Question 1

Which sentence is incorrect regarding neurone-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mature neurons are generally considered amitotic and do not normally undergo cell division; loss of neurons is therefore difficult to replace. In contrast, many neuroglial cells can divide and proliferate, contributing to repair and gliosis. The other statements are correct: a typical neuron has one axon with multiple dendrites, neurons are supported by neuroglia, and they are highly dependent on continuous oxygen and glucose due to high metabolic demand and minimal energy stores.

Question 2

Microscopic gaps between the neuron endings are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The microscopic gap between a presynaptic neuron ending and a postsynaptic cell is called the synapse (specifically, the synaptic cleft). Neurotransmitters are the chemical messengers released into this gap, not the gap itself. "Nodes" typically refers to nodes of Ranvier along myelinated axons, which are different structures. "Pores" is not the standard anatomical term for neuron-to-neuron junction gaps.

Question 3

Spinal cord is made up of ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The spinal cord is part of the central nervous system and is composed of nervous tissue, including neurons and supporting glial cells. It contains gray matter (neuronal cell bodies) and white matter (myelinated axons) arranged in organized tracts. Among the options, “tissue” best matches this definition; “nerves” typically refers to peripheral nervous system structures rather than the spinal cord itself.

Question 4

Which clinical sign is most specific for meningitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nuchal rigidity (neck stiffness) is a classic meningeal sign caused by inflammation and irritation of the meninges, making it more specific for meningitis than generalized symptoms. Headache and fever are common in many infections and inflammatory conditions, so they are less specific. Photophobia can occur with meningitis but is also seen in migraine and other neurologic/ocular disorders. Therefore, neck stiffness best distinguishes meningitis among the listed findings.

Question 5

The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool to assess level of consciousness by scoring eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. These components collectively reflect neurologic function and help quantify severity of impaired consciousness (e.g., after head injury). It does not directly measure cardiac output, renal function, or respiratory rate, though those may change in critically ill patients.

Question 6

Intermittent Diplopia is a classical sign of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intermittent (fluctuating) diplopia is characteristic of myasthenia gravis because ocular muscle weakness worsens with use and improves with rest. Fatigable weakness commonly affects extraocular muscles, producing variable diplopia and ptosis over the day. In contrast, increased intracranial pressure more classically causes persistent sixth-nerve palsy, Horner syndrome causes ptosis/miosis without diplopia, and MS diplopia can occur but is not typically described as classically intermittent in the fatigable pattern of MG.

Question 7

The two divisions of autonomic nervous system are —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is classically divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems, which regulate involuntary functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and gastrointestinal motility. The sympathetic division mediates “fight-or-flight” responses, while the parasympathetic division mediates “rest-and-digest” activity. The other options describe divisions of the peripheral nervous system (sensory/motor), the central nervous system (brain/spinal cord), or non-anatomic groupings.

Question 8

Paralysis is condition of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paralysis is loss of voluntary motor function due to disruption of neural pathways controlling muscle movement. It most commonly results from lesions in the brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or neuromuscular junction, all components of the nervous system. Endocrine and cardiovascular disorders can contribute to weakness or secondary neurologic injury, but paralysis itself is primarily a neurologic condition. Therefore, the nervous system is the best answer.

Question 9

Which structures act as wires of a telephone in the body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nerves function as the body's communication pathways, transmitting electrical impulses between the brain/spinal cord and peripheral tissues, analogous to telephone wires carrying signals. Muscles are effectors that contract in response to nerve stimulation, not the primary signal carriers. Arteries and veins transport blood, serving circulatory rather than communication roles. Therefore, nerves best match the analogy of wires for information transmission.

Question 10

Which is not a symptom of Parkinson's disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parkinson’s disease classically causes motor symptoms such as resting tremor and rigidity due to dopaminergic neuron loss in the substantia nigra. Dysphagia is also a recognized non-motor/late complication from impaired oropharyngeal coordination and can contribute to aspiration risk. Hypertension is not a typical defining symptom of Parkinson’s disease; autonomic dysfunction more commonly presents with orthostatic hypotension rather than sustained hypertension.

