Question 1

THE SPINAL CORD IS MADE UP OF?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its core function is transmission and processing of sensory and motor signals via neuronal pathways, which requires excitable neural tissue rather than contractile tissue. Muscle types (cardiac, smooth, striated/skeletal) are found in the heart, hollow organs/blood vessels, and voluntary muscles, respectively, not in the spinal cord. Therefore the only option consistent with spinal cord histologic composition and function is neural cells.

Question 2

Which of the following is the life threatening complication of myasthenia gravis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This complication is termed a myasthenic crisis and is classically defined by the need for ventilatory support and urgent airway/ICU management. While dysphagia, blurred vision, and dyspnea can occur in MG, they are manifestations/symptoms rather than the named life-threatening complication. Recognizing crisis matters because rapid deterioration can occur and treatment focuses on airway support plus immunomodulation (e.g., IVIG/plasmapheresis) and addressing triggers (infection, medication changes).

Question 3

Which of the following diseases is commonly known as "Brain Fever"?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Encephalitis directly matches this concept because it is inflammation of the brain parenchyma, often viral, causing fever, headache, altered mental status, and sometimes seizures. Tetanus primarily causes neuromuscular rigidity and spasms from a toxin rather than brain inflammation. Cholera and gonorrhea are systemic/urogenital infections and are not characterized by primary brain involvement.

Question 4

A 19-year-old man presents with fever, neck stiffness, and pain on knee extension while his hip is flexed. What is the most likely clinical sign?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pain/resistance on passive knee extension when the hip is flexed (typically at 90 degrees) is the classic maneuver for this sign due to stretching of inflamed meninges and lumbosacral nerve roots. This best matches the described exam finding in a febrile patient with neck stiffness. A common distractor is Brudzinski sign, which is neck flexion causing involuntary hip/knee flexion rather than pain on knee extension.

Question 5

The 7th cranial nerve is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CN VII is the facial nerve, responsible for muscles of facial expression, taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and parasympathetic supply to lacrimal and salivary glands. The abducent nerve is CN VI (lateral rectus), the vagus nerve is CN X (major parasympathetic outflow), and the hypoglossal nerve is CN XII (tongue movement). Therefore, the only option matching the 7th cranial nerve is the facial nerve.

Question 6

Delirium is a disorder of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This core feature distinguishes it from many primary psychiatric disorders where consciousness is typically preserved. The patient may also have disorganized thinking and perceptual disturbances, but these are secondary to the central impairment in attention/awareness. Memory problems can occur, yet they are not the defining characteristic and are more classically emphasized in dementias. Clinically, recognizing it as a disorder of consciousness/attention prompts urgent evaluation for an underlying medical cause (e.g., infection, hypoxia, medications).

Question 7

Unformed visual hallucinations are seen in the lesion of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The primary visual cortex is located in the occipital lobe, so pathology there most directly produces these simple visual phenomena. In contrast, temporal lobe involvement is more associated with formed/complex visual hallucinations (e.g., people, scenes) due to higher-order visual association areas. Parietal and frontal lobe lesions more often cause visuospatial, attentional, or executive disturbances rather than elementary visual hallucinations.

Question 8

The nurse is reviewing neurotransmitter activity and how it relates to substance use disorders. Which is the primary neurotransmitter in the reward center of the brain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This dopamine surge strengthens drug-seeking behavior through conditioning and neuroadaptation, making it the central neurotransmitter in the brain’s reward circuitry. Serotonin is more strongly tied to mood, appetite, and impulse regulation rather than core reward reinforcement. Norepinephrine is more associated with arousal and stress responses, and acetylcholine is prominent in neuromuscular and certain central modulatory roles, not the primary reward transmitter.

Question 9

Which cranial nerve is responsible for smell??

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This matches the function being tested (olfaction) and is classically assessed in neurologic exams, especially in head injury or neurodegenerative disease. By contrast, the facial nerve (VII) primarily controls facial expression and conveys taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, while the optic nerve (II) is for vision and the vagus (X) is largely autonomic and visceral sensory/motor. Therefore the only option aligned with smell is cranial nerve I.

