Question 1

Inflammation of spinal cord is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Myelitis literally means inflammation (-itis) of the spinal cord (myel-). Neuritis refers to inflammation of a peripheral nerve, not the spinal cord. Gastritis and hepatitis are inflammation of the stomach and liver, respectively, and are unrelated to the spinal cord.
Category reason: This is a medical terminology/neurologic anatomy question testing the definition of a neurologic inflammatory condition rather than a nursing intervention or clinical prioritization, so it falls under Neurology within NursingScience.

Question 2

Nurse Sam is admitting Jason, a patient with suspected meningitis, and the doctor is assessing for meningeal irritation and spinal nerve root inflammation. Nurse Sam observes and documents a positive Kernig's sign. What specific finding should Nurse Sam note?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A positive Kernig sign indicates meningeal irritation, classically seen with meningitis. It is elicited by flexing the patient’s hip and knee (often to 90 degrees) and then attempting to extend the knee; pain or resistance is considered positive. This reflects stretching of inflamed meninges and nerve roots. Neck stiffness with neck flexion describes nuchal rigidity/Brudzinski-related findings rather than Kernig’s sign.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of a neurologic physical exam sign (Kernig’s) and its meaning in meningitis, which is foundational clinical neuroanatomy/neurology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 3

Polio affects mainly:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Poliovirus has tropism for the nervous system, especially the anterior horn cells (lower motor neurons) in the spinal cord and brainstem. Destruction of these motor neurons leads to acute flaccid paralysis and muscle weakness/atrophy as a downstream effect. Muscles are affected secondarily due to denervation rather than being the primary target tissue. Heart and bones are not the main sites of poliovirus injury.
Category reason: The item tests foundational knowledge of polio pathophysiology and which body system is primarily affected, which fits Neurology under NursingScience rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 4

What causes permanent Memory Loss?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that causes irreversible neuronal loss, leading to persistent and worsening impairment in memory and other cognitive domains. In contrast, dehydration, stress, and poor sleep commonly cause transient cognitive impairment (e.g., inattention, slowed processing, short-term memory difficulties) that typically improves when the underlying issue is corrected. Therefore, among the listed options, Alzheimer’s is the best cause of permanent memory loss.
Category reason: The question tests a foundational concept about causes of lasting cognitive decline due to neurodegeneration, which falls under Neurology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 5

Encephalitis is inflammation of the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Encephalitis literally means inflammation of the brain (encephalo- = brain, -itis = inflammation). Clinically, it often results from viral infection and can cause fever, headache, altered mental status, seizures, and neurologic deficits due to inflamed brain parenchyma. This distinguishes it from meningitis, which is inflammation of the meninges rather than brain tissue itself.
Category reason: This is a foundational definition of a neurologic disease term (what structure is inflamed), which is primarily biomedical knowledge within Neurology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a component of the central nervous system (CNS)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. The thalamus is a structure within the brain, so it is part of the CNS. Peripheral nerves belong to the peripheral nervous system (PNS), which connects the CNS to the rest of the body.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of nervous system anatomy (what structures belong to the CNS vs PNS), which fits Neurology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 7

Olfactory nerve is related to-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The olfactory nerve (cranial nerve I) carries special sensory afferent fibers responsible for the sense of smell. It transmits odor information from the olfactory epithelium located in the nasal cavity to the olfactory bulb and brain. Therefore, it is functionally related to the nose rather than vision, hearing, or cutaneous sensation.
Category reason: This question tests basic knowledge of cranial nerve function (CN I and olfaction), which is a foundational neuroanatomy/neuroscience concept rather than a nursing intervention or clinical judgment scenario.