Question 11

Sense of smell is perceived by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Olfaction is mediated by the olfactory nerve (CN I) and processed in the primary olfactory cortex, which is closely associated with the olfactory bulb/tract (often referred to as the olfactory lobe) on the ventral surface of the frontal/temporal region. The occipital lobe primarily processes vision, the parietal lobe processes somatosensory input, and the temporal lobe is best known for auditory processing and memory. Therefore, the best choice among the options for smell perception is the olfactory lobe.

Question 12

Meningismus refers to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Meningismus describes clinical signs of meningeal irritation (e.g., neck stiffness, Kernig/Brudzinski signs) occurring without true meningitis or meningeal inflammation on evaluation. It can be seen with systemic infections, dehydration, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or other causes of meningeal irritation-like symptoms. Therefore, the best definition is meningeal irritation signs without meningitis. The other options either invert the definition or are not defining features.

Question 13

How many pairs of the spinal nerve are found in human?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Humans have 31 pairs of spinal nerves arising from the spinal cord: 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 1 coccygeal. These paired nerves exit via intervertebral foramina and carry both sensory and motor fibers. The counts in the other options do not match standard human anatomy.

Question 14

Inability to recognize familiar objects or persons?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Agnosia is a neurologic disorder characterized by inability to recognize familiar objects, people, sounds, or smells despite intact primary sensory function. In contrast, apraxia is inability to perform learned motor tasks, aphasia is impairment of language, and anopsia refers to loss of vision. Therefore the best match for failure to recognize familiar objects or persons is agnosia.

Question 15

Glasgow coma scale ranges from?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is the sum of three components: eye opening (1–4), verbal response (1–5), and motor response (1–6). Therefore, the minimum possible total score is 3 (1+1+1) and the maximum is 15 (4+5+6). Options like 3–8 represent only a severity range for severe coma, not the full scale.

Question 16

Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for auditory functioning?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Auditory processing is primarily mediated by the primary auditory cortex (Heschl’s gyrus) located in the superior temporal lobe. The temporal lobe also contains key language comprehension areas (e.g., Wernicke’s area in the dominant hemisphere), reinforcing its role in processing sound. By contrast, the occipital lobe is primarily visual, the parietal lobe integrates somatosensory information, and the frontal lobe is chiefly involved in executive and motor functions.

Question 17

Infantal reflex that occurs due to the sudden jerk(or) stimuli is known as -?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Moro (startle) reflex is an infantile primitive reflex triggered by sudden loud noise, abrupt movement, or a sensation of falling. It produces symmetric abduction/extension of the arms followed by adduction and often crying. Knee jerk is a deep tendon reflex seen in all ages and is not the characteristic infant startle response. Therefore, the correct answer is Moro.

Question 18

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for coordination of voluntary movements, balance, posture, and fine motor control. Damage to the cerebellum commonly causes ataxia, dysmetria, and impaired equilibrium. The cerebrum mainly handles higher cognitive and motor planning functions, while the medulla oblongata and pons are more involved in vital autonomic functions and brainstem relay pathways rather than balance coordination.

Question 19

The right hemisphere of the brain controls -?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Motor and many sensory pathways decussate (cross) in the brainstem/spinal cord, producing contralateral control of the body by each cerebral hemisphere. Therefore, the right cerebral hemisphere primarily controls movement and sensation on the left side of the body. This principle is clinically reflected in stroke localization, where right hemispheric lesions often cause left-sided weakness or sensory loss.

Question 20

The outer layer of the cerebrum is called —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebrum’s outermost layer is the cerebral cortex, which is composed largely of gray matter and is responsible for higher functions such as cognition, sensory processing, and voluntary motor control. The medulla and pons are parts of the brainstem, not the cerebrum. The meninges are protective coverings around the brain and spinal cord, not a layer of the cerebrum itself.

