic and diastolic values, matching the expected classification. Readings like 116/76 and 128/74 are below the stage 1 threshold and would be considered normal to elevated depending on systolic level. A value like 170/92 is consistent with stage 2 hypertension (systolic ≥140 and/or diastolic ≥90) and would not be expected for stage 1 specifically.

Question 5

A nurse is caring for a patient with sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is NOT a typical cause of sinus tachycardia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Conditions like anemia, anxiety, and pain commonly raise catecholamines and/or reduce oxygen delivery, which increases SA node firing and heart rate. Increased vagal (parasympathetic) stimulation does the opposite by slowing SA node automaticity and AV nodal conduction, tending toward sinus bradycardia. Therefore, it is not a typical cause of sinus tachycardia compared with the other options.

Question 6

Which of the following conditions leads to an increase in pulmonary blood flow?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An atrioventricular canal creates a large intracardiac communication (ASD/VSD with common AV valve) that typically produces a significant left-to-right shunt. In contrast, pulmonary atresia and tricuspid atresia reduce blood reaching the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis. Transposition of the great arteries produces parallel circulations, and pulmonary flow is not inherently increased unless additional lesions (e.g., large VSD/PDA) are present.

Question 7

A patient tells the nurse that he has a pacemaker that fires “all the time.” The nurse identifies this as which type of pacemaker?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In contrast, synchronous (demand) pacing senses native beats and only fires when the heart rate drops below the programmed threshold. An implanted cardiac defibrillator is designed to detect and treat malignant tachyarrhythmias with shocks/antitachycardia pacing rather than “pacing all the time.” A loop recorder is a diagnostic monitoring device and does not pace.

Question 8

Which of the following is not a finding typically associated with left sided heart failure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Jugular venous distention reflects elevated right atrial/central venous pressure and is classically associated with right-sided heart failure (systemic venous congestion). While severe left failure can secondarily cause right failure over time, JVD is not the typical primary finding of isolated left-sided failure. The other listed findings are direct consequences of pulmonary fluid accumulation and impaired gas exchange.

Question 9

Which cardiac enzyme may be elevated in response to cardiac ischemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Troponins (I and T) are the most sensitive and specific biomarkers used to detect myocardial damage and rise within hours of an acute coronary syndrome. CRP reflects systemic inflammation and cardiovascular risk but is not a cardiac injury enzyme marker. D-dimer indicates fibrin degradation (e.g., VTE/PE) and lactate reflects hypoperfusion/anaerobic metabolism, neither being specific for cardiac ischemic injury.

Question 10

The nurse has just received shift change report about a patient who is stable after a heart transplant. The nurse is reading over the patient's chart and expects to find a history of which type of cardiomyopathy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This disease process causes global pump failure and refractory symptoms despite maximal medical and device therapy, making transplant the definitive option when advanced therapies fail. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy more often presents with diastolic dysfunction and outflow obstruction that is frequently managed with medications, septal reduction, or ICD placement rather than transplant. Restrictive cardiomyopathy can require transplant in select cases, but it is less common overall than dilated cardiomyopathy as the underlying indication.

Question 11

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: That chamber functions as the receiving reservoir for pulmonary venous return before blood passes through the mitral valve. The left ventricle primarily ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta rather than receiving it from the lungs. In contrast, the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation via the venae cavae.

Question 12

A 62-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, leg swelling, and difficulty lying flat at night. Lung exam reveals crackles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pulmonary crackles indicate fluid in the alveoli/interstitium consistent with pulmonary congestion/edema, a hallmark of left-sided involvement. The leg swelling supports systemic venous congestion often seen with right-sided or biventricular failure. Asthma would more typically cause wheezing without dependent edema, and pneumothorax usually presents with sudden pleuritic pain and decreased breath sounds rather than crackles.

Question 13

The nurse is auscultating at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. Which heart valve is the nurse assessing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The aortic area is at the 2nd intercostal space at the right sternal border, so this placement best assesses aortic valve closure and murmurs. In contrast, the pulmonic area is at the 2nd intercostal space at the left sternal border, and the tricuspid and mitral areas are lower left sternal border and apex, respectively. Therefore the described location corresponds to the aortic valve listening post.