Question 8

Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cranial nerve I (the olfactory nerve) carries sensory input for the sense of smell from the olfactory epithelium to the brain. The optic nerve (CN II) mediates vision, the facial nerve (CN VII) primarily controls facial movement and carries taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and the vagus nerve (CN X) provides parasympathetic and sensory/motor functions to thoracic and abdominal organs. Therefore, the olfactory nerve is the correct choice for smell.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about cranial nerve function and sensory neuroanatomy, which is best categorized under Neurology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 9

A 22 year old client suffered from his first tonic-clonic seizure. Upon awakening the client asks the nurse, “What caused me to have a seizure? Which of the following would the nurse include in the primary cause of tonic clonic seizures in adults more the 20 years?”?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In adults older than about age 20, the most common underlying cause of recurrent generalized tonic-clonic seizures is epilepsy (a seizure disorder due to abnormal cortical neuronal activity). Electrolyte imbalance can precipitate acute symptomatic seizures but is not typically the primary long-term cause in this age group. Head trauma is a possible cause of new-onset seizures but is less commonly the primary overall cause compared with epilepsy. Congenital defects more commonly account for seizures presenting in childhood rather than new onset in early adulthood.
Category reason: The question asks for the primary etiology of tonic-clonic seizures in adults >20 years, which is foundational disease-causation knowledge within the nervous system rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 10

Kernicterus affect ............... body organ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Kernicterus is bilirubin-induced neurologic dysfunction caused by deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the basal ganglia and other brain nuclei in neonates. This results from severe hyperbilirubinemia when bilirubin crosses the immature blood-brain barrier. Therefore, the primary organ affected is the brain, leading to complications such as lethargy, hypotonia, seizures, and long-term hearing loss or cerebral palsy.
Category reason: The question tests foundational knowledge of the pathophysiology of kernicterus and which organ system is primarily damaged, which is best classified under Neurology rather than nursing interventions.

Question 11

Paralysis is caused due to damage in which system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paralysis is loss of voluntary motor function due to interruption of motor pathways, most commonly from injury or disease affecting the brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or neuromuscular junction. These structures belong to the nervous system, which controls movement through upper and lower motor neuron signaling. Damage to digestive, excretory, or circulatory systems may cause weakness indirectly (e.g., electrolyte imbalance or poor perfusion) but does not directly produce paralysis as a primary mechanism.
Category reason: The question tests foundational knowledge of which body system controls motor function and how paralysis results from damage to neural pathways, which is primarily a Neurology topic rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 12

The study of brain is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neurology is the medical specialty and field of study focused on the nervous system, including the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Nephrology concerns the kidneys, cytology studies cells, and histology studies tissues. Therefore, the term that best matches the study of the brain among the options is Neurology.
Category reason: This question tests basic knowledge of medical specialties/fields related to the nervous system, which falls under Neurology as a nursing science subject rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 13

Inflammation of brain is called ??

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Inflammation of the brain (encephalon) is termed encephalitis ("encephalo-" = brain, "-itis" = inflammation). Arthritis refers to inflammation of joints, and myositis refers to inflammation of muscle. "Colatise" is not a standard medical term for brain inflammation.
Category reason: This is a terminology/pathology identification question about a neurologic condition (inflammation of brain), which is foundational biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 14

Loss of memory is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loss of memory is termed amnesia, which can involve impaired ability to form new memories (anterograde) or recall past memories (retrograde). Aphasia refers to language impairment, not memory loss. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction, and ataxia is loss of coordination and gait instability. Therefore, the correct term for memory loss is amnesia.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a neurologic/mental status term (amnesia) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, so it fits NursingScience under Neurology.

Question 15

Which condition is associated with a “sunset sign” in infants?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The “sunset sign” (downward deviation of the eyes with sclera visible above the iris) is a classic finding in infants with increased intracranial pressure, most commonly due to hydrocephalus. It results from pressure effects on periventricular structures and impaired upward gaze. Meningitis can cause signs of raised intracranial pressure but the sunset eyes sign is most characteristically associated with hydrocephalus. Pneumonia and tetralogy of Fallot do not produce this ocular sign.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a characteristic neurologic clinical sign and its underlying condition (hydrocephalus/increased intracranial pressure), which is primarily foundational disease/neurology knowledge rather than a nursing management decision.