Question 21

Dementia is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dementia is a clinical syndrome characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive (mental) abilities such as memory, language, executive function, and judgment that interferes with daily functioning. It is not synonymous with terminal illness, though some underlying causes can be life-limiting. The other options describe length of stay and holistic care concepts, not the definition of dementia.

Question 22

_____ is a condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the ventricles of the brain ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hydrocephalus is defined by abnormal accumulation of CSF in the cerebral ventricles, leading to ventricular dilation and increased intracranial pressure. This can result from impaired CSF flow (obstructive), impaired absorption (communicating), or rarely excess production. The other options are not defined by ventricular CSF accumulation, although head trauma can be an underlying cause of hydrocephalus rather than the diagnosis itself.

Question 23

What is the structural unit of the nervous system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The neuron is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system, responsible for receiving, integrating, and transmitting nerve impulses. Axons and dendrites are parts of a neuron rather than the fundamental unit itself. Glial cells provide support, nutrition, and insulation but are not the primary signaling unit. Therefore, the best answer is neuron.

Question 24

What is the normal range of intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Normal adult intracranial pressure is typically about 5–15 mmHg when measured in a supine, relaxed patient. Values persistently above this range suggest intracranial hypertension and reduced intracranial compliance. Options 0–5 mmHg is too low for the usual physiologic range, while 15–25 mmHg represents elevated ICP. Therefore, 5–15 mmHg is the best answer.

Question 25

Brain area responsible for screening all incoming sensory data is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The thalamus is the major relay and processing center for most sensory information (except olfaction) before it is transmitted to the cerebral cortex. It helps filter, prioritize, and modulate sensory signals, supporting attention and awareness. The hypothalamus primarily regulates autonomic and endocrine homeostasis, the cerebellum coordinates movement and balance, and the cerebral cortex performs higher-order perception and interpretation rather than initial screening/relaying.

Question 26

What is the study of Nervous System is called ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neurology is the medical specialty and field of study focused on the nervous system (brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves). Hepatology studies the liver, cardiology studies the heart and cardiovascular system, and dermatology studies the skin. Therefore, the study of the nervous system is called neurology.

Question 27

Which of the below glial cells play a critical role in the formation of the blood-brain barrier?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Astrocytes contribute critically to blood-brain barrier (BBB) formation and maintenance via their perivascular end-feet, which signal to and support endothelial tight junction integrity. While the BBB is primarily formed by CNS capillary endothelial tight junctions, astrocytic interactions are essential for its functional maturation and regulation. Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells primarily myelinate axons (CNS and PNS, respectively), ependymal cells line ventricles, and microglia serve immune surveillance roles rather than BBB formation.

Question 28

The part of the brain responsible for movement coordination is the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for coordination of voluntary movement, balance, posture, and fine motor control. It integrates proprioceptive input with signals from the motor cortex to smooth and calibrate movements. Damage to the cerebellum classically causes ataxia, dysmetria, and impaired coordination. The cerebrum initiates voluntary movement, while the brainstem and spinal cord mainly conduct pathways and regulate vital/reflex functions rather than coordinating movement.

Question 29

What is the main function of the cerebellum?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum primarily coordinates voluntary movement, posture, and balance by integrating proprioceptive, vestibular, and visual input. Damage to the cerebellum classically causes ataxia, unsteady gait, and impaired coordination rather than primary deficits in memory or vision. Memory is mainly mediated by hippocampal/temporal lobe structures, and vision by the occipital cortex and visual pathways.

Question 30

Epilepsy is a disorder of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent unprovoked seizures due to abnormal, excessive electrical activity in the brain. The origin of seizures is cerebral, involving neuronal networks and cortical excitability. Heart, liver, and kidney diseases can cause secondary symptoms (e.g., syncope, encephalopathy, metabolic derangements) but they are not the primary site of epilepsy.