Question 14

The nurse explains a patient’s diagnosis as “buildup of plaque on arterial walls.” Which condition is the nurse describing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atherosclerosis is defined by lipid-rich plaque formation within the arterial intima, leading to narrowing of the vessel lumen and reduced perfusion. The phrase “buildup of plaque on arterial walls” directly describes this specific pathologic process. Arteriosclerosis is a broader term referring to arterial stiffening/thickening in general and is not as specific for plaque deposition. Venous insufficiency and arterial insufficiency describe circulatory consequences (impaired venous return or reduced arterial flow) rather than the underlying plaque-based disease entity.

Question 15

Which of the following conditions leads to a decrease in pulmonary blood flow?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This condition includes pulmonary stenosis with a right-to-left shunt across a ventricular septal defect, so deoxygenated blood bypasses the pulmonary circulation and enters systemic circulation. In contrast, atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, and patent ductus arteriosus are classically left-to-right shunts that increase pulmonary blood flow and can cause pulmonary overcirculation and heart failure. The presence of outflow obstruction is the key feature that makes this diagnosis uniquely associated with reduced pulmonary perfusion among the options.

Question 16

Which of the following is not a finding associated with venous insufficiency?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typical findings include dependent edema, brownish hyperpigmentation from hemosiderin deposition, and venous stasis ulcers near the medial malleolus that can be exudative. Cold feet are more characteristic of arterial insufficiency due to reduced arterial perfusion and diminished skin temperature. In venous disease, extremities are often warm with aching/heaviness that improves with elevation, rather than coldness.

Question 17

Which portion of the cardiac anatomy can be best auscultated at the left sternal border of the fourth intercostal space?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The tricuspid area is heard best along the left lower sternal border, typically at the 4th–5th intercostal space. In contrast, the pulmonic valve is best heard at the left 2nd intercostal space, and the mitral valve at the cardiac apex (left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line). Therefore the left sternal border at the 4th intercostal space localizes to the tricuspid auscultation point.

Question 18

Hypertension increases risk of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Persistently elevated arterial pressure also increases wall stress, promoting vascular remodeling and predisposing to aneurysm formation and rupture. Increased afterload forces the left ventricle to hypertrophy and eventually decompensate, leading to heart failure. Because hypertension is a major shared risk factor for all three conditions listed, the combined option is the best answer.

Question 19

Which of the following types of pain is most characteristic of angina?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This visceral ischemic pain is often described as heaviness or tightness and may radiate to the arm, neck, jaw, or epigastrium. In contrast, sharp/knifelike pain more commonly suggests pleuritic, musculoskeletal, or pericardial etiologies rather than demand-related coronary ischemia. Shooting pain is more consistent with neuropathic patterns and is not the classic descriptor for angina.

Question 20

Septal involvement occurs in which type of cardiomyopathy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This septal thickening may create dynamic obstruction and a systolic ejection murmur that can worsen with decreased preload. Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized primarily by ventricular chamber enlargement with systolic dysfunction rather than focal septal hypertrophy. Restrictive cardiomyopathy mainly causes impaired diastolic filling from stiff ventricles, not predominant septal involvement.

Question 21

Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does not affect cardiac output?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dilated cardiomyopathy primarily decreases systolic function and stroke volume, lowering cardiac output. Hypertrophic and restrictive cardiomyopathies mainly impair diastolic filling, limiting stroke volume (especially with exertion) and thereby reducing cardiac output. “Obliterative” is not a standard primary cardiomyopathy category in common clinical classifications, so it is the best choice for the option that does not (as a named type) affect cardiac output in this list.

Question 22

In which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does cardiac output remain normal?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Restrictive cardiomyopathy is characterized by decreased ventricular compliance leading to diastolic dysfunction, while ejection fraction and systolic performance can be near-normal early on. This allows forward flow to be maintained until filling becomes severely limited or tachyarrhythmias/volume shifts occur. In contrast, dilated cardiomyopathy primarily causes systolic dysfunction with reduced stroke volume and thus reduced cardiac output. Hypertrophic forms can also reduce output due to outflow obstruction and impaired filling, making preserved output less reliable than in restrictive patterns.