Question 16

Brudzinski’s sign is used to assess ____.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Brudzinski’s sign is a classic meningeal irritation sign assessed by passive neck flexion producing involuntary hip and knee flexion. This response occurs due to inflammation of the meninges, most commonly seen with meningitis. The other options describe abdominal or cardiac conditions that are not evaluated with meningeal signs.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a neurological physical exam sign (meningeal irritation) and its associated condition, which is foundational biomedical knowledge in Neurology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 17

Your patient has just been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. Which of the following is a true statement about Bell's palsy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bell's palsy is an acute, typically unilateral, lower motor neuron facial nerve (CN VII) palsy; bilateral involvement is uncommon, so it is rarely bilateral. Complete recovery is more common than 40% (most patients recover fully, especially with early corticosteroids). Dizziness is not a typical hallmark feature. The condition involves inflammation/edema of the facial nerve, not the trigeminal nerve (CN V).
Category reason: The question tests factual knowledge about the pathophysiology and clinical characteristics of Bell’s palsy (cranial nerve involvement and typical presentation), which is foundational neurology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 18

Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vision (special sensory afferent input from the retina) is carried to the brain via the optic nerve (cranial nerve II). Cranial nerves III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens) primarily control extraocular muscle movements and eye positioning, not visual sensation. Therefore, the cranial nerve responsible for vision is CN II.
Category reason: The item tests foundational knowledge of cranial nerve function (sensory vs motor roles) rather than nursing interventions or patient-care decision-making, placing it under Neurology in NursingScience.

Question 19

Nerve cells help in:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neurons (nerve cells) are specialized for receiving, processing, and transmitting information via electrical impulses and chemical neurotransmitters. Their primary function is communication between the brain/spinal cord and the rest of the body. While nerves influence breathing and digestion through autonomic control, those are downstream physiological functions rather than the defining role of nerve cells. Making food is a function of plants (photosynthesis), not nerve tissue.
Category reason: This question tests the basic function of neurons within the nervous system, which is a foundational concept in Neurology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 20

What organ in the body helps us to think?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thinking, consciousness, memory, and decision-making are functions of the central nervous system, primarily the brain. The cerebral cortex integrates sensory information and supports higher cognitive processes. The heart, kidneys, and lungs have vital circulatory, excretory, and respiratory roles but do not generate cognition.
Category reason: The question tests basic knowledge of which organ is responsible for cognition and higher mental functions, which is core content in Neurology.

Question 21

If an artery is blocked in the brain by thrombus then it causes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A thrombus occluding a cerebral artery reduces or stops blood flow to brain tissue, causing ischemia and infarction, which is an ischemic stroke. This mechanism directly explains sudden focal neurologic deficits. Alzheimer’s disease is a chronic neurodegenerative process, multiple sclerosis is demyelinating autoimmune disease, and migraine is a neurovascular headache disorder rather than thrombotic arterial occlusion.
Category reason: The question tests foundational understanding of what condition results from thrombotic occlusion of a brain artery, which is a neurologic pathophysiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 22

Which nerve controls eye movement and pupil size?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The oculomotor nerve (CN III) innervates most extraocular muscles (superior, inferior, and medial rectus; inferior oblique) to control most eye movements. It also carries parasympathetic fibers to the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscle, producing pupillary constriction and accommodation. In contrast, the optic nerve (CN II) is sensory for vision, the trochlear nerve (CN IV) controls the superior oblique, and the abducens nerve (CN VI) controls the lateral rectus only.
Category reason: This question tests cranial nerve functions (eye movement and parasympathetic control of pupil size), which is foundational neuroanatomy/neurophysiology rather than a nursing intervention scenario, so it fits Neurology.

Question 23

Which portion of the pediatric Glasgow coma scale is divided into 3 age groups?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale, the verbal response component is age-adjusted because normal speech and interaction vary significantly by developmental stage. It is divided into age groups (commonly infant, young child/toddler, and older child) with different descriptors such as coos/babbles, words/phrases, or oriented conversation. Eye opening and motor response scoring are generally not divided into multiple pediatric age-group versions in the same way. Therefore, the correct choice is the best verbal response portion.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of neurologic assessment scoring criteria (pediatric GCS components and how they differ by age), which is foundational neuroscience rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 24

Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for vision?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vision is primarily processed in the occipital lobe, which contains the primary visual cortex (V1) and adjacent visual association areas. Visual information from the retina travels via the optic tract to the lateral geniculate nucleus and then to the occipital cortex for perception. Lesions in the occipital lobe commonly cause visual field deficits such as homonymous hemianopia. The temporal, frontal, and parietal lobes have other dominant functions (auditory/memory, executive/motor, and somatosensory/spatial processing, respectively).
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of brain lobe functions and neuroanatomical localization of sensory processing, which is a core Neurology concept rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 25

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement, posture, muscle tone, and equilibrium, making it the primary brain region for balance and coordination. Damage to the cerebellum commonly causes ataxia, unsteady gait, dysmetria, and impaired fine motor control. In contrast, the cerebrum is responsible for higher cognitive functions and voluntary motor planning, the medulla oblongata regulates vital autonomic functions (e.g., respiration and heart rate), and the hypothalamus controls homeostasis and endocrine/autonomic regulation.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of brain region functions (neuroanatomy/neurophysiology), specifically which structure governs balance and coordinated movement, which fits Neurology rather than nursing-care decision-making.