Question 31

Reflex action is controlled by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Most simple reflexes are integrated at the level of the spinal cord via a reflex arc (sensory neuron → interneuron → motor neuron), allowing a rapid response without needing cortical processing. The cerebrum is mainly responsible for conscious thought and voluntary actions, not primary reflex integration. The medulla controls vital autonomic functions and some reflexes (e.g., cough, gag), but the classic limb withdrawal and tendon reflexes are spinal. Therefore, the best answer is the spinal cord.

Question 32

Neurology is study of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neurology is the medical specialty and field of study focused on the nervous system, including the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. It addresses the structure and function of these components as well as the disorders that affect them. The other options correspond to other fields (e.g., bones/orthopedics, joints/rheumatology or orthopedics, muscles/myology).

Question 33

Which nerve injury causes foot drop?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Foot drop results from loss of ankle dorsiflexion, primarily mediated by the deep peroneal (fibular) nerve, a branch of the common peroneal nerve. Injury to the common peroneal nerve (often at the fibular neck) weakens dorsiflexors (tibialis anterior, toe extensors) and can cause a steppage gait. Tibial nerve injury more typically impairs plantarflexion and inversion, while femoral nerve injury affects knee extension. Sciatic nerve injury can cause broader deficits, but the classic isolated foot drop finding points to the common peroneal nerve.

Question 34

Which is not a symptom of Parkinson's disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Classic Parkinson’s disease motor features include resting tremor and rigidity, and many patients also develop bulbar dysfunction such as dysphagia. Hypertension is not a typical symptom of Parkinson’s disease; autonomic dysfunction more commonly causes orthostatic hypotension rather than elevated blood pressure. Therefore, among the options, hypertension is the best choice for “not a symptom.”.

Question 35

Which is the Earliest symptom of Parkinsonism?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parkinsonism classically begins with a resting “pill-rolling” tremor that is often unilateral and may precede other motor signs. Bradykinesia and rigidity are core features of Parkinson disease but are typically noted after or along with early tremor as symptoms progress. Chorea is not a feature of parkinsonism and is more characteristic of disorders like Huntington disease or medication-induced dyskinesias. Therefore, tremor is the best choice for earliest symptom among the options.

Question 36

Inflammation of brain is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Inflammation of the brain parenchyma is termed encephalitis. Meningitis refers to inflammation of the meninges (the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord), not the brain tissue itself. Arthritis is inflammation of joints. Therefore, the correct term for inflammation of the brain is encephalitis.

Question 37

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) minimum score is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Glasgow Coma Scale sums three components: eye opening (1–4), verbal response (1–5), and motor response (1–6). The lowest possible score is 1 + 1 + 1 = 3, representing no eye opening, no verbal response, and no motor response to stimuli. Therefore, the minimum GCS score is 3. A score of 0 is not used in standard GCS scoring.

Question 38

Sleep walking is known as-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sleepwalking is medically termed somnambulism, a parasomnia that occurs during non-REM sleep (classically slow-wave sleep). It involves complex behaviors such as ambulation with reduced awareness and limited recall on awakening. Insomnia refers to difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, and hypersomnia refers to excessive sleepiness, neither of which describes sleepwalking. “Asomnia” is not the standard clinical term for sleepwalking.

Question 39

A 30-year-old man was involved in a head-on collision and was unconscious for two minutes prior to EMS arrival. Five minutes before arriving to the hospital, the paramedic notices clear fluid draining from the patient's nose. Having seen this before, the paramedic places a drop from the patient's nose onto a piece of gauze. The nurse is looking for a clinical finding that is called the halo's sign. What type of fracture does the paramedic suspect the patient has?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clear fluid drainage from the nose after head trauma suggests cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea. When CSF mixes with blood on gauze, it can form a concentric “halo” (ring) pattern, supporting a CSF leak. CSF rhinorrhea is classically associated with a basilar skull fracture (often involving the anterior cranial fossa/cribriform plate). Depressed or simple linear skull fractures do not typically cause CSF leakage, and subarachnoid hemorrhage is not a fracture type and does not produce the halo sign on gauze.