Question 10

What part of the neurone carries the “action potential”?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Action potentials are regenerative electrical impulses that propagate along the neuron's conducting region due to sequential opening of voltage-gated ion channels. The axon is specialized for rapid transmission of these impulses from the initial segment toward the terminals. Dendrites primarily receive synaptic input and conduct graded potentials toward the soma, and the cell body integrates inputs rather than serving as the main long-distance conductor. Synaptic knobs are the presynaptic terminals responsible for neurotransmitter release after the impulse arrives, not for carrying the impulse over distance.

Question 11

A 34 year old woman presents to ED complaining of a hoarse voice. She underwent a thyroidectomy 2 weeks ago. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured during the procedure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The recurrent laryngeal nerve (branch of the vagus) runs in the tracheoesophageal groove adjacent to the thyroid gland and is at particular risk during thyroidectomy. Damage leads to unilateral vocal cord paralysis causing a weak, hoarse voice; bilateral injury can cause stridor and airway compromise. By contrast, the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve is primarily sensory (supraglottic) and would more typically cause reduced cough reflex/aspiration risk rather than hoarseness as the main complaint.

Question 12

In brain death all are seen except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The pupils in brain death are typically fixed and nonreactive, often mid-position or dilated, rather than constricted. Apnea is expected because the medullary respiratory centers fail, producing no spontaneous respirations on apnea testing. Diabetes insipidus is common due to hypothalamic/posterior pituitary failure with loss of ADH leading to polyuria and hypernatremia; autonomic failure can also make heart rate poorly responsive to atropine.

Question 13

Loss of memory is...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dementia is a broader syndrome with progressive cognitive decline affecting multiple domains (e.g., executive function, language) in addition to memory. Aphasia is a language disorder (impaired comprehension or expression) rather than a primary memory deficit. Mania is a mood state characterized by elevated/irritable mood, decreased need for sleep, and increased activity, not loss of memory.

Question 14

Which neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for mood regulation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reduced synaptic serotonin activity is classically associated with depressive symptoms, and many first-line antidepressants (SSRIs/SNRIs) improve mood by increasing serotonergic transmission. Dopamine is more strongly associated with reward/motivation and psychosis pathways, while GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter with prominent roles in anxiety and sedation. Norepinephrine contributes to arousal/attention and can affect mood, but it is not the primary neurotransmitter emphasized for baseline mood regulation in nursing fundamentals.

Question 15

The nurse cares for a patient with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is a symptom that is NOT typically part of the disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diplopia and ptosis are classic early ocular manifestations due to extraocular muscle involvement, and generalized muscle weakness is a core feature. A shuffling gait is more characteristic of parkinsonism (basal ganglia dysfunction) rather than impaired acetylcholine receptor transmission at the neuromuscular junction. While MG can cause proximal weakness that may alter mobility, the stereotyped shuffling gait pattern is not typical for MG.

Question 16

Which of the cranial nerve disorder causes Bell’s palsy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CN VII supplies motor innervation to facial muscles and also carries parasympathetic fibers to lacrimal/salivary glands and taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, explaining associated eye dryness or taste changes. Therefore, injury or inflammation of CN VII directly produces the classic facial droop and inability to close the eye on the affected side. In contrast, CN V mainly mediates facial sensation and mastication, and CN VIII is primarily hearing/balance, so they do not cause the hallmark facial motor weakness.

Question 17

Which clinical indicator does a nurse identify when assessing a client with hemiplegia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pattern distinguishes it from paraplegia, which affects both lower extremities, and from bilateral arm weakness, which suggests a different lesion distribution. Options describing paresis (partial weakness) do not match the “-plegia” suffix, which indicates complete paralysis. Therefore the best clinical indicator is unilateral body paralysis.