Question 26

Which cranial nerve is responsible for transmitting sound from the ear to the brain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hearing (sound transmission) is carried by the cochlear division of cranial nerve VIII (the vestibulocochlear nerve) from the cochlea to the brainstem and auditory pathways. The vestibular division of CN VIII primarily carries balance/equilibrium information, not sound. CN VII (facial) controls facial expression and taste to anterior tongue, and CN IX (glossopharyngeal) is involved in swallowing and taste to posterior tongue. Therefore, the cochlear nerve (VIII) is the correct choice for transmitting sound.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of cranial nerve functions (which nerve transmits sound), a foundational neuroanatomy/physiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or patient-care decision.

Question 27

The “Master of brain” is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The frontal lobe is commonly referred to as the “master” area because it governs executive functions such as planning, judgment, decision-making, problem solving, personality/behavior, and voluntary motor control (primary motor cortex). These higher-order functions coordinate and regulate many other cortical activities, making it the dominant control region for complex behavior. In contrast, the parietal lobe is primarily sensory integration and spatial processing, and the cerebellum primarily coordinates movement, balance, and motor learning.
Category reason: This item tests basic neuroanatomy and brain function (which lobe is responsible for executive control), a foundational neuroscience concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 28

The organ that controls all body activities is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The brain is the central control organ of the body, integrating sensory input and coordinating motor output while regulating autonomic functions (e.g., breathing rate, heart rate, temperature, and endocrine control via the hypothalamus-pituitary axis). The lungs primarily perform gas exchange, the heart pumps blood, and the pancreas is mainly involved in digestion and blood glucose regulation. Therefore, the best answer for controlling overall body activities is the brain.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge about which organ serves as the body’s primary control center, which is a core concept of the nervous system and thus falls under Neurology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 29

Meningitis is inflammation of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Meningitis refers to inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes (dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater) surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, the best match among the options is inflammation of the brain meninges. The other options describe different structures: spinal cord inflammation would be myelitis, alveoli involvement relates to pneumonia, and liver inflammation is hepatitis.
Category reason: This item tests a foundational definition of a neurologic condition (what structure is inflamed in meningitis), which is biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization question; therefore it fits NursingScience under Neurology.

Question 30

The occipital lobe controls

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The occipital lobe contains the primary visual cortex and is responsible for processing visual input from the retina via the optic pathways. Lesions in the occipital lobe commonly cause visual field deficits or cortical blindness. Hearing is primarily processed in the temporal lobe, memory is largely mediated by hippocampal/temporal structures, and balance is mainly coordinated by the cerebellum and vestibular system.
Category reason: This item tests neuroanatomy and brain-function localization (which lobe controls a sensory modality), making it foundational neuroscience rather than a nursing care/intervention scenario.

Question 31

Which one of the following parts of the human brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and vomiting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Swallowing and vomiting are largely controlled by reflex centers located in the brainstem, specifically within the medulla oblongata. The medulla contains nuclei and central pattern generators that coordinate these autonomic protective reflexes via cranial nerves (e.g., IX, X, XII). The pons contributes to respiratory and other functions, but the primary vomiting and swallowing centers are in the medulla. The cerebellum and cerebrum are not the main regulating centers for these reflexes.
Category reason: This is a foundational question about which brain structure controls specific reflex functions (swallowing and vomiting), which falls under nervous system anatomy/physiology and is best categorized as Neurology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 32

How should an adult patient’s big toe move during assessment of the Babinski reflex?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In a neurologically intact adult, the normal plantar response to stroking the lateral sole is plantar flexion (downward movement) of the great toe, often with toe flexion. Dorsiflexion (upgoing great toe) with fanning is an abnormal Babinski sign in adults and suggests an upper motor neuron/corticospinal tract lesion. Therefore, the expected adult big-toe movement during Babinski testing is plantar flexion.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the normal versus abnormal Babinski (plantar) reflex response and its neurologic significance, which is a foundational neurophysiology/neurologic assessment concept rather than a nursing management or prioritization decision.

