Question 1

Whitish vaginal discharge is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Whitish vaginal discharge is termed leucorrhoea, referring to a white or yellowish vaginal discharge that may be physiologic (e.g., due to hormonal changes) or pathologic (e.g., infection). Leukoplakia refers to white mucosal patches (commonly oral or genital lesions), not discharge. Menorrhoea is excessive menstrual bleeding, and myalgia is muscle pain, making them incorrect for this symptom description.

Question 2

Excessive vomiting in early pregnancy is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Excessive, persistent vomiting in early pregnancy is termed hyperemesis gravidarum; among the options, this corresponds to "Hyperemesis." Morning sickness is common and typically mild, whereas hyperemesis involves severe vomiting that can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and weight loss. "Hypervomitus" is not the standard clinical term, and excessive vomiting is not normal in most pregnancies.

Question 3

What is lochia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lochia is the normal postpartum uterine/vaginal discharge composed of blood, mucus, and decidual tissue as the uterus involutes after delivery. It progresses through stages (rubra to serosa to alba) over days to weeks. This distinguishes it from fetal membranes, placental tissue, or amniotic fluid, which are separate obstetric structures/fluids rather than the characteristic postpartum discharge.

Question 4

Which is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The fallopian tube is the most common site of ectopic pregnancy, with the majority implanting in the tubal ampulla. This occurs because fertilization normally happens in the tube and impaired tubal transport (e.g., from prior infection or scarring) can delay passage to the uterine cavity. Ovarian, cervical, and abdominal ectopic implantations are much less common than tubal pregnancy. Therefore, the best answer is the fallopian tube.

Question 5

Inflammation of the fallopian tube is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Inflammation of the fallopian tube is termed salpingitis (salpinx = tube, -itis = inflammation). Orchitis refers to inflammation of the testes, a male reproductive organ. Oophoritis refers to inflammation of the ovary, not the fallopian tube. Therefore, salpingitis is the correct term.

Question 6

Which infection is linked with cervical cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Persistent infection with high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV), especially types 16 and 18, is the primary etiologic factor for cervical cancer. HPV oncoproteins (E6 and E7) inactivate tumor suppressor pathways (p53 and Rb), promoting dysplasia and malignant transformation. HSV, EBV, and CMV can cause other diseases but are not the established causal infection for cervical cancer.

Question 7

The most common congenital malformation in infants of diabetic mothers is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maternal diabetes (especially pregestational and poorly controlled in early organogenesis) increases the risk of congenital malformations. The most frequent major anomalies are cardiovascular defects (e.g., VSD, transposition of the great arteries), making “cardiac anomaly” the best answer. Neural tube and renal/GI anomalies can occur but are less common overall than cardiac defects in infants of diabetic mothers.

Question 8

Syncytiotrophoblast secretes which hormone first?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The syncytiotrophoblast begins secreting human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) very early after implantation. hCG rescues and maintains the corpus luteum so it continues progesterone production to support the endometrium until the placenta can take over steroidogenesis. Progesterone and estrogens are produced later in increasing amounts by the placenta, whereas oxytocin is primarily produced by the hypothalamus/posterior pituitary rather than the trophoblast.

Question 9

Fertilization occurs in ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In humans, fertilization most commonly occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube, where the ovulated oocyte meets sperm. The uterus is primarily the site of implantation and fetal development after the zygote travels from the tube. The vagina is a site of sperm deposition, not fertilization, and “pelvis” is a regional term rather than a specific fertilization site.

Question 10

The most common cause of antepartum hemorrhage is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antepartum hemorrhage (bleeding after 20 weeks and before delivery) is most commonly due to placenta previa, where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment and can bleed as the cervix begins to efface/dilate. Placenta previa classically causes painless, bright-red bleeding. Abruptio placentae is also a major cause but is less common overall and typically presents with painful bleeding and uterine tenderness. Ruptured uterus and trauma are important but comparatively rarer causes of antepartum hemorrhage.

