Question 1

The “Father of Genetics” is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mendel Gregor Mendel is known as the “Father of Genetics” because his pea plant experiments established the fundamental laws of inheritance (segregation and independent assortment). These findings explained how traits are passed from parents to offspring in predictable patterns. Watson and Crick are associated with elucidating DNA structure, and Darwin is associated with evolution by natural selection, not founding genetics.
Category reason: This is a foundational biomedical question about heredity and the origins of genetic science, which fits the NursingScience subject of Genetics rather than nursing clinical decision-making.

Question 2

The Gene Of Sickle Cell Anaemia Is Inherited By__________.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: AUTOSOMES Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the HBB gene on chromosome 11, which is an autosome (not a sex chromosome). The disorder follows an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern, meaning affected individuals inherit two mutant alleles, one from each parent. Therefore, the gene is inherited via autosomes rather than through blood or bone cells.
Category reason: This question tests inheritance pattern and chromosomal location (autosomal vs sex-linked), which is a core Genetics concept rather than a nursing intervention or patient-care decision.

Question 3

Memory impairment is most likely to occur in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Down's syndrome Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is associated with intellectual disability and deficits in learning, short-term/working memory, and explicit memory, making memory impairment a common feature. It also carries an increased lifetime risk of early-onset Alzheimer-type dementia, which further contributes to progressive memory decline. Alkaptonuria primarily affects connective tissues (ochronosis) and joints rather than cognition. ADHD and conduct disorder mainly involve attention/executive function or behavior problems, not primary memory impairment.
Category reason: This question tests which genetic condition is classically associated with cognitive and memory impairment rather than asking about nursing interventions or care prioritization, so it best fits Genetics.

Question 4

In humans, meiosis takes place in

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reproductive cells Meiosis is the specialized cell division that produces haploid gametes (sperm and ova) for sexual reproduction. It occurs in germ cells within the gonads (testes and ovaries) and includes reduction division and genetic recombination. Somatic cells such as skin, liver, and muscle typically divide by mitosis to support growth and tissue repair.
Category reason: This question tests where meiosis occurs and the type of cells involved in gamete formation, a core concept in inheritance and cell division within Genetics.

Question 5

________ is an in vitro method amplification of a short sequence of target DNA.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a- PCR PCR specifically amplifies a defined DNA segment in vitro through repeated cycles of denaturation, primer annealing, and extension by DNA polymerase. Hybridization is a method for detecting or binding complementary nucleic acid sequences, not amplifying them. Fingerprinting refers to analysis of DNA patterns (often using PCR as a step), but it is not itself the amplification method. Therefore only PCR matches the definition of in vitro amplification of a short target DNA sequence.
Category reason: This tests recognition of a core molecular genetics technique (PCR) used to amplify DNA sequences, which falls under Genetics rather than bedside nursing decision-making.

Question 6

Nucleic acid hybridization means:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nucleic acid hybridization refers to the specific base-pairing interaction between a single-stranded nucleic acid probe and a complementary target sequence through hydrogen bonding. This principle underlies many molecular assays (e.g., Southern/Northern blots and in situ hybridization) where detection depends on selective binding to the matching sequence. Fragmentation and amplification are different processes (digestion/shearing and PCR, respectively) and are not definitions of hybridization.
Category reason: This question tests the molecular genetics concept of complementary base pairing between a probe and a target nucleic acid sequence, which is core to Genetics rather than bedside nursing care decisions.

Question 7

DNA hybridization is performed by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b- DNA labeled probe Hybridization assays detect specific DNA sequences by allowing a complementary nucleic acid probe to bind (anneal) to target DNA under controlled conditions. The probe is labeled (e.g., radioactive, fluorescent, or enzymatic) so that bound probe can be visualized or measured, indicating the presence of the target sequence. Primase functions in DNA replication by laying RNA primers, and restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific recognition sites rather than detecting sequences via binding.
Category reason: This question tests the molecular genetics principle of identifying DNA sequences using complementary labeled probes, which is a core Genetics topic rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 8

.................... is a piece of DNA fragment of a particular gene that can bind with it's complementary piece of DNA?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A probe is a labeled single-stranded DNA (or RNA) fragment designed to hybridize to its complementary nucleotide sequence, enabling detection or identification of a specific gene/sequence. This binding is based on complementary base pairing under appropriate stringency conditions. rRNA is a structural/functional RNA component of ribosomes, LCR is a DNA amplification technique, and “code” is not a specific hybridization reagent.
Category reason: This item tests the concept of nucleic acid hybridization and identification of specific gene sequences, which is a core Genetics topic rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 9