Question 18

Loss of speech is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This commonly results from dominant-hemisphere stroke or other cortical lesions affecting language areas (e.g., Broca/Wernicke regions). Dysarthria is a motor speech articulation problem (slurred speech) with preserved language, while dyslexia is a reading disorder. Dysphasia is sometimes used as a milder or synonymous term, but the standard term for loss of speech/language is aphasia.

Question 19

Which symptom occurs initially in Parkinson’s disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The early tremor is often unilateral and described as a “pill-rolling” motion in the fingers/hand. Akinesia/bradykinesia and rigidity are also core features but typically evolve and worsen over time rather than being the most recognizable initial complaint in many patients. Aspiration and dementia are later complications related to dysphagia and cognitive decline, respectively, and are not expected as initial presenting symptoms.

Question 20

A nurse is teaching a student nurse about ketogenic diet. The nurse knows that a ketogenic diet is sometimes used to treat which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is an evidence-based nonpharmacologic adjunct used particularly for refractory (drug-resistant) seizure disorders, especially in children. The other listed conditions are not standard indications: eating disorders require nutritional rehabilitation rather than carbohydrate restriction, nephrotic syndrome is managed with sodium control/diuretics and treatment of the underlying cause, and ulcerative colitis treatment centers on anti-inflammatory/immunomodulating therapy and individualized nutrition. Therefore the condition sometimes treated with a ketogenic diet is seizure disorder.

Question 21

Nursing care of a client with damage to the hippocampus, amygdala, and fornix should focus on which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Injury to the hippocampus and its major output tract (fornix) commonly causes impaired new learning and short-term memory consolidation, so care should prioritize orientation strategies and memory support. Amygdala damage can blunt or dysregulate affect, increasing risk for anxiety, fear conditioning changes, or inappropriate emotional responses, making emotional assessment and support essential. By contrast, coordination is primarily cerebellar/basal ganglia in function, and vital-sign monitoring or pain control are not the most specific priorities tied to these limbic structures without additional clinical cues.

Question 22

The client is diagnosed with a frontal lobe brain tumor. Which sign/symptom would the nurse expect the client to exhibit?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Frontal lobe lesions classically affect executive function, judgment, impulse control, and social behavior because this region contains the prefrontal cortex. A tumor in this area commonly produces disinhibition, apathy, poor decision-making, and other behavioral/personality alterations that may be noticed before focal motor deficits. By contrast, ataxia and scanning speech are more typical of cerebellar involvement, and decreased visual acuity suggests occipital lobe/optic pathway compromise. Therefore the expected finding with a frontal lobe tumor is a change in personality/behavior.

Question 23

A child is unable to walk without assistance because of decreased oxygen at birth. Which disorder is characterized by a malfunction of the brain’s motor center from hypoxia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pathophysiology classically produces abnormal tone, spasticity, and delayed motor milestones, which can manifest as inability to walk independently. Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder with characteristic dysmorphic features and intellectual disability rather than hypoxic motor-center injury. Sickle cell anemia and osteogenesis imperfecta primarily involve hematologic vaso-occlusion and collagen/bone fragility, respectively, not primary hypoxic damage to motor pathways at birth.

Question 24

A client with suspected multiple sclerosis (MS) undergoes a lumbar puncture. The nurse understands that the results of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may show?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: MS is an immune-mediated demyelinating disorder, and CSF testing may show evidence of intrathecal immunoglobulin production (e.g., oligoclonal bands) with a mild elevation in total protein. This reflects inflammation and breakdown of myelin-related proteins rather than infection. Marked CSF pleocytosis/pus would be more consistent with bacterial meningitis, and increased CSF glucose is not a typical MS finding. Blood/increased RBCs usually suggests a traumatic tap or subarachnoid hemorrhage, not MS.