Question 40

A 23-year-old man is admitted with a subdural hematoma and cerebral edema after a motorcycle accident. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see INITIALLY?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With subdural hematoma and cerebral edema, the earliest and most common initial manifestation of rising intracranial pressure is a change in mental status, often presenting as decreased level of consciousness. Pupillary dilation/inequality, abnormal posturing (e.g., decerebrate), and seizures are typically later or more severe signs reflecting worsening brain compression or herniation. Therefore, decreased LOC is the best initial expected symptom.

Question 41

During which home maintenance tasks would symptoms related to constructional apraxia be MOST EVIDENT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Constructional apraxia is an impairment in planning and executing tasks that require visuospatial organization and constructing or assembling objects (often associated with parietal lobe dysfunction). Installing curtain rods requires interpreting spatial relationships (measuring, aligning, leveling) and translating written directions into a multistep motor plan, so deficits are most apparent. In contrast, washing windows, roller painting, and vacuuming are more routine, overlearned motor activities with less demand for complex visuoconstruction and assembly. Therefore the installation task would most clearly reveal constructional apraxia.

Question 42

SCENARIO: An OT is preparing to interview an outpatient who has a TBI and is functioning at Level VII (Automatic-Appropriate) on the Rancho Los Amigos scale. Which characteristic of an individual's cognitive-behavioral function is TYPICALLY included in the description of this level?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rancho Los Amigos Level VII (Automatic-Appropriate) is characterized by appropriate behavior in familiar situations with improved carryover and emerging insight, but ongoing deficits in problem solving and judgment, especially for complex or future-oriented planning. Level VIII is more consistent with realistic planning and higher-level executive functioning. Therefore, "realistic judgment for future planning" is not typical for Level VII and is the best discriminating option among those listed. The other choices describe functions more consistent with Level VII (orientation to person/place, some learning carryover for ADLs) or typically not fully accurate at this stage (insight).

Question 43

A patient has hyperactive reflexes of the lower extremities. The adult-gerontology primary care nurse practitioner assesses for ankle clonus by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ankle clonus is assessed by quickly dorsiflexing the foot and holding it in dorsiflexion while supporting the leg, observing for rhythmic oscillations (beats) at the ankle. Sustained clonus suggests an upper motor neuron lesion and correlates with hyperreflexia. The other options describe assessing vibration sense (tuning fork), the Achilles (ankle jerk) deep tendon reflex, and the plantar/Babinski response, which are different neurologic tests.

Question 44

What is the term for a condition where the blood supply to the brain is interrupted?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A stroke (cerebrovascular accident) occurs when cerebral blood flow is interrupted, either by vessel occlusion (ischemic stroke) or bleeding (hemorrhagic stroke), leading to brain tissue injury. Heart failure and arrhythmias may contribute to stroke risk but are not defined as an interruption of brain blood supply. Cardiac arrest causes cessation of systemic circulation, but the specific term for interrupted blood supply to the brain as a disease entity is stroke.

Question 45

Which of the following part of a neuron receives information from other neurons?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dendrites are the primary receptive region of a neuron and contain many synapses where signals from other neurons are received (typically as graded postsynaptic potentials). These incoming signals are integrated and can influence whether the neuron will generate an action potential at the axon hillock. In contrast, the axon mainly transmits impulses away from the cell body, and the myelin sheath primarily increases conduction velocity rather than receiving synaptic input.

Question 46

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of which nerve?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carpal tunnel syndrome results from compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel beneath the transverse carpal ligament. This causes characteristic paresthesias in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger, and can lead to thenar muscle weakness/atrophy. The ulnar nerve is typically involved in cubital tunnel or Guyon canal syndromes, while radial, axillary, and musculocutaneous nerves are not compressed in the carpal tunnel.