Which form of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Transfer RNA functions as an adaptor molecule in translation by binding a specific amino acid and pairing its anticodon with the corresponding codon on mRNA at the ribosome. This delivers the correct amino acid in the proper sequence to the growing polypeptide chain. In contrast, mRNA provides the template, rRNA forms the core structural/catalytic components of ribosomes, and hnRNA is a precursor transcript in the nucleus.
Category reason: This question tests core molecular genetics/protein synthesis concepts (transcription/translation roles of RNA types), which fits Genetics rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 10

Down syndromes is a congenital chromosomal abnormality and is also know as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Down syndrome results from an extra copy of chromosome 21 due to nondisjunction, translocation, or mosaicism, producing characteristic developmental and physical findings. Trisomy 18 is Edwards syndrome, which has a different clinical profile and higher neonatal mortality. Trisomy 20 and trisomy 3 are not the standard chromosomal designation for Down syndrome in basic genetics.
Category reason: This question tests identification of a specific chromosomal aneuploidy (which chromosome is triplicated), which is a core concept in Genetics rather than patient-care decision-making.

Question 11

Which chromosome determines the male sex in humans?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sex determination in humans depends on the presence or absence of the Y chromosome, which carries the SRY gene that initiates testes development in the embryo. Testes then produce hormones (including testosterone and anti-Müllerian hormone) that drive male internal and external sexual differentiation. In typical genetics, XX results in female development and XY results in male development because of this Y-linked trigger.
Category reason: This question tests foundational inheritance and sex-determination concepts (sex chromosomes and SRY), which are part of Genetics rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 12

Total number of chromosomes:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Humans are diploid organisms with 23 pairs of chromosomes in somatic cells, totaling 46. One set of 23 comes from the mother and one set of 23 comes from the father. Gametes (sperm and egg) are haploid and contain 23 chromosomes, which combine at fertilization to restore the diploid number.
Category reason: This item tests foundational knowledge of human chromosome number and ploidy, which is a core concept in Genetics rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 13

Children with Down syndrome have an increased risk of all the following conditions EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Down syndrome (trisomy 21) is strongly associated with congenital heart defects (especially endocardial cushion/AV septal defects), increased risk of leukemia (including ALL and AML megakaryoblastic subtype), and higher prevalence of Hirschsprung disease due to developmental/neural crest-related abnormalities. Marfan syndrome is a distinct autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder most commonly due to FBN1 mutations and is not a recognized increased-risk association of Down syndrome. Therefore it is the exception among the listed conditions.
Category reason: This question tests genetic syndrome associations and comorbid risks linked to trisomy 21, which is primarily genetics-focused foundational knowledge rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 14

Q. A Nucleosome consists of :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A nucleosome is the fundamental unit of chromatin, consisting of DNA wrapped around a histone octamer core (H2A, H2B, H3, and H4). Non-histone proteins are important for higher-order chromatin organization and regulation, but they are not part of the nucleosome core definition. RNA is not a structural component of nucleosomes in standard chromatin structure.
Category reason: This question tests the molecular composition of chromatin (nucleosomes), a core concept in genetic organization and DNA packaging rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 15

Which enzyme is responsible for DNA replication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a) DNA polymerase DNA replication requires synthesis of a new DNA strand using the parental strand as a template, and this polymerization reaction is catalyzed by DNA polymerase. RNA polymerase is primarily involved in transcription (RNA synthesis), not DNA genome duplication. Helicase unwinds the DNA double helix ahead of the replication fork, and ligase seals nicks between Okazaki fragments, but neither performs the core nucleotide addition step.
Category reason: This question tests the core enzyme function in DNA replication, a foundational molecular genetics concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 16

Genetic material of the human body is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hereditary information in humans is stored in deoxyribonucleic acid within the cell nucleus (and also in mitochondrial DNA). Genes are segments of this molecule that encode instructions for protein synthesis and regulation of cellular functions. Sugars, enzymes, and proteins are important biomolecules but they do not serve as the primary repository of genetic information in human cells.
Category reason: This question tests the identity of the molecule that carries hereditary information, which is a foundational concept in Genetics.

Question 17

Human skin colour is controlled by.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Skin color is a classic example of polygenic inheritance, where multiple genes contribute additively to the amount and type of melanin produced. Because several loci influence pigmentation, offspring show a continuous range of phenotypes rather than discrete categories. This pattern cannot be explained by a single gene with two alleles, nor by a fixed small number of alleles at one locus.
Category reason: This question tests inheritance patterns and the concept of polygenic traits, which is a core topic in Genetics rather than clinical nursing decision-making.