Question 25

A client admitted to the emergency department for head trauma is diagnosed with an epidural hematoma. Which of the following would most likely cause this condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The middle meningeal artery runs in grooves on the inner surface of the temporal bone, making it vulnerable to laceration with lateral head trauma. Rapid arterial bleeding explains the potential for a lucid interval followed by abrupt neurologic deterioration from rising intracranial pressure and herniation risk. By contrast, venous bleeding is more typical of subdural hematoma due to tearing of bridging veins, not epidural bleeding.

Question 26

Which best describes Babinski’s reflex?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Babinski is a superficial plantar reflex assessed by stroking the lateral sole of the foot and observing the toe response. An upgoing great toe with fanning of the other toes indicates an extensor plantar response, reflecting corticospinal (upper motor neuron) dysfunction in adults, while it can be normal in infants due to incomplete myelination. The other options describe different deep tendon reflexes: biceps (C5–C6), patellar (L3–L4), and Achilles (S1). The key distinguishing feature for Babinski is toe dorsiflexion and toe fanning with plantar stimulation, not a tendon tap response.

Question 27

A young female client has been recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) and wants more information on the disease. In teaching the client, which statement by the nurse is most accurate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: MS is primarily an immune-mediated inflammatory disorder in which autoreactive lymphocytes target CNS myelin and oligodendrocytes, producing demyelinating plaques and neurologic deficits. This makes the autoimmune/immune-mediated description the most accurate core teaching point for a newly diagnosed client. The disease is more common in women than men, so that distractor is incorrect. The pathology is demyelination with variable, often incomplete remyelination and progressive axonal injury, and it is chronic with no cure, making the other statements inaccurate.

Question 28

A client is newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. The nurse is teaching the client about the cause of this disease. The nurse determines that teaching has been effective when the client states?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular junction disorder in which antibodies target the postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, reducing functional receptor availability and impairing signal transmission. This directly leads to fatigable skeletal muscle weakness (often ocular, bulbar, and proximal muscles) because end-plate potentials become insufficient to trigger consistent muscle fiber depolarization. The other options describe different neurologic diseases: ascending paralysis after viral illness suggests Guillain-Barré syndrome, peripheral demyelination also aligns with Guillain-Barré, and reduced dopamine production in the basal ganglia describes Parkinson disease. Therefore the stated cause involving acetylcholine receptor destruction best matches the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis.

Question 29

When assessing a client with a spinal injury at C6, the nurse would expect the highest level of functioning to include which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At C6, shoulder and elbow flexion are generally preserved (C5–C6), while wrist extension may be weak/limited (C6) and intrinsic hand function is absent because finger flexion/extension and fine motor control are primarily C7–T1. Therefore the highest expected functional level is some wrist control with no functional hand grasp. Options describing major biceps/shoulder loss fit higher lesions (above C5), and describing only mild hand dexterity loss implies lower cervical integrity than a C6 injury.

Question 30

A child is admitted to the emergency department with a recent head injury. In educating the client and family, the nurse discusses concerns regarding the lucid period. This is best described as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A lucid interval is a classic pattern in some intracranial bleeds (notably epidural hematoma) where a patient briefly appears neurologically normal after injury before deteriorating as bleeding and intracranial pressure increase. The key concept is transient recovery of consciousness followed by progressive decline in mental status. Becoming somnolent after a period of being oriented matches this definition and signals possible expanding hematoma requiring urgent evaluation. Garbled speech is a focal deficit, impaired recall suggests post-traumatic amnesia/concussion, and “warning” odors/visual changes describe seizure aura rather than post-injury lucidity.

Question 31

Which of the following is an initial sign of Parkinson’s disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An early and commonly noticed presenting feature is an asymmetric resting “pill-rolling” tremor that decreases with voluntary movement and may be intermittent at onset. Rigidity and bradykinesia are also core features but are often less immediately obvious to patients early in the disease course. Akinesia typically reflects more advanced impairment with marked difficulty initiating movement rather than an initial sign.