Question 11

Early Pregnancy is maintained by-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early pregnancy is maintained primarily by progesterone secretion from the corpus luteum, which supports the endometrium and prevents uterine contractions. hCG from the developing trophoblast rescues the corpus luteum and sustains its hormone production. The placenta takes over most progesterone production later (around 10–12 weeks), so it is not the main maintainer in the earliest weeks.

Question 12

False pregnancy is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: False pregnancy refers to a condition in which a person believes they are pregnant and may develop signs and symptoms of pregnancy despite not being pregnant; this is termed pseudocyesis. The other options (striae gravidarum and linea nigra) are normal skin changes associated with true pregnancy, and striae albicans are pale/old stretch marks that can persist after pregnancy. Therefore, pseudocyesis is the correct term for false pregnancy.

Question 13

The fluid around fetus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The fetus is surrounded by amniotic fluid within the amniotic sac. This fluid cushions the fetus from trauma, allows fetal movement for musculoskeletal development, and helps maintain a stable temperature. It also supports lung development via fetal breathing movements. Semen, blood, and lymph are not the normal fluid surrounding the fetus in utero.

Question 14

High blood pressure in pregnancy is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypertensive disease specific to pregnancy is termed preeclampsia, classically new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks’ gestation with signs of end-organ involvement (often including proteinuria). Eclampsia is preeclampsia complicated by seizures, so it is not the general term for high blood pressure in pregnancy. “Hypertension” is generic and does not specify the pregnancy-related syndrome. Hypotension is low blood pressure.

Question 15

Normal weight of uterus ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In a nonpregnant adult woman, the uterus typically weighs about 60 g (commonly cited range ~50–70 g). This represents the normal size/weight of the reproductive organ outside pregnancy and the immediate postpartum period. The other values are either lower than typical adult uterine weight (20–40 g) or higher than usual for the nonpregnant state (80 g).

Question 16

Which part of the female reproductive system is responsible for producing milk?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Milk is produced by the mammary glands (breasts), specifically within the alveoli where secretory epithelial cells synthesize milk. Prolactin stimulates milk production, and oxytocin triggers milk ejection (let-down). The cervix, uterus, and fallopian tubes have reproductive/gestational roles but do not produce milk.

Question 17

Which of the following is the correct cut-off for very low birth weight (VLBW)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard neonatal weight classifications define low birth weight (LBW) as

Question 18

Tanner stage 2 in girls?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tanner stage 2 (thelarche) in girls is characterized by breast budding (breast bud formation) with enlargement of the areola. Pubic hair at this stage is typically sparse and lightly pigmented rather than adult in distribution. Menarche usually occurs later (around Tanner stage 3–4). Fully developed breasts correspond to Tanner stage 5.

Question 19

When the placenta covers whole the fetus, this abnormality of placenta is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Placenta membranacea is an abnormal placental morphology in which placental tissue is thinly spread over much or all of the chorionic membrane, effectively covering a very large area around the fetus. This contrasts with placenta marginata/circumvallata, which are variations of extrachorial placentation involving a raised or rolled placental edge rather than diffuse coverage. Placenta accreta refers to abnormally deep adherence/invasion into the uterine wall, not extensive membranous spread.

Question 20

The ovarian cortex contains?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ovarian cortex is the outer region of the ovary that contains ovarian follicles in various stages of development and post-ovulatory structures such as the corpus luteum and its fibrous scar, the corpus albicans. Although larger vessels are more prominent in the medulla, the cortex still contains vascular supply (especially around follicles and corpora). Therefore all listed components can be found in the ovarian cortex.

Question 21

Life of sperm for fertilization in vagina is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the acidic vaginal environment, sperm survival is relatively short; most sperm die within hours, and viable fertilizing capacity is generally limited to about 24 hours without the protective effects of cervical mucus. In contrast, within the cervix/uterus (especially around ovulation), sperm may survive longer (up to 3–5 days). Since the question specifies “in vagina,” the best answer is 24 hours.

