Gastrointestinal System Practice Test 5
Gastrointestinal System NCLEX Practice Test
Gastrointestinal System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Gastrointestinal System. This section explains digestion, elimination, and nursing care for GI pathologies and nutrition issues. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 5th part of the Gastrointestinal System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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In the Gastrointestinal System Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Gastrointestinal System Practice Test 5
Which enzyme acts on milk in the stomach?
- Invertase
- Renin
- Diastase
- Trypsin
Explanation: Answer reason: Rennin (chymosin)—often written as ‘renin’ in such options—acts in the stomach, especially in infants, to coagulate milk casein. Invertase splits sucrose, diastase/amylase digests starch, and trypsin acts in the small intestine.
Which organ does the mesenteric artery supply blood to?
- Large intestine
- Small intestine
- Kidney
- Heart
Explanation: Answer reason: The superior mesenteric artery primarily supplies the small intestine; mesenteric arteries supply intestinal organs, not the kidney or heart. While parts of the large intestine receive branches, the key association is with the small intestine.
Which organ in the human body can store substances?
- Kidney
- Muscles
- Gall bladder
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: The gallbladder’s primary function is to store and concentrate bile; kidney filters/excretes, muscles are not an organ for storage, and while the liver stores nutrients, the organ specialized for storage in this list is the gallbladder.
Regional enteritis is also called?
- Ulcerative colitis
- Conn's Disease
- Irritable bowel Syndrome
- Crohn's Disease
Explanation: Answer reason: Regional enteritis is the historical term for Crohn's disease, a transmural inflammatory bowel disease. The other options refer to different conditions (ulcerative colitis, Conn's syndrome, and IBS).
Where is the pain typically experienced in appendicitis?
- Above umbilicus
- Left iliac fossa
- Below umbilicus
- McBurney's point
Explanation: Answer reason: Appendicitis pain typically localizes to the right lower quadrant at McBurney's point after initially being periumbilical.
Where is bile produced?
- Liver
- Stomach
- Pancreas
- Receptor
Explanation: Answer reason: Bile is synthesized by hepatocytes in the liver; it is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder.
What is the common abdominal incision used for gallbladder surgery?
- McBurney gridiron
- Kocher's incision
- Pfannenstiel
- Left paramedian
Explanation: Answer reason: Open cholecystectomy commonly uses a right subcostal (Kocher) incision; other options correspond to appendectomy (McBurney), gynecologic/lower abdominal access (Pfannenstiel), or left-sided approaches.
When someone has Hepatitis, which organ is affected?
- The lung
- The liver
- The kidney
- The heart
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver; therefore the affected organ is the liver.
What is the length of the esophagus?
- 15 cm
- 25 cm
- 40 cm
- 50 cm
Explanation: Answer reason: The adult esophagus measures about 25 cm in length from the cricoid to the gastroesophageal junction; 40 cm refers to the distance from incisors used in endoscopy, not the anatomical length.
Which is the longest section of the small intestine?
- The stomach
- The liver
- The small intestine
- The large intestine
Explanation: Answer reason: Among the provided choices, only the small intestine is a longest segment (of the digestive tract). The stem appears misphrased, as the longest part of the small intestine itself is the ileum, which is not listed.
What is the most common complaint of persons with colorectal cancer?
- Abdominal pain
- Hemorrhoids
- Change in caliber of stools
- Change in bowel habits
Explanation: Answer reason: Colorectal cancer commonly presents with altered bowel habits (e.g., constipation, diarrhea, or alternating patterns) due to partial obstruction, especially in left-sided lesions. Abdominal pain and change in stool caliber are less common, and hemorrhoids are not typical presenting features.
In which abdominal region is the appendix located?
- Left hypochondrium
- Right hypochondrium
- Left iliac fossa
- Right iliac fossa
Explanation: Answer reason: The vermiform appendix is located in the right lower quadrant corresponding to the right iliac fossa near McBurney's point.
Projectile vomiting is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
- Pyloric stenosis
- Hernia
- Imperforate anus
- Appendicitis
Explanation: Answer reason: Projectile, non-bilious vomiting after feeds is classic for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Hernia, imperforate anus, and appendicitis do not typically present with projectile vomiting.
Which part of the body is affected in typhoid?
- Lungs
- Intestine
- Liver
- Pancreas
Explanation: Answer reason: Typhoid fever caused by Salmonella typhi primarily involves the small intestine, especially Peyer’s patches, leading to intestinal ulceration.
Which J-shaped, bag-like structure is described?