Question 32

A client is sitting in a recliner eating her lunch. The nurse witnesses the client take a bite of applesauce, and then the client’s right arm begins to stiffen and tremble. The client sputters, is unable to control her arm, and drops her spoon. The client does not respond to the nurse when the nurse calls her name. What type of seizure is the client experiencing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The described right arm stiffening/trembling and inability to control the limb indicates focal motor onset rather than a generalized convulsion. Lack of response to name suggests impaired awareness, which distinguishes this from simple focal seizures. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures would be expected to involve bilateral tonic and clonic movements with loss of consciousness, while atonic seizures cause sudden loss of tone and myoclonic seizures cause brief, shock-like jerks.

Question 33

Inflammation of brain is called...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The suffix “-encephalitis” specifically denotes inflammation of the encephalon (brain tissue), distinguishing it from coverings and peripheral structures. Meningitis refers to inflammation of the meninges rather than the brain tissue itself, typically presenting with neck stiffness and photophobia. Myelitis is inflammation of the spinal cord, and neuritis is inflammation of a peripheral nerve.

Question 34

The fluid that surrounds the brain is --?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It provides mechanical cushioning (buoyancy) and helps maintain a stable chemical environment for neuronal function. It is produced mainly by the choroid plexus and circulates around the CNS before being reabsorbed via arachnoid granulations. Plasma remains within blood vessels, lymph primarily drains interstitial spaces (with limited classic lymphatics in the CNS), and bile is a digestive secretion from the liver, so these do not surround the brain in normal anatomy.

Question 35

Which of the following is in the peripheral nervous system but not the central nervous system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therefore, Schwann cells are a defining glial cell type found in the PNS but not in the CNS. By contrast, dendrites and the Golgi apparatus are general neuronal/cellular structures present in both systems. Nodes of Ranvier occur along myelinated axons in both the PNS and CNS, so they are not exclusive to the PNS.

Question 36

The part of the brain which responsible for regulating & balance is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lesions here classically cause ataxia, dysmetria, intention tremor, and difficulty with tandem walking—findings directly tied to impaired balance regulation. In contrast, the brainstem primarily manages vital autonomic functions and basic reflexes rather than fine motor coordination. The cerebrum is more responsible for higher cognition and initiation of movement, not the moment-to-moment coordination needed for equilibrium.

Question 37

What statement presented by the student regarding a transient ischemic attack requires further attention?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " A TIA is defined by transient neurologic dysfunction from focal ischemia without acute infarction, and symptoms typically resolve within minutes to hours. Persisting deficits for days suggest an ischemic stroke rather than a TIA and require urgent stroke evaluation and treatment. This option incorrectly extends the expected duration well beyond standard clinical definitions used for differentiation. The other statements align with common TIA teaching: it reflects brief cerebral hypoperfusion, produces focal deficits, and signals elevated short-term stroke risk.

Question 38

Which cranial nerve is responsible for outward movement of the eyes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) innervates the lateral rectus, so dysfunction causes impaired abduction and horizontal diplopia. By contrast, CN II is sensory for vision, not extraocular movement. CN X and CN XII primarily control autonomic/voice-swallowing functions and tongue movement, respectively, and do not move the eyes.

Question 39

Which cranial nerve is responsible for movement of eyeball?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The oculomotor nerve innervates the superior, inferior, and medial recti and the inferior oblique, so it is the single best choice for “movement of the eyeball” among the listed options. CN V (trigeminal) is mainly facial sensation and muscles of mastication rather than ocular motility. CN I (olfactory) mediates smell and CN X (vagus) primarily provides parasympathetic and motor function to thoracoabdominal viscera, neither contributing to extraocular movement.

Question 40

Which structures are part of the central nervous system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cranial and spinal nerves are components of the peripheral nervous system that carry signals to and from the CNS. The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are part of the autonomic nervous system, also categorized under the peripheral nervous system. Schwann cells are glial cells that myelinate peripheral nerves, whereas CNS myelin is produced by oligodendrocytes.