Question 22

The mechanism of labour is the process of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The mechanisms of labor refer to the cardinal movements the fetus undergoes to navigate the maternal pelvis and birth canal (e.g., engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, restitution/external rotation, and expulsion). This is specifically about how the fetal presenting part adapts and moves during passage through the pelvis. It is distinct from the stages of labor (time-based phases), delivery of the placenta (third stage event), and pain management (a nursing/medical intervention). Therefore, the best answer is movements of the fetus during passage.

Question 23

Vasectomy is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A vasectomy is a male sterilization procedure in which the vas deferens are cut and/or sealed to prevent sperm from entering the ejaculate. This interrupts sperm transport from the testes to the urethra while generally preserving testosterone production and sexual function. Cutting the fallopian tubes refers to female sterilization (tubal ligation), not vasectomy.

Question 24

The most common cause of infertility in females is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Overall, tubal factor infertility (most commonly due to tubal blockage/adhesions from pelvic inflammatory disease or post-surgical scarring) is classically cited as the most common cause of female infertility. When the fallopian tubes are blocked, sperm cannot reach the ovum and the fertilized egg cannot travel to the uterus, preventing conception. PCOS is a very common cause of anovulatory infertility, but as a broad category, tubal pathology is more frequently listed as the most common female factor.

Question 25

Ovulation typically occurs around which day?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In a typical 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs about 14 days before the next menstrual period, which corresponds to around day 14. This timing reflects the mid-cycle LH surge that triggers release of the mature oocyte. While real cycles vary in length, the classic teaching for a regular 28-day cycle is ovulation around day 14, making this the best answer among the options.

Question 26

What is a Normal Vaginal pH?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Normal vaginal pH in reproductive-age individuals is typically acidic (about 3.8–4.5) due to lactobacilli converting glycogen to lactic acid. This acidic environment inhibits overgrowth of pathogenic organisms and helps prevent infections. When vaginal pH becomes more alkaline (e.g., >4.5), it can suggest conditions like bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis (context-dependent). Therefore, among the choices, “Acidic” is the best answer.

Question 27

Which is the main function of placenta?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The placenta functions as the fetal lungs, allowing diffusion of oxygen from maternal blood to fetal blood and carbon dioxide from the fetus back to the mother. While the placenta also has endocrine and nutrient/waste transfer roles, among the listed options the key physiologic function is gas exchange. Digestion, nerve conduction, and reflex action are not placental functions.

Question 28

What is the function of the endometrium?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus that thickens each menstrual cycle to prepare for implantation of a fertilized ovum. If implantation occurs, it forms the maternal component of the placenta (decidua) and provides nourishment and support to the developing embryo/fetus. It is not primarily responsible for ovum transport (fallopian tubes) or sperm passage (cervix/uterus/vagina), and major reproductive hormone production is mainly by the ovaries and later the placenta.

Question 29

One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal syndrome is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Stein-Leventhal syndrome is the historical name for polycystic ovary syndrome/disease (PCOS), a common cause of anovulation and infertility. PCOS is characterized by chronic anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology, leading to irregular menses and difficulty conceiving. PID can cause infertility via tubal scarring, but it is not Stein-Leventhal syndrome. Multiple sex partners is a risk factor for STIs/PID, and ectopic pregnancy is a complication of tubal disease rather than the syndrome described.

Question 30

When the mother and fetus blood (rh incompatible) having fetus ______ and suffers with -?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother becomes sensitized to Rh-positive fetal red blood cells and produces anti-D IgG antibodies. These antibodies cross the placenta and cause immune-mediated hemolysis of fetal RBCs, leading to hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis). The hemolysis can result in fetal anemia, hyperbilirubinemia after birth, and severe cases may progress to hydrops fetalis.

Question 31

On the third postpartum day, the nurse would expect the lochia to be?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lochia rubra is the normal postpartum uterine discharge during approximately the first 3–4 days after delivery and is primarily bloody due to sloughing of decidual tissue and residual blood. Lochia serosa typically follows from about days 4–10 and becomes pinkish-brown as bleeding decreases. Lochia alba occurs later (around 10 days up to several weeks) and is whitish/yellow. “Scant” describes amount, not the expected type on day 3, and normal flow varies by individual.

