Question 1

Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with the brain's reward system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dopamine release in this circuit signals salience and prediction error, strengthening behaviors associated with perceived reward (including many substances of abuse). Serotonin is more strongly linked to mood regulation, appetite, and sleep than primary reward reinforcement. GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter and modulates reward circuits but is not the primary neurotransmitter most closely tied to the reward system.

Question 2

Kerning's sign is a striking feature of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clinically it is elicited by flexing the hip and knee and then attempting knee extension, which becomes painful or resisted. This finding is classically associated with acute meningitis and other causes of meningeal inflammation (e.g., subarachnoid hemorrhage), making it a key bedside clue. In contrast, nephritis is renal inflammation and neuritis involves peripheral nerves, neither producing meningeal stretch signs.

Question 3

Waiter's tip position is seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces an adducted, internally rotated arm with an extended elbow and pronated forearm. That pattern is characteristic of Erb-Duchenne palsy, often associated with birth trauma or traction injury. Facial nerve palsies instead cause unilateral facial weakness and do not produce this upper-limb posture.

Question 4

"Sunset "eye is typical feature of."?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hydrocephalus is a classic cause because CSF accumulation leads to progressive ventricular enlargement and increased pressure. Encephalitis and meningitis may cause altered mental status, fever, and meningeal signs, but the “sunset eyes” finding is not typical or defining. Congenital heart disease primarily causes cyanosis, murmurs, and heart failure signs rather than this ocular sign of increased intracranial pressure.

Question 5

Normal level of ICP in MM/HG?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the choices, the 6–13 mmHg interval best matches this accepted physiologic range and represents a typical “normal” value set used in exams. Values closer to 12–20 mmHg begin to overlap with the threshold where intracranial hypertension is considered (commonly >20–22 mmHg), making that option too high to be “normal.” The 5–10 mmHg range is too narrow and may exclude many normal readings, so it is less accurate as a general normal range.

Question 6

Bell's palsy is associate with the lesion in of-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The facial nerve supplies muscles of facial expression, so its lesion produces unilateral facial droop with inability to close the eye and loss of forehead wrinkling on the affected side. In contrast, CN III primarily controls extraocular movements and pupillary constriction, CN IX is involved in swallowing and gag reflex sensation, and CN XI innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius. Therefore the nerve most directly associated with Bell’s palsy is CN VII.

Question 7

Most common cause of cause of primary hydrocephalus

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In primary (often congenital) cases, the typical mechanism is non-communicating hydrocephalus due to an anatomic blockage (classically aqueductal stenosis) that prevents normal CSF passage through the ventricular system. Overproduction of CSF is rare and usually associated with choroid plexus tumors rather than being the most common cause. Decreased reabsorption is a key cause of communicating hydrocephalus (e.g., after meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage), but it is less often cited as the most common cause of primary hydrocephalus.

Question 8

A thirty-five-year-old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Urinary retention in a person with diabetes is most classically due to diabetic autonomic neuropathy affecting bladder innervation (diabetic cystopathy). Loss of parasympathetic detrusor function and impaired bladder sensation lead to decreased contractility, increased post-void residuals, and eventual inability to void. Diabetic nephropathy primarily causes proteinuria and progressive chronic kidney disease rather than acute urinary retention. Somatic neuropathy more often presents with distal sensory loss, pain, and weakness rather than bladder emptying failure.

Question 9

Mini-mental status examination does not include..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These elements reflect cognitive functioning and related mental functions assessed during a mental status exam. Historical information (including past psychiatric history) is part of the clinical history-taking process, not part of the MMSE scoring items. Therefore, the option describing prior psychiatric history is not included within the MMSE components.

Question 10

Short shuffling gait is characteristically seen in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pattern is a hallmark motor feature of parkinsonism and is commonly accompanied by stooped posture and freezing episodes. Alzheimer’s disease primarily produces cognitive decline rather than a characteristic early motor gait pattern. Multiple sclerosis more often causes spastic or ataxic gait, and myasthenia gravis leads to fatigable weakness without a classic shuffling gait signature.