Question 33

Polio affects which part of the body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Poliomyelitis is caused by poliovirus, which can invade the central nervous system and damage anterior horn (motor) neurons in the spinal cord. This neuronal injury leads to acute flaccid paralysis and muscle weakness/atrophy as downstream effects. While muscles become weak, the primary site affected is the nervous system rather than skin or the digestive system.
Category reason: This is a foundational disease/pathophysiology question about which body system poliovirus primarily damages, which falls under Neurology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 34

Epilepsy is a disorder of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epilepsy is a neurologic disorder characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures due to abnormal, excessive electrical activity in the brain. The pathology and symptom generation originate in cerebral networks, not in the spinal cord, skeletal muscles, or the heart. While seizures can cause secondary effects on muscles and cardiopulmonary status, the primary disorder is of the brain.
Category reason: The item tests foundational knowledge about where epilepsy originates (central nervous system), which is a core concept in Neurology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 35

The nurse asks a patient to stick out their tongue and move it side to side. Which cranial nerve is being assessed?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Protruding the tongue and moving it side to side assesses motor function of the tongue muscles, which are primarily innervated by the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). CN XII lesions can cause tongue deviation toward the weak side on protrusion and impaired lateral movements. CN III and CN VI control eye movements, and CN V is mainly facial sensation and muscles of mastication rather than tongue movement.
Category reason: This item tests identification of the cranial nerve responsible for a specific neurologic exam maneuver, which is foundational neuroanatomy/neurologic assessment knowledge rather than nursing prioritization or interventions.

Question 36

Which cranial nerve is responsible for both sensory and motor functions in the face?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The trigeminal nerve (CN V) provides the primary sensory innervation to the face (touch, pain, temperature) via its three divisions and also supplies motor fibers to the muscles of mastication. This makes it the key cranial nerve with both sensory and motor roles for facial structures. In contrast, the optic nerve (CN II) is purely sensory for vision, the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is motor to the tongue, and the vagus nerve (CN X) primarily serves thoracoabdominal viscera and laryngeal/pharyngeal functions rather than facial sensation.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of cranial nerve functions and their roles in sensory and motor innervation, which is primarily a nervous system (neurology) topic rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 37

The brain is made up of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The brain is primarily composed of nervous tissue, especially neurons, which are specialized cells that conduct electrical and chemical signals. While the brain also contains glial cells that support and protect neurons, among the listed options neurons best represent what the brain is made of. Muscles and bones are not components of brain tissue, and blood is a circulating fluid within vessels rather than the tissue substance of the brain.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of what structures make up the nervous system, focusing on brain tissue composition, which fits Neurology rather than nursing interventions or patient-care decisions.

Question 38

Supporting cells of brain are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Astrocytes are glial (neuroglial) cells that provide structural and metabolic support to neurons, help regulate extracellular ions and neurotransmitters, and contribute to blood-brain barrier maintenance. Podocytes are specialized epithelial cells of the renal glomerulus, not the brain. Neutrophils are circulating white blood cells involved in acute inflammation. Beta cells are pancreatic islet cells that secrete insulin.
Category reason: The question tests foundational knowledge of nervous system cell types (glial supporting cells vs other specialized cells), which is primarily Neurobiology/Neurology content rather than a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 39

Which of the following is the smallest cranial nerve?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The trochlear nerve (CN IV) is classically described as the smallest cranial nerve by number of axons and caliber. It is a purely motor nerve to the superior oblique muscle and has the longest intracranial course with dorsal brainstem exit, but remains very thin compared with other cranial nerves. By contrast, CN III and CN XI are larger motor nerves, and CN I consists of multiple olfactory filaments rather than being considered the smallest single cranial nerve in standard anatomy teaching.
Category reason: This item tests factual knowledge of cranial nerve anatomy (relative size of CN IV vs other cranial nerves), which is a foundational neuroscience/anatomy concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 40

