Gastrointestinal System Practice Test 3
Gastrointestinal System NCLEX Practice Test
Gastrointestinal System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Gastrointestinal System. This section explains digestion, elimination, and nursing care for GI pathologies and nutrition issues. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 3rd part of the Gastrointestinal System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Gastrointestinal System Practice Test 3
A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?
- The NG drainage is greenish-yellow and watery.
- The patient reports mild throat irritation from the tube.
- The patient’s abdomen becomes distended and firm with absent bowel sounds.
- The NG output decreases from 300 mL to 150 mL over the past 8 hours.
Explanation: Answer reason: Abdominal distention and absent bowel sounds suggest possible intestinal obstruction or paralytic ileus, which can lead to perforation or other serious postoperative complications. This finding requires immediate provider notification for further evaluation and potential intervention.
The hormone that stimulates the release of bile from the gallbladder is?
- Insulin
- Gastrin
- Secretin
- Cholecystokinin (cck)
Explanation: Answer reason: CCK released from duodenal I cells in response to fats causes gallbladder contraction and sphincter of Oddi relaxation, releasing bile.
The nurse explains that pruritus in the patient with hepatitis is related to?
- Decreased fat intake.
- Poor appetite and therefore poor protein intake.
- Accumulation of bile salts under the skin.
- Altered urinary output of bile.
Explanation: Answer reason: In hepatitis with cholestasis, bile salts accumulate in the skin and cause itching (pruritus). The other options do not explain the mechanism of pruritus.
What is the average length of an adult's stomach?
- 12 inches
- 14 inches
- 10 inches
- 18 inches
Explanation: Answer reason: The adult stomach is about 25 cm in length on average, which is approximately 10 inches.
Which of the following best describes the symptom complex known as intestinal angina?
- Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
- Acute mesenteric vessel occlusion
- Preprandial abdominal pain, weight loss
- Preprandial abdominal pain, weight gain, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion
Explanation: Answer reason: Intestinal angina (chronic mesenteric ischemia) presents with postprandial abdominal pain leading to food fear and weight loss, due to chronic mesenteric arterial occlusive disease.
In which one of the following excessive reflux of hydrochloric acid into the esophagus occurs?
- Esophagitis
- GERD (Gastro esophageal reflux diseases)
- Gastritis
- B and c only
Explanation: Answer reason: GERD is defined by backward flow of gastric contents, including hydrochloric acid, into the esophagus; esophagitis is a complication and gastritis affects the stomach.
What is the most accurate explanation for the swollen abdomen in a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver?
- He must have been eating too many foods with salt in them. Salt pulls water with it.
- The swelling in his ankles must have moved up closer to his heart so the fluid circulates better.
- He must have forgotten to take his daily water pill.
- Blood is not able to flow readily through the liver now, and the liver cannot make protein to keep fluid inside the blood vessels.
Explanation: Answer reason: Ascites in advanced cirrhosis results from portal hypertension impairing hepatic blood flow and decreased hepatic albumin synthesis, which lowers plasma oncotic pressure, allowing fluid to shift into the peritoneal cavity.
The most common fatal complication of chronic peptic ulcer disease is?
- Acute Gastritis
- Perforation and peritonitis
- Pancreatitis
- Pyloric outlet obstruction
Explanation: Answer reason: Ulcer perforation spills gastric contents into the peritoneum causing peritonitis and sepsis, making it the most lethal complication of PUD.
What is the PRIMARY role of the small intestine in digestion?
- Absorption of nutrients
- Production of digestive enzymes
- Stool formation & excretion
- Secretion of bile
Explanation: Answer reason: The small intestine’s primary function is nutrient absorption via villi and microvilli. Bile is secreted by the liver/gallbladder, stool formation occurs mainly in the large intestine, and most digestive enzymes come from the pancreas and intestinal mucosa.
The first stool of neonate is called?
- Sebum
- Lenugo
- Meconium
- Vernix caseosa
Explanation: Answer reason: Meconium is the thick, greenish-black, tarry first stool of a newborn. Sebum is skin oil, lanugo (misspelled as lenugo) is fine fetal hair, and vernix caseosa is the waxy skin coating.