Question 11

Abnormally high accumulation CSF in the intracranial space is called.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It results from obstruction to CSF flow, impaired absorption at arachnoid villi, or rarely CSF overproduction. The other options describe fluid accumulation in non-cranial compartments (amniotic sac or scrotum) or a localized collection beneath the dura rather than generalized CSF buildup in intracranial CSF pathways. Therefore the best match to abnormal intracranial CSF accumulation is hydrocephalus.

Question 12

Ipsilateral facial palsy with contralateral hemiplegia is seen in lesions of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The facial nerve (CN VII) nucleus/fascicles lie in the pons, so a pontine lesion can produce ipsilateral lower motor neuron facial paralysis. The corticospinal tract runs through the ventral brainstem and has not yet decussated until the lower medulla, so damage above that level causes contralateral hemiplegia. This combination is characteristic of pontine syndromes (e.g., Millard-Gubler/Foville patterns), making this site the best match.

Question 13

Inability to carryout normal activities despite intact motor function is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This matches the description of being unable to carry out normal activities despite intact motor ability. In contrast, anhedonia is loss of pleasure, apathy is diminished motivation/initiative, and amnesia is memory loss—none primarily reflect impaired motor programming. The key distinguishing feature is a disconnect between intact motor execution and impaired ability to organize and sequence complex tasks.

Question 14

Which neurotransmitter deficiency can Myasthenia Gravis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This decreases effective cholinergic transmission, producing fatigable skeletal muscle weakness that improves with rest and with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. The key deficiency is not reduced CNS neurotransmitter production, but reduced functional signaling at the motor end plate, which is best represented by impaired acetylcholine-mediated transmission. Dopamine and serotonin relate more to central mood/movement pathways, and GABA is primarily inhibitory in the CNS rather than the primary driver of neuromuscular transmission.

Question 15

Hallucinations are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They can involve any sensory modality (auditory, visual, tactile, olfactory, gustatory), reinforcing that the primary domain affected is perception rather than mood or cognition. Mood abnormalities refer to sustained emotional states (e.g., depression, mania) and do not define the presence of sensory experiences without stimuli. Thought abnormalities more specifically describe disordered form/content of thinking (e.g., delusions, tangentiality), which is distinct from perceiving nonexistent stimuli.

Question 16

Level of consciousness of client is assessed using?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This standardized neurologic tool helps trend changes over time and communicate severity of impaired consciousness. The burn-related body surface area tool, pressure-injury risk tool, and visual acuity chart measure different clinical domains and do not assess consciousness. Therefore the neurologic scoring system is the most appropriate instrument for LOC assessment.

Question 17

Fever, headache and nuchal rigidity are classic symptoms seen in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This symptom cluster is a hallmark teaching point for acute meningitis and should immediately raise concern for CNS infection requiring urgent evaluation. Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s are chronic neurodegenerative disorders and do not characteristically cause fever with neck stiffness. A brain abscess can cause fever and headache, but nuchal rigidity is less consistently a defining “classic” feature than in meningitis.

Question 18

Type of amnesia in which patient is unable to recall past events, is known as-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This contrasts with anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form or retain new memories after the onset. Circumscribed (localized) amnesia refers to loss of memory for a specific period or event rather than broadly “past events.” Paramnesia involves memory distortions (e.g., déjà vu, confabulation) rather than a primary failure to recall prior experiences.

Question 19

Panic attack is associated with disturbance in all of the following neurotransmitter except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reduced GABA inhibition and altered serotonin signaling help explain autonomic surges and the effectiveness of benzodiazepines and SSRIs in panic disorder. Glutamate is involved in amygdala-based fear conditioning and heightened excitability. Dopamine is more classically associated with reward, motivation, and psychosis-spectrum symptoms rather than being a primary neurotransmitter disturbance driving panic attacks, making it the best “except” choice here.

Question 20

Which of the following is not a test for integrity of 7th and 9th nerve?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CN VII and CN IX can be assessed via taste (CN VII anterior 2/3; CN IX posterior 1/3) and by observing palate/uvula movement related to the gag reflex pathway (afferent CN IX, with associated palatal elevation assessment in the same bedside exam set). Tongue protrusion primarily tests CN XII (hypoglossal) motor function, looking for deviation or weakness. Therefore it does not assess CN VII or CN IX integrity.