Question 23

Which of the following recurring conditions most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The most frequent recurring clinical problem is progressive congestion and poor perfusion that manifest as chronic or recurrent heart failure exacerbations. While myocardial infarction can cause ischemic cardiomyopathy, it is not the typical recurring condition across cardiomyopathy types and is not a consequence that recurs most commonly in them. Pericardial effusion is a pericardial process rather than a common sequela of myocardial muscle disease, and diabetes is a risk factor/comorbidity rather than the characteristic recurring condition.

Question 24

Which type of angina occurs with exercise or at rest and increases in duration, frequency, or severity over time?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pattern distinguishes a progressive syndrome from exertional, reproducible ischemia. Stable angina is typically consistent with exertion and relieved with rest or nitroglycerin without a crescendo pattern. Variant (Prinzmetal’s) angina is classically due to coronary vasospasm with episodes often at rest and may show transient ST elevation, but it is not defined by a progressive increase in frequency/severity over time. The described features represent an acute coronary syndrome spectrum requiring urgent evaluation.

Question 25

While assessing heart sounds, the nurse knows S1 and S2 will be heard equally at which location?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At the base (aortic/pulmonic areas), S2 is typically louder, while at the apex (mitral area/PMI) S1 is typically louder. Erb's point (left 3rd intercostal space at the sternal border) is the classic transitional area where S1 and S2 are heard with roughly equal intensity. This makes it useful for comparing S1/S2 and appreciating subtle splitting or murmurs that radiate toward the left sternal border.

Question 26

A nurse measures a patient’s pulse rate and discovers that it is higher than normal. The nurse should document this finding as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The prefix “tachy-” means fast, and “-cardia” refers to the heart, matching the assessment finding of a high pulse. “Tachypnea” instead describes an increased respiratory rate, not pulse. “Arrhythmia” refers to an irregular rhythm, which is a different abnormality than simply a fast rate.

Question 27

Which of the following is most likely associated with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from congenital heart disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hyperviscosity promotes thrombosis and can predispose to ischemic stroke, including in the setting of right-to-left shunting. This mechanism directly links congenital heart disease to CVA risk via increased clot formation. In contrast, endocarditis can cause embolic stroke but is not the most typical association specifically emphasized as a consequence of cyanotic congenital heart disease physiology. Low blood pressure is not a characteristic driver of thrombotic CVA in this context.

Question 28

Myra is ordered laboratory tests after she is admitted to the hospital for angina. The isoenzyme test that is the most reliable early indicator of myocardial insult is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CK-MB is comparatively more specific to myocardium than AST, LDH, or SGPT and rises earlier after myocardial injury, making it a reliable early isoenzyme marker. LDH typically elevates later and is less specific because it is found in many tissues. AST and SGPT are primarily associated with hepatic or generalized tissue injury and are not reliable for early detection of myocardial insult.

Question 29

What is the term used to describe an enlargement of the heart muscle?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is a descriptive term for an abnormally large heart, regardless of underlying cause (e.g., hypertension, valvular disease, cardiomyopathy). Cardiomyopathy refers to a disease of the heart muscle that can lead to enlargement but is not the generic term for enlargement itself. Myocarditis and pericarditis describe inflammation of the myocardium and pericardium, respectively, and are not defined by enlargement.

Question 30

Which investigation detects LV hypertrophy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., high QRS voltages with associated “strain” changes). This makes it a direct, widely used screening investigation for LVH in clinical practice and exams. A chest X-ray may suggest cardiomegaly but cannot reliably identify ventricular wall thickening or distinguish chamber-specific hypertrophy. Serum creatinine evaluates renal function, and CT is not a standard first-line test for LVH detection compared with ECG (and echocardiography, if offered).