- Liver
- Stomach
- Ilium
- Rectum
Explanation: Answer reason: The stomach is a J-shaped, bag-like organ in the upper left abdomen.
What is the most common cause of obstructive jaundice?
- Chronic cholecystitis
- Carcinoma of liver
- Calculi (stone) in common bile duct
- Cirrhosis of liver
Explanation: Answer reason: Choledocholithiasis is the most common cause of extrahepatic biliary obstruction, leading to obstructive jaundice. The other options are less common causes or usually cause intrahepatic disease.
Which animal has four stomach chambers?
- Pig
- Dog
- Cow
Explanation: Answer reason: Cows are ruminants with four stomach compartments—rumen, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum—unlike monogastric animals such as pigs and dogs.
Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system?
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Salivary glands
- Prostate glands
Explanation: Answer reason: Liver, pancreas, and salivary glands are accessory digestive organs; the prostate gland is part of the male reproductive system, not the digestive system.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by incompetence of the esophageal sphincter?
- Crohn's disease
- Esophageal varices
- Gastroesophageal reflux disease
- Pyloric stenosis
- Stomatitis
Explanation: Answer reason: GERD results from incompetence of the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing gastric contents to reflux into the esophagus.
Which of the following organs removes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma proteins, and is involved with the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen?
- Gallbladder
- Kidney
- Liver
- Spleen
- Stomach
Explanation: Answer reason: The liver conjugates and removes bilirubin from blood and synthesizes plasma proteins and clotting factors, including prothrombin and fibrinogen.
Which of the following best describes the process whereby the stomach muscles contract to propel food through the digestive tract?
- Absorption
- Emulsion
- Peristalsis
- Regurgitation
- Secretion
Explanation: Answer reason: Peristalsis is the coordinated rhythmic contraction of gastrointestinal smooth muscle that propels food forward. Absorption is nutrient uptake, emulsion is fat dispersion, regurgitation is backward flow, and secretion is release of digestive substances.
Where are Peyer's patches situated?
- Small intestine
- Large intestine
- Stomach
- Esophagus
Explanation: Answer reason: Peyer's patches are aggregated lymphoid nodules located in the ileum of the small intestine (part of GALT).
Where does the absorption of iron primarily occur in the body?
- Stomach
- Duodenum
- Jejunum
- Ileum
Explanation: Answer reason: Dietary iron is absorbed mainly in the duodenum (and proximal jejunum) via transporters like DMT1; thus the duodenum is the primary site.
Where is the appendix situated?
- Right umbilical region
- Hypogastric region
- Right iliac region
- Left iliac region
Explanation: Answer reason: The vermiform appendix lies in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, corresponding to the right iliac (right iliac fossa) region near McBurney’s point.
Gingivitis is a disorder of which system?
- Nerve
- Sensory
- Muscular
- Alimentary
Explanation: Answer reason: Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums (gingiva) in the oral cavity, part of the alimentary/digestive system.
Where does the digestion of protein primarily start in the human digestive system?
- Small intestine
- Large intestine
- Mouth
- Stomach
Explanation: Answer reason: Protein digestion begins in the stomach where hydrochloric acid denatures proteins and pepsin initiates proteolysis.
Which of the following factors does NOT increase gastric motility?
- Abdominal distension
- Fear
- Stress
- Vagotomy
Explanation: Answer reason: Cutting the vagus nerve removes parasympathetic stimulation to the stomach, which normally promotes gastric motility; thus vagotomy decreases rather than increases motility. Abdominal distension and emotional states can enhance motility via reflex/autonomic effects.
A nurse is evaluating a patient with a suspected small bowel obstruction. Which finding is most characteristic of this condition?
- Increased appetite
- Projectile vomiting of bile or feculent material
- Normal bowel sounds
- Frequent loose stools
- Improved abdominal comfort after meals
Explanation: Answer reason: Obstruction of the small intestine leads to accumulation of intestinal contents, causing forceful vomiting of bile or, in severe cases, feculent material. This is a hallmark symptom distinguishing SBO from other GI disorders.
The length of small intestine is?
- 5m
- 6m
- 7m
- 2m
Explanation: Answer reason: In adults, the small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, ileum) measures about 6 meters in length in situ. While cadaveric measurements can extend to 6–7 meters due to relaxation, the commonly accepted clinical average is approximately 6 m. Values like 5 m or 7 m fall within possible ranges but are less standard, and 2 m is far too short for normal anatomy.
The small intestine is about .....?