Question 21

Handy-Dandy this is my work and want shop apple pie-custard pie, this is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The phrase shifts by rhyme/sound pattern (e.g., “shop” to “apple pie–custard pie”) instead of developing a coherent semantic idea. This is classically seen in manic states and psychotic disorders and reflects disorganized thought based on phonetics. In contrast, flight of ideas has rapid topic shifts that are still meaningfully connected, and word salad is more severely incoherent without clear sound-based links.

Question 22

All of the following are cause of hydrocephalus 'except'?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Obstruction within the ventricular system or subarachnoid pathways prevents normal circulation and leads to ventricular dilation. Reduced absorption at the arachnoid villi (e.g., after meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage) likewise causes CSF accumulation. CSF leakage decreases CSF volume/pressure and is associated with intracranial hypotension rather than hydrocephalus, making it the exception.

Question 23

Which organ controls all activities?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The brain receives and processes internal and external information and sends output through neural pathways to regulate organ systems and behavior. The heart and lungs are vital for circulation and gas exchange, and the liver is crucial for metabolism and detoxification, but none serves as the overarching controller of body activities. Therefore, the best single organ responsible for controlling all activities is the brain.

Question 24

Damage to the VII cranial nerve results in:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the choices, tinnitus is the symptom that matches dysfunction of the auditory pathway. By contrast, loss of smell localizes to CN I (olfactory), and impaired eye movement suggests CN III/IV/VI involvement. Facial pain is more consistent with trigeminal (CN V) pathology rather than the auditory/vestibular nerve.

Question 25

Which of the following conditions is an early symptom of myasthenia gravis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early findings commonly involve ocular muscles because of their frequent, sustained activity, leading to intermittent drooping eyelids and diplopia. Bulbar weakness such as swallowing difficulty can occur but is more suggestive of progression beyond purely ocular involvement. Respiratory distress indicates myasthenic crisis and is a late, emergent manifestation rather than an early symptom; additionally, weakness typically worsens later in the day, making the “improving in the evening” option inconsistent.

Question 26

The commonest cause of primary hydrocephalus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In primary (especially congenital) cases, aqueductal stenosis and other intraventricular outlet obstructions are classic mechanisms. CSF overproduction is rare and typically associated with choroid plexus tumors, making it an uncommon cause overall. Reduced reabsorption is more typical of communicating hydrocephalus after meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than the most common primary mechanism.

Question 27

Which of the following respiratory patterns indicate increasing ICP in the brain stem?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A slowing, irregular pattern is a classic late neurologic sign of brainstem involvement and signals impending respiratory failure if not treated promptly. Rapid, shallow respirations are more consistent with pain, anxiety, fever, or primary pulmonary pathology rather than brainstem compression. Asymmetric chest expansion and nasal flaring are indicators of respiratory mechanics/airway distress, not a hallmark pattern of rising intracranial pressure.

Question 28

Bell's palsy is associate with the lesion in of-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces unilateral facial weakness affecting both the forehead and lower face, with impaired eye closure and flattened nasolabial fold. The facial nerve also carries taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and parasympathetic fibers to lacrimal/salivary glands, so patients may have altered taste or dry eye. In contrast, 3rd cranial nerve lesions primarily cause ptosis, diplopia, and pupil abnormalities rather than isolated facial paralysis.

Question 29

Most common cause of primary hydrocephalus

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In primary (non–secondary to tumor, hemorrhage, or infection) cases, congenital obstruction—classically aqueductal stenosis—prevents normal CSF passage from the ventricles to the subarachnoid space. CSF overproduction is rare and typically associated with choroid plexus tumors rather than primary hydrocephalus. Decreased reabsorption can cause communicating hydrocephalus, but the most common overall mechanism tested is obstructive (noncommunicating) flow blockage.

Question 30

Which of the following symptoms is associated with exacerbation of multiple sclerosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute optic pathway involvement or internuclear ophthalmoplegia can present with blurred vision and double vision during a relapse. This symptom is therefore a classic relapse manifestation rather than a nonspecific systemic complaint. Seizures can occur in MS but are less typical as a hallmark of exacerbation compared with visual and ocular motor symptoms. Anorexia and insomnia are nonspecific and do not directly reflect new demyelinating lesion activity.