Which organ is mostly affected by chronic alcohol consumption?
- Kidney
- Liver
- Pancrease
- Lungs
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic alcohol consumption primarily damages the liver, leading to fatty liver, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis.
Which liver condition leads to generalized edema and ascites?
- Hepatitis A
- Cirrhosis
- Fatty liver
- Gallstones
Explanation: Answer reason: Cirrhosis causes portal hypertension and decreased albumin synthesis, leading to fluid shifts that produce ascites and generalized edema.
Pancreatic juice contains enzymes for digesting?
- Carbohydrates
- Proteins
- Fats
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Pancreatic juice contains amylase for carbohydrates, proteases (trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase) for proteins, and lipase for fats.
What pancreatic enzyme aids in the digestion of carbohydrates?
- Lipase
- Trypsin
- Amylase
- Chymotrypsin
Explanation: Answer reason: Pancreatic amylase breaks down starch and other carbohydrates to disaccharides; lipase digests fats, and trypsin/chymotrypsin digest proteins.
What is the main function of the small intestine?
- Absorption of nutrients
- Production of bile
- Detoxification
- Storage of waste
Explanation: Answer reason: The small intestine’s primary role is nutrient absorption via villi and microvilli. Bile production and detoxification occur in the liver, and waste storage is a function of the large intestine.
What is the condition called in which there is an impaired ability to absorb gluten in the small intestine?
- Celiac Disease
- Appendicitis
- Lactose Intolerance
- Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Explanation: Answer reason: Celiac disease is an autoimmune-mediated enteropathy triggered by gluten that damages the small intestinal villi, causing malabsorption of gluten.
What is the typical distance in centimeters between the incisor teeth and the gastroesophageal junction when inserting a Ryle’s tube in an adult patient?
- 20 cm
- 30 cm
- 40 cm
- 50 cm
Explanation: Answer reason: In adults the incisors-to–gastroesophageal junction distance is approximately 40 cm, a standard depth used for NG/Ryle’s tube placement landmarks.
Impaired peristalsis of the smooth muscle of the esophagus and inadequate relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)?
- Pyrosis
- Achalasia
- Regurgitation
- Pyloric stenosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Achalasia is characterized by impaired esophageal peristalsis and failure of the LES to relax.
What is a common clinical sign of Hirschsprung's disease in a newborn?
- Delayed passage of meconium
- Excessive urination
- High fever
- Rapid weight gain
Explanation: Answer reason: Hirschsprung’s disease causes functional intestinal obstruction from absent ganglion cells; a classic early sign is failure or delay in passing meconium in the newborn.
Which of the following is a common cause of gastritis?
- Gastric irritants such as alcohol and spicy foods
- Excessive exercise
- High fiber diet
- Low blood pressure
Explanation: Answer reason: Alcohol and spicy foods act as gastric mucosal irritants and can precipitate gastritis. The other options are not typical causes.
The cardiac sphincter prevents backflow of food from which location?
- Duodenum to stomach
- Small intestine to large intestine
- Stomach to esophagus
- Rectum to colon
Explanation: Answer reason: The cardiac (lower esophageal) sphincter sits between the esophagus and stomach and prevents reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus.
Which enzyme is present in pancreatic juice?
- Trypsin
- Enterokinase
- Pepsin
- Ptyalin
Explanation: Answer reason: Pancreatic juice contains proteolytic enzymes such as trypsin (secreted as trypsinogen). Enterokinase is intestinal, pepsin is gastric, and ptyalin is salivary amylase.
Which condition is a form of liver damage?
- Leeching
- Cirrhosis
- Aplasia
- Haemorrhage
Explanation: Answer reason: Cirrhosis is chronic liver disease characterized by fibrosis and nodular regeneration causing liver damage; the other options are not specific liver damage conditions.
Which organ receives only oxygenated blood?