Question 31

Which of the following parameters is the major determinant of diastolic blood pressure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Increased arteriolar tone raises resistance, slowing runoff and keeping diastolic pressure higher; vasodilation does the opposite. Cardiac output more strongly drives systolic pressure and pulse pressure, while baroreceptors mainly provide short-term reflex regulation rather than being the direct hemodynamic determinant. Renal function is crucial for long-term blood pressure control via volume and RAAS, but it is not the major immediate determinant of diastolic pressure compared with arteriolar resistance.

Question 32

Which of the following conditions is linked to more than 50% of clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Peripheral vascular disease is a clinical manifestation of atherosclerosis, so its presence strongly correlates with AAA and is reported in a majority of affected patients. Hypertension is a risk factor for aneurysm expansion and rupture, but it is not as specifically linked to AAA prevalence as generalized atherosclerotic disease. Syphilis is classically associated with thoracic (ascending) aortic aneurysms rather than abdominal aneurysms. Diabetes mellitus is not a typical dominant association for AAA compared with atherosclerotic PVD.

Question 33

Which of the following results is the primary treatment goal for angina?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Angina is chest discomfort caused by transient myocardial ischemia from an imbalance between oxygen supply and demand without irreversible myocyte necrosis. The primary therapeutic goal is to restore adequate myocardial oxygenation by improving coronary perfusion and/or decreasing cardiac workload (e.g., nitrates, beta-blockers, activity modification). Infarction implies permanent tissue death and cannot be “reversed,” making that option physiologically incorrect for angina. Stress reduction and risk-factor modification are important supportive and long-term strategies, but they are secondary to the immediate goal of relieving ischemia to prevent progression and alleviate symptoms.

Question 34

Which of the following is a compensatory response to decreased cardiac output?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A fall in cardiac output triggers baroreceptor-mediated sympathetic activation and neurohormonal responses (RAAS and ADH) to preserve perfusion pressure. Systemic vasoconstriction increases systemic vascular resistance, which tends to raise blood pressure despite reduced forward flow. RAAS/ADH promote sodium and water retention, expanding intravascular volume to support preload and stroke volume. In contrast, diuresis would worsen circulating volume and typically occurs only after perfusion improves or with diuretic therapy; altered LOC is a consequence of poor cerebral perfusion rather than a compensatory mechanism.

Question 35

Which of the following tests is used most often to diagnose angina?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It can show ST-segment depression and/or T-wave inversion consistent with ischemia, and it is rapid, noninvasive, and widely available in acute and outpatient settings. A chest x-ray is useful for alternative causes of chest pain (e.g., pneumonia, heart failure signs) but does not diagnose myocardial ischemia. Cardiac catheterization can define coronary anatomy but is invasive and not the most often used first-line test for diagnosing angina.

Question 36

Which of the following types of angina is most closely related with an impending MI?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because it can occur at rest, be new-onset severe, or show a crescendo pattern, it signals an unstable coronary lesion with high short-term risk of progressing to myocardial infarction. Chronic stable angina is typically predictable with exertion and represents fixed atherosclerotic narrowing, making it less immediately predictive of an impending infarction. Nocturnal angina and angina decubitus describe timing/position-related episodes and may suggest worse ischemia, but they are not as directly linked to imminent MI risk as the unstable pattern.

Question 37

Which of the following conditions is the predominant cause of angina?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Angina results from myocardial ischemia, which occurs when oxygen delivery to the heart muscle is insufficient for its metabolic demand. This supply–demand mismatch is the core mechanism and explains why angina can be triggered by exertion, stress, tachycardia, anemia, or hypoxemia. Coronary artery spasm can cause angina (e.g., variant/Prinzmetal), but it is a specific cause rather than the overarching predominant mechanism. Changes in preload or afterload can influence myocardial oxygen demand, yet they are not the primary defining cause compared with inadequate oxygen supply to the myocardium.

Question 38

The procedure that has to be performed in order to shift the high pressure from the right ventricle to the left ventricle in Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The definitive corrective operation is the arterial switch (Jatene), which restores ventriculo-arterial concordance so the left ventricle supports the systemic circulation and the right ventricle supports the pulmonary circulation. By switching the great arteries (with coronary transfer), systemic high pressure is reassigned to the left ventricle, preventing chronic right-ventricular failure. A common distractor is the Rashkind balloon atrial septostomy, which only increases mixing as a temporizing measure and does not reassign systemic pressure to the left ventricle. The Rastelli operation applies to certain complex TGA variants (often with VSD/PS) rather than the standard physiology described here.