- 4m long
- 5m long
- 3m long
- 7m long
Explanation: Answer reason: In adults, the small intestine typically measures about 6–7 meters in length, with variability due to muscular tone and measurement conditions. Many anatomical references round this to approximately 7 meters. Among the provided choices, 7 m best represents the usual average length.
Typhoid fever affects which organ?
- Intestine
- Brain
- Kidney
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: Typhoid fever is an enteric infection caused by Salmonella Typhi transmitted via the fecal–oral route. The pathogen invades the small intestine, particularly Peyer’s patches in the ileum, leading to ulceration and inflammation. Clinical complications include abdominal pain, diarrhea or constipation, and possible intestinal hemorrhage or perforation. While the liver and spleen may be secondarily involved, the primary organ affected is the intestine.
Earliest and commonest clinical feature of primary biliary cirrhosis?
- Pain
- Pruitus
- Fever
- Jaundice
Explanation: Answer reason: Primary biliary cholangitis (formerly primary biliary cirrhosis) causes chronic cholestasis due to autoimmune destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts. Accumulation of bile salts in the skin leads to intense pruritus, which is often the earliest and most common presenting symptom along with fatigue. Jaundice typically occurs later in the disease, and pain or fever are not characteristic early features.
Bile juices are produced by...?
- Spleen
- Kidney
- Liver
- Gallbladder
Explanation: Answer reason: Bile is synthesized by hepatocytes in the liver and contains bile acids, bilirubin, cholesterol, and phospholipids. It then flows through hepatic ducts to the duodenum or to the gallbladder for storage and concentration. The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile but does not produce it. The spleen and kidneys have unrelated hematologic and excretory functions, respectively.
PH of stomach is?
- 3.5
- 1.8
- 2.5
- 7.5
Explanation: Answer reason: Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid, creating a highly acidic gastric lumen with a typical fasting pH of about 1–3, optimal for pepsin activity and antimicrobial defense. Among the options, 1.8 best represents this strongly acidic environment. A pH of 2.5 or 3.5 is less acidic than typical fasting gastric content, and 7.5 is alkaline and inconsistent with normal stomach physiology.
Cullen's sign is seen in?
- Appendicitis
- Cholelithiasis
- Pancreatitis
- Peptic ulcer
Explanation: Answer reason: Cullen's sign is bluish periumbilical discoloration from intraperitoneal hemorrhage. It is classically associated with acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis due to pancreatic enzyme–mediated vascular injury. It is not typical of appendicitis, cholelithiasis, or peptic ulcer disease. Gray Turner's sign (flank ecchymosis) may accompany severe pancreatitis as well.
Which enzyme is necessary for the absorption of proteins from the food in the stomach?
- Trypsin
- Pepsin
- Amylase
- Lipase
- Chymotrypsin
Explanation: Answer reason: Pepsin is the primary gastric protease, secreted by chief cells as pepsinogen and activated by gastric acid. It initiates protein digestion in the stomach by cleaving peptide bonds to form smaller peptides. Trypsin and chymotrypsin are pancreatic enzymes that act in the small intestine, not the stomach. Amylase digests carbohydrates and lipase digests fats.
Identify the part of human stomach which connects / joint with oesophagus-?
- Cardia
- Body
- Fundus
- Pylorus
Explanation: Answer reason: The esophagus enters the stomach at the gastroesophageal junction, which opens into the cardia. The cardia is the region just distal to the lower esophageal sphincter and serves as the connection with the esophagus. The fundus is the dome-shaped superior part, the body is the central portion, and the pylorus is the distal outlet to the duodenum.
The main function of liver is.............?
- Production
- Reduction
- Detoxification
- Oxidation
Explanation: Answer reason: The liver’s central role is detoxification of endogenous wastes and xenobiotics. Hepatocytes metabolize drugs and toxins via phase I (cytochrome P450 oxidation/reduction) and phase II conjugation to make them water-soluble for excretion, and convert ammonia to urea. While the liver also produces bile and plasma proteins, detoxification is its primary protective function. Oxidation and reduction are specific reactions, not the organ’s overarching function.
Which is not the cause of gastritis?
- Hookworm
- Round worm
- Ringworm
- Tapeworm
Explanation: Answer reason: Gastritis is inflammation of the gastric mucosa, most commonly due to Helicobacter pylori infection, NSAIDs, alcohol, or stress. Ringworm is a dermatophyte fungal infection of the skin and does not involve the gastrointestinal tract. In contrast, hookworm, roundworm, and tapeworm are intestinal helminths that can cause gastrointestinal symptoms or irritation, though they are not classic causes of gastritis. Therefore, ringworm is not a cause of gastritis.