- Spleen
- Liver
- Stomach
- Pancreas
Explanation: Answer reason: Most abdominal organs (e.g., spleen, stomach, pancreas) receive arterial oxygenated blood only; the liver uniquely receives both oxygenated (hepatic artery) and deoxygenated (portal vein) blood. Therefore, among the options, the spleen receives only oxygenated blood.
What is the main function of the liver?
- Oxidation
- Reduction
- Production
- Detoxification
Explanation: Answer reason: The liver’s hallmark function is detoxification of endogenous and exogenous substances through metabolic processes (Phase I/II).
Duodenum ulcer is found mostly in individuals of which blood group?
- A
- AB
- B
- O
Explanation: Answer reason: Duodenal ulcers occur more frequently in individuals with blood group O.
What is the terminal portion of the large intestine?
- Deodeni
- Ilium
- Colon
- Rectum
Explanation: Answer reason: The rectum is the terminal segment of the large intestine before the anal canal. Duodenum and ileum are parts of the small intestine, and the colon is not the terminal portion.
Passing black and tarry stool due to upper GI bleeding?
- Hematemesis
- Hematochezia
- Malena
- Hematuria
Explanation: Answer reason: Black, tarry stools from digested blood are termed melena (here spelled 'Malena'). Hematemesis is vomiting blood, hematochezia is bright red blood per rectum, and hematuria is blood in urine.
This is the area where pain from early appendicitis is likely to be found?
- Diffusely across the abdomen
- Left lower quadrant
- Epigastrium
- Left upper quadrant
Explanation: Answer reason: Early appendicitis typically begins with vague visceral pain referred to the periumbilical/epigastric region before localizing to the right lower quadrant; thus epigastrium is the best choice among the options.
Dilated part of the alimentary canal between the esophagus and small intestine called?
- Esophagus
- Colon
- Stomach
- Rectum
- Jejunum
Explanation: Answer reason: The stomach is the distensible organ situated between the esophagus and the small intestine (duodenum); other options are not located in that position.
The stomach is a dilated part of the alimentary canal between the esophagus and the?
- Large intestine
- Larynx
- Pharynx
- Rectum
- Small intestine
Explanation: Answer reason: Anatomically, the stomach lies between the esophagus and the duodenum, which is the first part of the small intestine.
The normal liver span at the mid-clavicular line (MCL) is?
- 4-8 cm
- 6-12 cm
- 4-10 cm
- 10-20 cm
Explanation: Answer reason: In adults the normal liver span percussed along the right mid‑clavicular line is approximately 6–12 cm; values outside this range suggest hepatomegaly or a small liver.
Junction between large intestine and small intestine is called________?
- Iliocaocal valve.
- Jejuniocaocal valve.
- Deudonocaocal valve.
- None of these.
Explanation: Answer reason: The anatomical junction between the small intestine (ileum) and the large intestine (cecum) is the ileocecal valve; options naming jejunal or duodenal junctions are incorrect.
Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon which of the following nutrients?
- Starches
- Proteins
- Fats
- Minerals
- Vitamins
Explanation: Answer reason: Salivary amylase (ptyalin) in saliva begins carbohydrate digestion by breaking down starches into maltose and dextrins; it does not digest proteins, fats, minerals, or vitamins.
Gastric acid secretion is under the control of the following agents EXCEPT?
- Histamine
- Acetylcholine
- Serotonin
- Gastrin
Explanation: Answer reason: Major controllers of gastric acid secretion are gastrin, histamine (H2), and acetylcholine (M3). Serotonin is not a primary regulator.
Alternating waves of contraction and relaxation that squeezes food along the GI tract is called?
- Assimilation
- Peristalsis
- Segmentation
- Suffocation
Explanation: Answer reason: Peristalsis is the coordinated alternating contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle that propels food through the GI tract; segmentation mixes contents without net forward movement. Assimilation and suffocation are unrelated.
Patients who have persistent diarrhea may develop all but which one of the following?
- Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
- Weight gain
- Dehydration
- Debilitating weakness
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic diarrhea causes fluid and electrolyte losses leading to dehydration and weakness; it is associated with weight loss, not weight gain.