Question 31

Which of the following conditions indicates that spinal shock is resolving in a client with C7 quadriplegia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Resolution is marked by the return of spinal reflexes and increasing muscle tone, often transitioning to hyperreflexia and spasticity. The development of spasticity therefore indicates reflex arc recovery and that the shock phase is ending. Persistent sensory loss does not signal recovery, and autonomic/bladder control typically returns later and is not the hallmark early sign of resolving spinal shock.

Question 32

A female client who was trapped inside a car for hours after a head-on collision is rushed to the emergency department with multiple injuries. During the neurologic examination, the client responds to painful stimuli with decerebrate posturing. This finding indicates damage to which part of the brain?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Decerebrate posturing reflects dysfunction at or below the level of the red nucleus, where brainstem motor pathways become disinhibited. Lesions in the midbrain classically produce extensor (decerebrate) rigidity in response to noxious stimuli. In contrast, decorticate posturing is more consistent with injury above the midbrain (cerebral hemispheres/internal capsule). Therefore, the neuroanatomic level most directly implicated by decerebrate posturing is the midbrain.

Question 33

The nurse is assessing a 37-year-old client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Demyelination commonly involves the optic nerve and other visual pathways, leading to symptoms such as blurred vision, diplopia, or optic neuritis. This makes visual disturbance a classic, expected finding during assessment. Absent deep tendon reflexes and flaccid muscles are more characteristic of lower motor neuron or peripheral nerve involvement rather than CNS demyelination. Resting tremor is more typical of Parkinson disease; MS more often causes intention tremor and ataxia.

Question 34

While cooking, your client couldn’t feel the temperature of a hot oven. Which lobe could be dysfunctional?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This region is located in the parietal lobe and integrates touch, pain, and temperature from the contralateral side of the body. A deficit in perceiving heat while cooking most directly indicates impaired somatosensory processing rather than visual processing. By contrast, the occipital lobe primarily mediates vision, and the temporal lobe is more associated with auditory processing and memory.

Question 35

What are the folds of the cerebellum called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These characteristic cerebellar folds are termed folia, which are much narrower and more numerous than cerebral folds. By contrast, gyri and sulci describe the ridges and grooves of the cerebral hemispheres. Therefore, the anatomy-specific term for cerebellar folds is the one that directly names these leaf-like ridges.

Question 36

Which of these assessment findings should the healthcare provider expect to identify as an early clinical characteristic of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Optic neuritis can present early with decreased visual acuity, visual field loss, pain with eye movement, and impaired color vision, making visual change a classic early finding. Dementia is not a typical early feature and, when cognitive impairment occurs, it is usually later and more subtle. Muscle atrophy suggests lower motor neuron disease or disuse and is not a primary early hallmark of MS. Clonus reflects upper motor neuron involvement and can occur in MS, but it is less characteristic as an initial presenting complaint than optic neuritis-related vision changes.

Question 37

The longest cell in the human body is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This extreme length supports rapid, directed electrical signaling over large body regions with minimal synaptic interruptions. In contrast, muscle fibers can be large cells, but they do not typically span comparable distances as one continuous cellular projection like an axon. Bone and blood cells are relatively small and are not structured to form long, continuous processes.

Question 38

Which deep tendon reflex is assessed by striking the Achilles tendon?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Striking the Achilles tendon stretches the gastrocnemius-soleus complex, triggering plantarflexion via the tibial nerve and S1 (primarily) spinal root, which defines the ankle jerk reflex. This is distinct from the patellar reflex (L3–L4, femoral nerve) and upper-extremity reflexes like biceps (C5–C6) and triceps (C7–C8). An absent or diminished response can suggest peripheral neuropathy, S1 radiculopathy, or lower motor neuron dysfunction, while hyperreflexia suggests an upper motor neuron process.

Question 39

The nurse is working with a client who is suspected of having posttraumatic stress disorder after witnessing a violent crime. What statement by the client's spouse would suggest that the client is experiencing hyperarousal?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " Hyperarousal in PTSD reflects heightened sympathetic nervous system activation and exaggerated startle/irritability, often presenting as being on edge, angry outbursts, and sleep disturbance. Persistent irritability is a classic hyperarousal symptom and directly signals increased physiologic and emotional reactivity after trauma. In contrast, excessive sleeping suggests hypoarousal, depression, or avoidance-related numbing rather than increased arousal. Overeating and decreased libido can occur with stress or mood changes but are not as specific to the hyperarousal cluster as irritability and heightened reactivity.