Question 41

A major risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option directly matches the well-known population risk gradient where incidence rises sharply after age 65 and continues increasing with advancing age. The other choices are not recognized major causal or predictive risks for Alzheimer’s in standard clinical frameworks. Hypoglycemia can cause acute cognitive symptoms but does not represent a major chronic risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease itself. Therefore the best answer is the age-related risk.

Question 42

Which is a common early symptom of Alzheimer’s?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Patients often repeat questions, misplace items, and have difficulty learning or retaining new information before major language or behavioral changes dominate. Hallucinations are more suggestive of dementia with Lewy bodies or delirium rather than classic early Alzheimer’s. Tremors point more toward parkinsonian disorders, and prominent speech loss usually occurs later or suggests another neurodegenerative aphasia phenotype.

Question 43

A common migraine trigger is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reduced fluid intake or increased losses can contribute to dehydration, which is a well-recognized, frequent trigger reported by many patients and is clinically addressed with hydration and trigger avoidance counseling. In contrast, high protein intake and low cholesterol are not typical established migraine precipitants in standard clinical teaching. While certain foods can trigger migraines in some individuals, the most broadly applicable trigger among these choices is inadequate hydration.

Question 44

Which stage of Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by agitation, incontinence, and wandering?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Agitation and wandering are classic moderate-stage manifestations due to worsening disorientation and impaired judgment, creating safety risks. Incontinence commonly appears as functional dependence increases and the patient can no longer reliably recognize or respond to toileting cues. Mild disease is more consistent with forgetfulness and mild executive dysfunction without major incontinence, while severe disease is dominated by profound cognitive loss, near-total dependence, and often loss of speech and ambulation.

Question 45

A nurse is checking a patient's reflexes. What does the nurse expect to see when she checks the reflex of a patient's patellar?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tapping the patellar tendon stretches the quadriceps, triggering an afferent signal that produces an immediate efferent motor response. The expected normal finding is quadriceps contraction causing knee extension. A slight jerking of the foot is more consistent with the Achilles (ankle) reflex, and elbow extension is tested with the triceps reflex.

Question 46

A client with a C6 spinal injury would most likely have which of the following symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A cervical spinal cord injury at the C6 level affects motor and sensory function in both upper and lower extremities, resulting in tetraplegia (quadriplegia). Paraplegia occurs with thoracic or lumbar injuries, while aphasia and hemiparesis are associated with brain lesions rather than spinal cord injuries.

Question 47

While the nurse is conducting a neurological assessment of an adult client, they elicit the Babinski reflex. The nurse understands that this finding indicates?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In adults, this is abnormal and is most consistent with an upper motor neuron lesion (e.g., stroke, spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis). In contrast, lower motor neuron lesions more typically cause decreased tone, hyporeflexia, and muscle atrophy rather than an extensor plantar response. Cerebellar dysfunction primarily produces ataxia, dysmetria, and intention tremor rather than pathologic plantar reflexes.

Question 48

The most reliable early sign of meningitis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fever and headache are common but nonspecific and can occur in many viral syndromes or systemic infections. Vomiting may occur from increased intracranial pressure or severe illness but is less consistent early and less specific. Thus, the most reliable early sign among the choices is the meningeal sign of neck stiffness.

Question 49

The nurse is assessing a patient with cluster headaches and expects they will report which of the following symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cluster headache is a trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia characterized by severe unilateral orbital/temporal pain with prominent ipsilateral cranial autonomic features. Activation of parasympathetic pathways produces lacrimation, conjunctival injection, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion on the painful side. Patients are typically restless/agitated rather than seeking relief by lying quietly, making positional improvement less consistent with this diagnosis. Phonophobia and vomiting are more characteristic of migraine than cluster headache, so they are less expected here.

Question 50

Which of the following is true regarding dementia and delirium?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This contrasts with dementia, which has an insidious onset and steadily progressive decline in cognitive function. Fluctuating level of consciousness is characteristic of delirium rather than dementia. Delirium is often reversible when the underlying cause is identified and treated, making the “not usually reversible” statement incorrect.

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