Question 39

Which of the following conditions is associated with a predictable level of pain that occurs as a result of physical or emotional stress?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because the trigger is predictable (activity, stress, cold, heavy meals), the pain pattern is typically consistent in onset and relieved by rest and/or nitroglycerin. Unstable angina is new, worsening, or occurs at rest and is not predictable, indicating higher risk of acute coronary syndrome. Variant (Prinzmetal) angina is due to coronary vasospasm and classically occurs at rest, often nocturnally, rather than reliably with exertion or stress.

Question 40

Which of the following heart muscle diseases is unrelated to other cardiovascular diseases?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cardiomyopathy is a primary disease of the myocardium, and myocardial infarction is myocardial necrosis resulting from ischemia, while coronary artery disease is the major underlying vascular pathology that precipitates many infarctions. Pericardial effusion involves abnormal fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac (the lining around the heart), not a primary heart muscle disease. Therefore it is the option least related to “heart muscle” pathology compared with the others.

Question 41

Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dyspnea, cough, and expectoration are consistent with fluid backing up into the lungs, causing increased work of breathing and sometimes frothy sputum. Weakness results from reduced cardiac output and poor tissue perfusion, while peripheral edema occurs from venous congestion and renal sodium/water retention. In contrast, MI typically presents with acute chest pain and diaphoresis rather than prominent edema and chronic cough, and uncomplicated hypertension is often asymptomatic.

Question 42

The blood vessel carrying oxygenated blood from lungs to heart is–?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The pulmonary artery is a key exception to the “arteries carry oxygenated blood” rule because it carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs. The aorta carries oxygenated blood away from the heart to systemic circulation, not from lungs to heart. The vena cava returns deoxygenated blood from the body to the right atrium.

Question 43

The blood vessel carrying deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs is __?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes the pulmonary artery the key vessel transporting deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs. Pulmonary veins are the exception that carry oxygenated blood back to the left atrium. The aorta carries oxygenated blood to systemic tissues, while the vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium rather than to the lungs directly.

Question 44

Arrhythmia means —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is an umbrella term that includes rhythms that are too fast (tachyarrhythmias), too slow (bradyarrhythmias), or irregular in timing. Therefore the best definition among the choices is an irregular heart rhythm rather than specifically fast or slow, which represent only subsets. “Normal rhythm” is the opposite of the term and is a common distractor.

Question 45

Heartbeat is controlled by –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This electrical impulse initiates atrial contraction and then propagates through the conduction system to coordinate ventricular contraction. Endocrine organs like the thyroid can modulate rate via sympathetic sensitivity, but they do not directly generate the rhythmic pacing signal. Other organs listed (kidney, liver) have no primary role in initiating cardiac rhythm.

Question 46

The amount of blood ejected by each ventricular contraction is celled the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: (Stroke volume is defined as the volume of blood ejected by one ventricle with each heartbeat. It is calculated as end-diastolic volume minus end-systolic volume, reflecting ventricular filling (preload), contractility, and afterload. Cardiac output is a per-minute measure (stroke volume × heart rate), so it does not describe a single contraction. The other options are respiratory volumes, not cardiovascular ejection measures.

Question 47

Hypertension means high —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The term itself combines “hyper-” (high) with “tension,” historically referring to vascular pressure, so it directly maps to increased blood pressure. “Sugar” corresponds to hyperglycemia/diabetes, not hypertension, and “pulse” refers to heart rate rather than arterial pressure. “Calcium” is not what is being measured or defined by hypertension, even though calcium can influence vascular tone physiologically.

Question 48

Myocarditis means inflammation of —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therefore the condition specifically indicates inflammation of the myocardium, the muscular layer responsible for cardiac contraction. Inflammation here can impair contractility and trigger arrhythmias, which is why the term is anatomically precise. By contrast, kidney, lungs, and liver inflammation would be termed nephritis, pneumonitis, and hepatitis, respectively.