Question 40

A patient with Bell's Palsy would have which of the following complaints?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to complaints such as facial droop, inability to close the eye, decreased tearing, altered taste on the anterior tongue, and sometimes hyperacusis. Arm paralysis would suggest a central lesion involving corticospinal pathways rather than an isolated facial neuropathy. It is not a subtype of cerebral palsy, and while stroke can cause facial weakness, it more often produces upper motor neuron findings (forehead sparing) and additional focal deficits.

Question 41

When the nurse explains the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis to a patient, which is the best explanation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoimmune destruction/blockade of postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, reducing effective neuromuscular transmission. With fewer functional receptors available, end-plate potentials fail to trigger consistent muscle fiber depolarization, producing fatigable skeletal muscle weakness. This mechanism best matches the option describing reduced acetylcholine effect at cholinergic receptors leading to weakness. The other choices describe Alzheimer disease (plaques/tangles), multiple sclerosis (demyelinating plaques), and Parkinson disease (dopamine–acetylcholine imbalance), which are different pathophysiologic processes.

Question 42

A 42-yr old patient who was adopted at birth is diagnosed with Huntington Disease. When teaching the patient and family about the disorder, the nurse will explain that Huntington’s Disease is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because there is no cure and progression is inevitable, patients often require increasing levels of assistance, supervision, and long-term supportive care. The inheritance pattern is autosomal dominant with a 50% risk to each child, so the 25% figure is incorrect. Treatments are symptomatic; management does not consist of simply replacing acetylcholine and GABA to control the disease course.

Question 43

A patient with ALS is hospitalized with pneumonia. During the assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect manifestations of ALS to include?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder affecting upper and lower motor neurons, producing progressive loss of voluntary motor function. Denervation of skeletal muscle leads to weakness, atrophy (wasting), and often fasciculations, with bulbar and respiratory muscle involvement increasing risk for complications such as pneumonia. Cognition is typically preserved in classic ALS, so a primary decline in cognitive function is not an expected core manifestation. Psychosis and excessive involuntary movements are not characteristic features of ALS and point to alternative neurologic or psychiatric conditions.

Question 44

Main organ affected in meningitis..??

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This inflammation raises intracranial pressure and disrupts normal neurologic function, producing classic findings such as headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, and altered mental status. Although the infection is located in the coverings, the clinically affected “main organ” is the brain/CNS. Skin, heart, and kidney are not the primary sites of pathology in meningitis, even though severe infection can cause systemic complications.

Question 45

Branched process of neuron are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These projections are dendrites, which typically form extensive arborization around the cell body and contain many postsynaptic receptor sites. In contrast, the axon is usually a single elongated process specialized for transmitting action potentials away from the soma. Myelin sheath is an insulating covering around axons, and a synapse is the functional junction between cells, not a branched neuronal process.

Question 46

Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling voluntary movements and coordinating motor skills?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This region plans and initiates purposeful movement via corticospinal pathways and works with other motor areas to refine skilled actions. The hypothalamus primarily regulates autonomic and endocrine homeostasis rather than somatic motor output. The parietal lobe is mainly sensory integration/spatial processing, and the occipital lobe is dedicated to vision, making them less directly responsible for initiating voluntary movement.

Question 47

The nurse is assigned to a client with Parkinson's disease. Which findings would the nurse anticipate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Increased muscle tone produces stiffness and painful muscle cramps/spasms, and postural reflex impairment commonly results in a stooped, flexed posture. A shuffling gait can occur in Parkinson’s, but echolalia is not a typical Parkinsonian finding and points more toward other neuropsychiatric conditions. Intention tremor and jerky limb movements are more consistent with cerebellar disease or choreiform disorders rather than classic Parkinsonian resting tremor and rigidity.