Which of the following structures is part of the small intestine?
- Ascending colon
- Cecum
- Ileum
- Sigmoid colon
- Transverse colon
Explanation: Answer reason: The small intestine consists of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum; the other options are parts of the large intestine.
All of the following agents intensify the secretion of gastric glands EXCEPT?
- Pepsin
- Gastrin
- Histamine
- Carbonate mineral waters
Explanation: Answer reason: Pepsin is a gastric enzyme secreted by chief cells; it does not stimulate gastric gland secretion. Gastrin and histamine are key stimulators of acid secretion, and carbonated mineral waters can promote gastric secretion via gastric distension/CO2.
Which of the following has the least important role in terms of peptic ulcer formation?
- Acid
- NSAID use
- Presence of H. pylori
- Hypertension
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypertension is not a recognized etiologic factor in peptic ulcer disease, whereas gastric acid, NSAID use, and H. pylori infection are primary contributors.
The bile duct and the main pancreatic duct enters the ......................... part of duodenum and forms major duodenal papilla?
- 1st part of duodenum
- 2nd part of duodenum
- 3rd part of duodenum
- Jejunum
Explanation: Answer reason: The common bile duct and main pancreatic duct unite to open at the major duodenal papilla on the posteromedial wall of the descending (second) part of the duodenum.
At which of the following locations does bile enter the digestive tract?
- Gastroesophageal sphincter
- Duodenum
- Ileocecum
- Jejunum
- Pyloric sphincter
Explanation: Answer reason: Bile from the liver/gallbladder enters the second part of the duodenum via the common bile duct at the major duodenal papilla (sphincter of Oddi).
Bile acid is secreted by which organ?
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Gallbladder
- Stomach
Explanation: Answer reason: Bile acids are synthesized and secreted by hepatocytes in the liver; the gallbladder stores and concentrates bile, and the pancreas and stomach do not secrete bile acids.
Where are digested molecules of food, water, and minerals absorbed?
- Small intestine
- Large intestine
- Mouth
Explanation: Answer reason: Most nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine, whose villi and microvilli maximize absorption of digested food along with the majority of water and minerals.
Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point exhibited in appendicitis is also known as?
- Rovsing's sign
- Psoas sign
- Obturator sign
- Blumberg's sign
Explanation: Answer reason: Rebound tenderness indicating peritoneal irritation is called Blumberg's sign; it is classically positive in appendicitis at McBurney's point.
What hormone stimulates chief cells to produce pepsinogen in the stomach?
- Gastrin
- Pepsin
- HCl
- Insulin
Explanation: Answer reason: G cells secrete gastrin, which stimulates gastric secretion including chief cell release of pepsinogen. Pepsin is an enzyme (not a hormone), HCl is acid from parietal cells, and insulin is unrelated.
What does the mnemonic 'ABDOMINAL' stand for in the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain?
- Appendicitis
- Biliary tract disease
- Diverticulitis disease
- Malignancy
- Intestinal Obstruction disorders
Explanation: Answer reason: In the ABDOMINAL mnemonic for abdominal pain, the letter A stands for Appendicitis.
Which part of the colon is located on the right side of the body?
- Ascending colon
- Transverse colon
- Descending colon
- Sigmoid colon
Explanation: Answer reason: The ascending colon runs upward along the right side of the abdomen; the transverse crosses the upper abdomen and the descending and sigmoid are on the left.
Which secretion in the stomach helps HCl break down proteins?
- Pepsin
- Lipase
- Trypsin
Explanation: Answer reason: Pepsin is the stomach protease activated by HCl and initiates protein digestion. Lipase digests fats and trypsin is a pancreatic enzyme acting in the small intestine.
Which cells secrete hydrochloric acid in the stomach?
- Goblet cells
- Parietal cells
- Chief cells
- Acinar cells
Explanation: Answer reason: Parietal cells in the gastric glands secrete hydrochloric acid (and intrinsic factor). Goblet cells produce mucus, chief cells secrete pepsinogen, and acinar cells belong to the pancreas.
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