Question 32

Which stage of labor lasts from delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The third stage of labor begins after delivery of the fetus and ends with delivery of the placenta. The second stage ends with birth of the baby, while the fourth stage refers to the immediate postpartum recovery period after placental delivery. Therefore, the interval from baby delivery to placental delivery is the third stage.

Question 33

A 22-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant presents with sudden left lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At 8 weeks’ gestation, the combination of acute unilateral lower abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding is most classically concerning for an ectopic pregnancy (often tubal). Miscarriage commonly causes cramping and bleeding but is less characteristically unilateral. Placental abruption is typically a second/third trimester complication, making it unlikely at 8 weeks. Ovarian cyst rupture can cause sudden unilateral pain, but it does not best explain first-trimester vaginal bleeding in a pregnant patient compared with ectopic pregnancy.

Question 34

Collection of blood in between the pericranium flat bone of skul?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A cephalohematoma is a subperiosteal hemorrhage, meaning blood collects between the skull bone and the periosteum (pericranium). It is typically limited by suture lines because the periosteum adheres at sutures. Caput succedaneum is edema above the periosteum and crosses sutures, while hydrocephalus is CSF accumulation in ventricles and is unrelated to scalp blood collection.

Question 35

Normal APGAR Score is-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Apgar score assesses a newborn’s transition at 1 and 5 minutes after birth based on Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration, each scored 0–2 for a total of 0–10. A score of 7–10 is considered normal and indicates the infant is generally adapting well without need for significant resuscitation. Scores 4–6 suggest moderate difficulty and need for supportive interventions, while 0–3 indicates severe distress requiring immediate resuscitation. Therefore, the normal range is 7–10.

Question 36

The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the result of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Green-stained (greenish) amniotic fluid most commonly indicates the presence of meconium, the fetus’s first stool, passed in utero. Meconium can be released with fetal maturity or fetal stress/hypoxia, and it can lead to meconium aspiration if inhaled at birth. Lanugo and vernix are fetal skin coverings that do not turn the fluid green, and hydramnios refers to increased amniotic fluid volume rather than discoloration.

Question 37

A client has a midpelvic contracture from a previous pelvic injury due to a motor vehicle accident at a teenager. The nurse is aware that this could prevent a fetus from passing the cord around which structure during childbirth?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A midpelvic (midplane) contracture refers to narrowing at the level of the ischial spines, the narrowest transverse diameter of the pelvis. During labor, fetal descent and internal rotation occur through this midpelvis; prominent ischial spines can obstruct engagement and descent. In contrast, the sacral promontory relates more to pelvic inlet (anteroposterior) narrowing, and the pubic arch relates to outlet shape. Therefore, obstruction is most associated with the ischial spines.

Question 38

When teaching a group of adolescents about variations in the length of the menstrual cycle, the nurse understands that the underlying mechanism is due to variations in which of the following phases?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Most variation in menstrual cycle length is explained by variability in the follicular phase, which corresponds to the proliferative (pre-ovulatory) phase of the endometrium. The luteal (secretory) phase is relatively constant at about 14 days, so it contributes less to cycle-length differences. Menstrual and ischemic phases are short and fairly consistent in timing compared with the variable time to ovulation. Therefore, the proliferative phase is the phase most responsible for cycle length variation.

Question 39

Which system differs a man from women?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The primary anatomical/physiologic system that distinguishes males from females is the reproductive system, including differences in gonads (testes vs ovaries), internal ducts, external genitalia, and reproductive hormones. While other systems can show average sex-related variations (e.g., lung volumes, cardiovascular risk patterns), their basic structures and functions are shared and do not define sex. Therefore, the reproductive system is the best answer.

Question 40

What is the most common cause of back pain during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Back pain in pregnancy is most commonly due to musculoskeletal strain from postural changes (increased lumbar lordosis), weight gain, and stretching/laxity of pelvic ligaments. Hormonal effects (e.g., relaxin) increase joint and ligament laxity, further contributing to discomfort. Kidney infection, UTI, or preterm labor can cause back pain but are less common and typically present with additional warning signs (fever, urinary symptoms, contractions).