Question 47

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for balance, posture, and coordination of voluntary movement by integrating proprioceptive and vestibular input and fine-tuning motor activity. Damage to the cerebellum commonly causes ataxia, dysmetria, and impaired gait stability. In contrast, the cerebrum governs higher cognition and voluntary motor planning, the hypothalamus regulates homeostasis and endocrine/autonomic functions, and the medulla oblongata controls vital autonomic functions like respiration and heart rate.

Question 48

Stroke occurs due to damage in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A stroke is an acute neurologic injury caused by interruption of cerebral blood flow (ischemic stroke) or bleeding into/around brain tissue (hemorrhagic stroke). In both cases, the primary damage occurs in the brain, leading to focal neurologic deficits based on the affected region. Kidneys, heart, and liver can contribute to risk factors (e.g., hypertension, emboli), but they are not the site of the stroke injury itself.

Question 49

Which part of the brain controls posture and balance?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movement and fine-tunes motor activity by integrating input from the vestibular system and proprioceptive pathways. This coordination is essential for maintaining posture, balance, and smooth, purposeful movements. The cerebrum is primarily responsible for higher cognitive functions and initiation of voluntary movement, while the medulla oblongata and pons mainly regulate vital autonomic and brainstem functions rather than balance control.

Question 50

Rheumatic chorea is the disorder of-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rheumatic chorea (Sydenham chorea) is a neurologic manifestation of acute rheumatic fever due to an autoimmune response after group A streptococcal infection. It affects the basal ganglia, leading to involuntary, rapid, irregular movements, emotional lability, and hypotonia. Because it primarily involves disordered motor control from the central nervous system, it is best classified as a nervous system disorder.

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Which sentence is incorrect regarding neurone-?

Microscopic gaps between the neuron endings are?

Spinal cord is made up of ________?

Which clinical sign is most specific for meningitis?

The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates?

Intermittent Diplopia is a classical sign of?

The two divisions of autonomic nervous system are —?

Paralysis is condition of ?

Which structures act as wires of a telephone in the body?

Which is not a symptom of Parkinson's disease?

Sense of smell is perceived by?

Meningismus refers to?

How many pairs of the spinal nerve are found in human?

Inability to recognize familiar objects or persons?

Glasgow coma scale ranges from?

Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for auditory functioning?

Infantal reflex that occurs due to the sudden jerk(or) stimuli is known as -?

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

The right hemisphere of the brain controls -?

The outer layer of the cerebrum is called —?

Dementia is?

_____ is a condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the ventricles of the brain ?

What is the structural unit of the nervous system?

What is the normal range of intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Brain area responsible for screening all incoming sensory data is?

What is the study of Nervous System is called ...?

Which of the below glial cells play a critical role in the formation of the blood-brain barrier?

The part of the brain responsible for movement coordination is the?

What is the main function of the cerebellum?

Epilepsy is a disorder of?

Reflex action is controlled by?

Neurology is study of?

Which nerve injury causes foot drop?

Which is not a symptom of Parkinson's disease?

Which is the Earliest symptom of Parkinsonism?

Inflammation of brain is?

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) minimum score is?

Sleep walking is known as-?

A 23-year-old man is admitted with a subdural hematoma and cerebral edema after a motorcycle accident. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see INITIALLY?

During which home maintenance tasks would symptoms related to constructional apraxia be MOST EVIDENT?

SCENARIO: An OT is preparing to interview an outpatient who has a TBI and is functioning at Level VII (Automatic-Appropriate) on the Rancho Los Amigos scale. Which characteristic of an individual's cognitive-behavioral function is TYPICALLY included in the description of this level?

A patient has hyperactive reflexes of the lower extremities. The adult-gerontology primary care nurse practitioner assesses for ankle clonus by?

What is the term for a condition where the blood supply to the brain is interrupted?

Which of the following part of a neuron receives information from other neurons?

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of which nerve?

Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

Stroke occurs due to damage in?

Which part of the brain controls posture and balance?

Rheumatic chorea is the disorder of-?

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