Question 49

Slow heart rate is –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tachycardia is the opposite—an abnormally fast rate—so it does not match the stem. Arrhythmia refers to an abnormal rhythm that may be fast, slow, or irregular, but it is not the specific term for a slow rate. Asystole indicates absence of cardiac electrical activity (flatline), not merely a slow rate.

Question 50

Cardiogenic shock is precipitated by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute myocardial infarction is the classic precipitant because ischemic necrosis reduces left ventricular contractility, lowering stroke volume and blood pressure while increasing pulmonary congestion. Spinal cord injury more commonly causes neurogenic shock from loss of sympathetic tone, bacteremia is associated with septic shock, and severe allergy triggers anaphylactic (distributive) shock. Thus the option reflecting acute loss of myocardial function best matches cardiogenic shock.

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Which type of angina occurs with exercise or at rest and increases in duration, frequency, or severity over time?

Which of the following Artery supply the Brain with Blood?

Which procedure is NOT part of the treatment for hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of stage 1 hypertension. Which of the following blood pressure results should the nurse anticipate assessing?

A nurse is caring for a patient with sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is NOT a typical cause of sinus tachycardia?

Which of the following conditions leads to an increase in pulmonary blood flow?

A patient tells the nurse that he has a pacemaker that fires “all the time.” The nurse identifies this as which type of pacemaker?

Which of the following is not a finding typically associated with left sided heart failure?

Which cardiac enzyme may be elevated in response to cardiac ischemia?

The nurse has just received shift change report about a patient who is stable after a heart transplant. The nurse is reading over the patient's chart and expects to find a history of which type of cardiomyopathy?

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs?

A 62-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, leg swelling, and difficulty lying flat at night. Lung exam reveals crackles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

The nurse is auscultating at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. Which heart valve is the nurse assessing?

The nurse explains a patient’s diagnosis as “buildup of plaque on arterial walls.” Which condition is the nurse describing?

Which of the following conditions leads to a decrease in pulmonary blood flow?

Which of the following is not a finding associated with venous insufficiency?

Which portion of the cardiac anatomy can be best auscultated at the left sternal border of the fourth intercostal space?

Hypertension increases risk of?

Which of the following types of pain is most characteristic of angina?

Septal involvement occurs in which type of cardiomyopathy?

Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does not affect cardiac output?

In which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does cardiac output remain normal?

Which of the following recurring conditions most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy?

Which type of angina occurs with exercise or at rest and increases in duration, frequency, or severity over time?

While assessing heart sounds, the nurse knows S1 and S2 will be heard equally at which location?

A nurse measures a patient’s pulse rate and discovers that it is higher than normal. The nurse should document this finding as?

Which of the following is most likely associated with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from congenital heart disease?

Myra is ordered laboratory tests after she is admitted to the hospital for angina. The isoenzyme test that is the most reliable early indicator of myocardial insult is?

What is the term used to describe an enlargement of the heart muscle?

Which investigation detects LV hypertrophy?

Which of the following parameters is the major determinant of diastolic blood pressure?

Which of the following conditions is linked to more than 50% of clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms?

Which of the following results is the primary treatment goal for angina?

Which of the following is a compensatory response to decreased cardiac output?

Which of the following tests is used most often to diagnose angina?

Which of the following types of angina is most closely related with an impending MI?

Which of the following conditions is the predominant cause of angina?

The procedure that has to be performed in order to shift the high pressure from the right ventricle to the left ventricle in Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) is?

Which of the following conditions is associated with a predictable level of pain that occurs as a result of physical or emotional stress?

Which of the following heart muscle diseases is unrelated to other cardiovascular diseases?

Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions?

The blood vessel carrying oxygenated blood from lungs to heart is–?

The blood vessel carrying deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs is __?

Arrhythmia means —?

Heartbeat is controlled by –?

The amount of blood ejected by each ventricular contraction is celled the?

Hypertension means high —?

Myocarditis means inflammation of —?

Slow heart rate is –?

Cardiogenic shock is precipitated by?

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