Which cranial nerve is tested by 'say Aah'?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Having the patient say "Ah" assesses elevation of the soft palate and movement of the uvula, which are primarily mediated by the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) via motor innervation of the palate and pharynx. This maneuver is often used together with checking the gag reflex, where CN IX provides the sensory limb and CN X the motor limb. Abnormal findings (asymmetric palate rise or uvula deviation) suggest vagus nerve dysfunction.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of cranial nerve function and the neurologic exam (which nerve controls palate elevation with "Ah"), which is a foundational Neurology topic rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 41

Alzheimer’s disease affects:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alzheimer’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects the brain, especially areas involved in learning and memory (e.g., hippocampus and associated cortical regions). The hallmark clinical presentation is progressive impairment in short-term memory, cognition, and executive functioning. While late-stage disease can lead to generalized physical decline, the primary system affected is cognitive function rather than muscles, kidneys, or liver.
Category reason: This is testing foundational knowledge of which body system and functions are primarily impacted by Alzheimer’s disease, a central nervous system disorder, which fits Neurology.

Question 42

Parkinson’s disease is due to deficiency of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parkinson’s disease is characterized by degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta, leading to decreased dopamine in the striatum. This dopamine deficiency disrupts basal ganglia circuitry, producing bradykinesia, rigidity, and resting tremor. Acetylcholine is relatively increased (an imbalance), but the primary deficient neurotransmitter is dopamine. Serotonin and GABA are not the main deficiency responsible for classic Parkinsonian motor symptoms.
Category reason: The item tests foundational neurobiology of Parkinson’s disease (neurotransmitter deficiency and basal ganglia function), which is a Neurology biomedical knowledge question rather than a nursing intervention/safety scenario.

Question 43

Which part of the brain is responsible for processing visual information?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Visual information from the retina travels through the optic nerves and optic tracts to the lateral geniculate nucleus and then to the primary visual cortex (V1) located in the occipital lobe. This region performs initial processing of visual signals such as edges, orientation, and basic features. The temporal lobe is more involved in auditory processing and object recognition pathways, the parietal lobe in somatosensory integration and spatial attention, and the frontal lobe in executive and motor functions.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of brain functional neuroanatomy (which lobe processes vision), which is a foundational neuroscience topic rather than a nursing intervention or safety/prioritization decision.

Question 44

Which of the following is a key characteristic of delirium?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Delirium is characterized by an acute (sudden) onset and a fluctuating course, with impaired attention and changes in level of consciousness over hours to days. This waxing-and-waning mental status helps distinguish delirium from dementia, which typically has a gradual onset and more stable level of alertness. Delirium is often reversible when the underlying cause (e.g., infection, medications, metabolic disturbance) is identified and treated. Therefore, sudden onset with fluctuating consciousness is the key characteristic.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of the defining clinical features of a neurocognitive syndrome (delirium) and its distinction from dementia, which is foundational knowledge within neurology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 45

A “mini-stroke” is referred to as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A “mini-stroke” refers to a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which causes temporary neurologic deficits due to brief cerebral ischemia without permanent infarction. Symptoms typically resolve within minutes to hours and do not leave lasting deficits. A CVA is an actual stroke with brain tissue injury, PE is pulmonary embolism, and MI is myocardial infarction.
Category reason: The item tests recognition of a neurologic medical term (TIA) and its meaning, which is foundational biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario, fitting Neurology.

Question 46

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum is the primary brain region responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, maintaining balance, and fine-tuning posture and gait. Damage to the cerebellum commonly causes ataxia, dysmetria, and impaired coordination. In contrast, the cerebrum is mainly involved in higher cognitive and voluntary motor planning, while the medulla and pons primarily regulate vital autonomic and brainstem functions.
Category reason: This is a foundational neuroanatomy/brain-function question testing which brain structure controls coordination and balance, which fits Neurology under NursingScience rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.