Question 41

After reaching the female genital tract, human sperms retain their fertilizing capacity for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the female reproductive tract, sperm can remain viable and capable of fertilization for roughly 24–48 hours (and sometimes longer under optimal cervical mucus conditions). Capacitation occurs in the female tract and enables the sperm to undergo the acrosome reaction and penetrate the ovum. The much shorter time options (minutes to 90 minutes) are inconsistent with established human fertility physiology. Therefore, the best answer is one to two days.

Question 42

First milk produced by a mother is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first milk produced after delivery is colostrum, a thick yellowish secretion produced during late pregnancy and the first few days postpartum. It is rich in immunoglobulins (especially IgA), leukocytes, and growth factors that protect the newborn and help mature the gut. It is produced in small volumes appropriate for the newborn’s early stomach capacity. The other options are not standard physiological terms for human lactation.

Question 43

Which of the following best describes the crowning?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Crowning is when the fetal presenting part (typically the head) remains visible at the vulvar introitus without receding between contractions. This indicates imminent birth as the widest part of the head is distending the perineum. The other options describe different mechanisms of labor such as engagement (at the ischial spines = 0 station) or internal rotation at the pelvic floor, not crowning.

Question 44

Zygote develops in-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After fertilization in the fallopian tube, the zygote undergoes cleavage as it travels to the uterus. It reaches the uterus as a blastocyst and then implants in the endometrium, where further development proceeds. The ovum is the unfertilized egg, and the cervix is not the normal site of embryonic development.

Question 45

What condition causes anovulatory infertility?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) commonly causes chronic anovulation due to dysregulation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis with increased LH activity and hyperandrogenism. Follicular development is arrested, so ovulation does not occur regularly, leading to infertility. Anemia, gastritis, and migraine do not typically cause anovulation as a primary mechanism of infertility. Therefore, PCOS is the best answer.

Question 46

The blood from the pregnant of mother reaches fetus through What?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maternal blood does not directly enter fetal circulation; exchange occurs across the placenta, and oxygenated blood is then carried from the placenta to the fetus via the umbilical vein. The umbilical cord contains one umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries, but the specific vessel bringing oxygenated blood to the fetus is the umbilical vein. “Umbilical atrium” is not an anatomical structure. Therefore, the best answer is umbilical veins.

Question 47

what is removed in a hysterectomy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A hysterectomy is a surgical procedure that removes the uterus. Depending on the type, the cervix may also be removed (total hysterectomy), but removal of the ovaries is a different procedure (oophorectomy) that may or may not be done at the same time. The spleen and liver are unrelated organs and are not removed in a hysterectomy. Therefore, the best answer is removal of the uterus.

Question 48

The middle portion of the human sperm contains?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The sperm midpiece is packed with mitochondria arranged around the axoneme to generate ATP needed for flagellar movement and motility. The nucleus is located in the head of the sperm, not the middle portion. While centrioles are associated with the neck/connecting piece, the defining organelle of the midpiece is the mitochondrial sheath. Therefore, mitochondria is the best answer.

Question 49

What is the ideal time for performing an episiotomy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An episiotomy is ideally performed in the late second stage of labor when the fetal head is crowning and the perineum is thinned and stretched. Doing it at this time minimizes bleeding and ensures the incision is appropriately sized and directed to facilitate delivery. Performing it earlier (first stage or early second stage) causes unnecessary tissue trauma and blood loss because the perineum is not maximally distended.

Question 50

Phimosis is a condition in which?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Phimosis refers to a tight prepuce (foreskin) that cannot be retracted behind the glans penis. This can be physiologic in young boys or pathologic due to scarring/inflammation and may lead to hygiene difficulties or urinary symptoms. The other options describe different congenital anomalies: undescended testes (cryptorchidism), underside urethral meatus (hypospadias), and exposed bladder (bladder exstrophy).

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