Inflammation of liver is called?
- Gastritis
- Hepatitis
- Pancreatitis
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Inflammation of the liver is termed hepatitis: 'hepat-' refers to liver and '-itis' denotes inflammation. Gastritis is inflammation of the stomach, and pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas. Therefore, the correct term for liver inflammation is hepatitis.
What will help in protein digestion in the stomach?
- Pepsin
- Trypsin
- Ptyalin
- Renin
Explanation: Answer reason: Pepsin is the principal gastric protease; it is secreted as pepsinogen by chief cells and activated in the acidic environment of the stomach to begin protein digestion. Trypsin is a pancreatic enzyme that acts in the duodenum, not the stomach. Ptyalin (salivary amylase) digests carbohydrates. Renin/rennin has a role in milk curdling in infants and is not the primary enzyme for protein digestion in the stomach.
Which of the following does not increase the pH of chyme in the duodenum?
- Bile
- Bicarbonate
- Secretin
- Gastrin
Explanation: Answer reason: Bile and pancreatic bicarbonate help neutralize gastric acid, raising the duodenal pH. Secretin stimulates secretion of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice and bile, thereby increasing pH as chyme enters the duodenum. Gastrin, however, promotes gastric acid (HCl) secretion in the stomach, lowering pH of chyme; it does not contribute to alkalinizing the duodenum.
Hepatitis affects which organ of the body?
- Heart
- Lungs
- Liver
- Kidneys
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis is defined as inflammation of the liver, most commonly caused by viral infections (e.g., hepatitis A–E), toxins, or autoimmune disease. Liver inflammation leads to impaired metabolic and synthetic functions, producing findings such as jaundice and elevated transaminases. The heart, lungs, and kidneys are not the primary targets of hepatitis.
The stomach contains an acid called?
- H2SO4
- HCL
- HNO3
Explanation: Answer reason: Gastric parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl), which lowers gastric pH to aid protein denaturation and activates pepsinogen to pepsin for digestion. It also provides a barrier to ingested pathogens. Sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3) are not produced in the human stomach and would be corrosive toxins.
Saliva helps in the digestion in?
- Starch
- Protein
- Glucose
- Fat
Explanation: Answer reason: Saliva contains salivary amylase (ptyalin), which initiates chemical digestion of carbohydrates by hydrolyzing starch into maltose and dextrins. Significant protein and fat digestion do not occur in the mouth. Glucose is already a monosaccharide and does not require digestion. Therefore, saliva helps digest starch.
Which of the following is Disease of Liver?
- Ricket
- Goitre
- Cataract
- Jaundice
Explanation: Answer reason: Jaundice is a clinical condition characterized by yellowing of the skin and sclera due to elevated bilirubin, commonly resulting from liver dysfunction or biliary obstruction. It directly reflects hepatic disease such as hepatitis or cirrhosis, or cholestatic processes. Rickets involves bone due to vitamin D deficiency, goitre is thyroid enlargement, and cataract is lens opacity, none of which are liver diseases.
Water + sodium glycolate + cholesterol + lecithin + sodium taurocholate is the composition of?
- Saliva
- Gastric juice
- Bile
- Pancreatic juice
Explanation: Answer reason: Bile contains bile salts such as sodium glycocholate and sodium taurocholate along with phospholipids (lecithin), cholesterol, and water. These components emulsify dietary fats to aid digestion. Gastric juice primarily contains hydrochloric acid and pepsin, saliva contains enzymes like amylase, and pancreatic juice contains digestive enzymes and bicarbonate—none contain bile salts and high cholesterol. Therefore, the described composition matches bile.
Hepatitis B affected which organ?
- Heart
- Liver
- Kidney
- Mouth
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis B is a hepatotropic virus that targets hepatocytes, leading to inflammation of the liver. It can cause acute and chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular carcinoma. The heart, kidneys, and mouth are not the primary organs affected by HBV infection.
The part of large intestine is?
- Deudenun
- Ileum
- Colon
- Jejunum
Explanation: Answer reason: The large intestine consists of the cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal. The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum are segments of the small intestine. Therefore, among the options listed, only the colon is a component of the large intestine.
Which body part affected in Typhoid?
- Lungs
- Intestine
- Liver
- Pancreas
Explanation: Answer reason: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi, which primarily invades the small intestine, especially the Peyer’s patches of the terminal ileum. The infection can lead to ulceration with complications such as intestinal bleeding and perforation. Although typhoid becomes systemic, the initial and main organ system involved is the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, the intestine is the primary body part affected.
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