Question 47

There are __ laminae present in the spinal cord’s gray matter?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The spinal cord gray matter is classically subdivided by Rexed into 10 laminae (I–X) based on cytoarchitecture. Laminae I–VI are primarily in the dorsal horn (sensory processing), VII–IX are mainly in the intermediate zone/ventral horn (autonomic and motor), and X surrounds the central canal. Therefore, the correct number of laminae is 10.
Category reason: This question tests foundational neuroanatomy (Rexed laminae organization of spinal cord gray matter), which falls under Neurology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 48

Which part of brain controls balance and coordination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum is the primary brain region responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, maintaining posture, and regulating balance through integration of proprioceptive and vestibular input. Damage to the cerebellum classically causes ataxia, dysmetria, and impaired balance. In contrast, the cerebrum handles higher cognition and voluntary motor planning, the medulla controls vital autonomic functions, and the thalamus mainly relays sensory and motor signals.
Category reason: This question tests identification of a brain structure’s function (balance and coordination), which is foundational neuroanatomy/physiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario, so it fits NursingScience under Neurology.

Question 49

Pin-rolling tremor is seen by..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A pill-rolling ("pin-rolling") resting tremor is a classic motor feature of Parkinson's disease due to degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra and basal ganglia circuit dysfunction. It is typically most evident at rest and improves with voluntary movement. Alzheimer’s disease is primarily a cognitive disorder without this characteristic resting tremor, and epilepsy and stroke do not classically present with a pill-rolling tremor pattern.
Category reason: The item tests recognition of a characteristic neurologic sign (pill-rolling tremor) and its associated disease, which is foundational neurology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 50

Reflex action is controlled by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Most reflex actions (especially simple somatic reflexes like the withdrawal or knee-jerk reflex) are mediated through a reflex arc at the spinal cord level, allowing a rapid response without needing cortical processing. Sensory input synapses in the spinal cord (directly or via interneurons) to activate motor neurons. The brain can modulate reflexes, but it is not required for the basic reflex response. Therefore, the spinal cord is the primary controller for reflex action in this context.
Category reason: The question tests where reflex arcs are integrated and mediated within the nervous system, which is a foundational concept in neurophysiology/neurology rather than nursing care decision-making.

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Inflammation of spinal cord is?

Nurse Sam is admitting Jason, a patient with suspected meningitis, and the doctor is assessing for meningeal irritation and spinal nerve root inflammation. Nurse Sam observes and documents a positive Kernig's sign. What specific finding should Nurse Sam note?

Polio affects mainly:

What causes permanent Memory Loss?

Encephalitis is inflammation of the?

Which of the following is NOT a component of the central nervous system (CNS)?

Olfactory nerve is related to-?

Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell?

A 22 year old client suffered from his first tonic-clonic seizure. Upon awakening the client asks the nurse, “What caused me to have a seizure? Which of the following would the nurse include in the primary cause of tonic clonic seizures in adults more the 20 years?”?

Kernicterus affect ............... body organ?

Paralysis is caused due to damage in which system?

The study of brain is called?

Inflammation of brain is called ??

Loss of memory is known as?

Which condition is associated with a “sunset sign” in infants?

Brudzinski’s sign is used to assess ____.?

Your patient has just been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. Which of the following is a true statement about Bell's palsy?

Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

Nerve cells help in:

What organ in the body helps us to think?

If an artery is blocked in the brain by thrombus then it causes?

Which nerve controls eye movement and pupil size?

Which portion of the pediatric Glasgow coma scale is divided into 3 age groups?

Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for vision?

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

Which cranial nerve is responsible for transmitting sound from the ear to the brain?

The “Master of brain” is?

The organ that controls all body activities is?

Meningitis is inflammation of?

The occipital lobe controls

Which one of the following parts of the human brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and vomiting?

How should an adult patient’s big toe move during assessment of the Babinski reflex?

Polio affects which part of the body?

Epilepsy is a disorder of?

The nurse asks a patient to stick out their tongue and move it side to side. Which cranial nerve is being assessed?

Which cranial nerve is responsible for both sensory and motor functions in the face?

The brain is made up of?

Supporting cells of brain are?

Which of the following is the smallest cranial nerve?

Which cranial nerve is tested by 'say Aah'?

Alzheimer’s disease affects:

Parkinson’s disease is due to deficiency of?

Which part of the brain is responsible for processing visual information?

Which of the following is a key characteristic of delirium?

A “mini-stroke” is referred to as?

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

There are __ laminae present in the spinal cord’s gray matter?

Which part of brain controls balance and coordination?

Pin-rolling tremor is seen by..?

Reflex action is controlled by?

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