Question 48

A nurse is assigned to a client who is a new admission for the treatment of a frontal lobe brain tumor. Which history offered by the family members would be anticipated by the nurse as associated with the diagnosis and communicated?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " Frontal lobe lesions commonly cause personality and behavior changes because this region governs executive function, impulse control, and social inhibition. Irritability, disinhibition, and emotional lability are classic family-reported symptoms in frontal lobe tumors, often preceding focal motor findings. By contrast, blurred print with morning/evening pattern points more toward raised intracranial pressure or occipital/visual pathway involvement than specifically frontal lobe dysfunction. A chronically low respiratory rate is not a typical presenting feature of a localized frontal lobe tumor unless there is significant brainstem involvement or medication effect.

Question 49

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by the compression of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to paresthesia, numbness, and pain classically in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger, sometimes with thenar weakness. The nerve responsible for these sensory and motor findings at the wrist is the median nerve. In contrast, ulnar nerve compression typically affects the little finger and ulnar half of the ring finger and occurs at sites like Guyon’s canal or the cubital tunnel rather than the carpal tunnel. Therefore, the best answer is compression of the median nerve.

Question 50

Sence of smell is perceived by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes the temporal lobe the key cortical area for conscious perception of smell. The occipital lobe is primarily visual cortex, and the parietal lobe is mainly somatosensory and spatial processing. Although "olfactory lobe" is an older/less standard term sometimes used in basic texts, among true cerebral lobes the temporal lobe is the best answer.

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Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with the brain's reward system?

Kerning's sign is a striking feature of ?

Waiter's tip position is seen in ?

"Sunset "eye is typical feature of."?

Normal level of ICP in MM/HG?

Bell's palsy is associate with the lesion in of-?

Most common cause of cause of primary hydrocephalus

A thirty-five-year-old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

Mini-mental status examination does not include..?

Short shuffling gait is characteristically seen in?

Abnormally high accumulation CSF in the intracranial space is called.?

Ipsilateral facial palsy with contralateral hemiplegia is seen in lesions of?

Inability to carryout normal activities despite intact motor function is?

Which neurotransmitter deficiency can Myasthenia Gravis?

Hallucinations are?

Level of consciousness of client is assessed using?

Fever, headache and nuchal rigidity are classic symptoms seen in?

Type of amnesia in which patient is unable to recall past events, is known as-?

Panic attack is associated with disturbance in all of the following neurotransmitter except?

Which of the following is not a test for integrity of 7th and 9th nerve?

Handy-Dandy this is my work and want shop apple pie-custard pie, this is?

All of the following are cause of hydrocephalus 'except'?

Which organ controls all activities?

Damage to the VII cranial nerve results in:

Which of the following conditions is an early symptom of myasthenia gravis?

The commonest cause of primary hydrocephalus is?

Which of the following respiratory patterns indicate increasing ICP in the brain stem?

Bell's palsy is associate with the lesion in of-?

Most common cause of primary hydrocephalus

Which of the following symptoms is associated with exacerbation of multiple sclerosis?

Which of the following conditions indicates that spinal shock is resolving in a client with C7 quadriplegia?

The nurse is assessing a 37-year-old client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find?

While cooking, your client couldn’t feel the temperature of a hot oven. Which lobe could be dysfunctional?

What are the folds of the cerebellum called?

Which of these assessment findings should the healthcare provider expect to identify as an early clinical characteristic of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

The longest cell in the human body is?

Which deep tendon reflex is assessed by striking the Achilles tendon?

The nurse is working with a client who is suspected of having posttraumatic stress disorder after witnessing a violent crime. What statement by the client's spouse would suggest that the client is experiencing hyperarousal?

A patient with Bell's Palsy would have which of the following complaints?

When the nurse explains the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis to a patient, which is the best explanation?

A 42-yr old patient who was adopted at birth is diagnosed with Huntington Disease. When teaching the patient and family about the disorder, the nurse will explain that Huntington’s Disease is?

A patient with ALS is hospitalized with pneumonia. During the assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect manifestations of ALS to include?

Main organ affected in meningitis..??

Branched process of neuron are?

Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling voluntary movements and coordinating motor skills?

The nurse is assigned to a client with Parkinson's disease. Which findings would the nurse anticipate?

A nurse is assigned to a client who is a new admission for the treatment of a frontal lobe brain tumor. Which history offered by the family members would be anticipated by the nurse as associated with the diagnosis and communicated?

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by the compression of?

Sence of smell is perceived by?

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