Question 18

WHICH DNA STRUCTURE IS REPLICATED LAST DURING THE S PHASE IN EUKARYOTES?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Centromeric DNA is largely heterochromatic, tightly packed, and generally late-replicating compared with euchromatic, gene-rich regions. In eukaryotic S phase, euchromatin (where many exons and introns reside) tends to replicate earlier, while heterochromatin replicates later. Centromeres are a classic example of constitutive heterochromatin and therefore are among the last genomic regions to finish replication.
Category reason: This question tests cell-cycle/DNA replication timing of specific chromosomal regions, which is a foundational genetics topic rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 19

WHAT IS THE DIRECTION OF DNA SYNTHESIS IN BOTH LEADING AND LAGGING STRANDS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DNA polymerases can only add nucleotides to the free 3′-OH end of a growing DNA strand, so new DNA is synthesized in the 5′→3′ direction. This applies to both strands: the leading strand is synthesized continuously toward the replication fork, while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously as Okazaki fragments. The lagging fragments are later joined by DNA ligase, but each fragment is still extended 5′→3′.
Category reason: This tests a core principle of DNA replication enzymology and strand polarity, which is foundational molecular genetics rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 20

WHAT IS THE MAIN ADVANTAGE OF NEXT-GENERATION SEQUENCING (NGS) OVER SANGER SEQUENCING?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: NGS platforms sequence millions of DNA fragments simultaneously, which dramatically increases throughput compared with Sanger’s largely one-fragment-at-a-time approach. This parallelization enables faster generation of large-scale genomic data and supports applications like whole-genome/exome sequencing and high-depth variant detection. Lower cost per base is largely a downstream consequence of this scalability, but the core technical advantage is the parallel sequencing architecture. The other options are incorrect because higher error rate is not an advantage, and NGS is not limited to RNA-only sequencing (RNA-seq exists but is not exclusive).
Category reason: This question tests principles of DNA sequencing technologies and comparative genomics methods, which fall under Genetics rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 21

Which of these is X-chromosome Linked disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: X-linked recessive disorders classically affect males more often because they have only one X chromosome, so a single pathogenic variant is sufficient to cause disease. Hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency) and hemophilia B (factor IX deficiency) are well-known examples of X-linked recessive inheritance. In contrast, pterygium is primarily related to UV exposure and chronic irritation, and type 2 diabetes is multifactorial/polygenic rather than X-linked.
Category reason: This question tests inheritance patterns and identification of an X-linked disorder, which is a core Genetics concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 22

What is the role of the gene in cell reproduction?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During cell reproduction, genetic material (DNA organized into genes on chromosomes) is replicated in S phase so each daughter cell receives an identical set of instructions. Genes direct the synthesis of proteins that regulate the cell cycle and coordinate key events of mitosis (e.g., spindle assembly, chromatid separation, checkpoints). The other options describe functions of specific organelles or structures rather than the primary role of genes in heredity and cell division.
Category reason: This tests the fundamental function of genes/DNA during replication and mitosis, which is a core concept in Genetics rather than a nursing care or safety decision.

Question 23

Genetic mutation of PAX3 gene leads to:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: PAX3 is a transcription factor essential for neural crest cell development and melanocyte formation. Pathogenic variants classically cause Waardenburg syndrome, characterized by pigmentary abnormalities (e.g., heterochromia, white forelock), dystopia canthorum (in some types), and congenital sensorineural hearing loss. The other options are associated with different developmental pathways and genes rather than PAX3.
Category reason: This is a gene-to-disease association question focused on inherited mutation effects, which falls under Genetics rather than patient-care decision-making.

Question 24

Which syndrome has pulmonary stenosis and short stature?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. Noonan syndrome Noonan syndrome classically presents with short stature and congenital heart disease, most commonly pulmonary valve stenosis (often with dysplastic valve) and sometimes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. It is a RASopathy and can occur in both sexes, helping distinguish it from Turner syndrome. Down syndrome is more associated with endocardial cushion defects (e.g., AV septal defects), and Klinefelter syndrome does not characteristically feature pulmonary stenosis.
Category reason: This is testing recognition of a genetic syndrome based on characteristic clinical features (short stature plus pulmonary stenosis), which falls under Genetics rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 25

What is the most common congenital cause of intellectual disability?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with intellectual disability and is a leading congenital cause overall. Fragile X syndrome is the most common inherited cause, but not the most common congenital cause in the general population. Neural tube defects primarily cause structural neurologic deficits (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly) rather than being a predominant cause of intellectual disability, and microcephaly is a descriptive finding with many possible etiologies rather than a single common congenital diagnosis.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the most common congenital/genetic etiology of intellectual disability, which is a foundational genetics concept rather than a nursing management or intervention decision.

Question 26

IQ related genes have recently been found on which chromosome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because many genes influencing cognitive development and intellectual function are located on the X chromosome, X-linked variants can disproportionately affect intellectual outcomes, especially in males who have only one X chromosome. Numerous forms of inherited intellectual disability are classically X-linked, supporting the association between cognitive traits and loci on the X chromosome. The other listed autosomes are not the well-established primary chromosomal location emphasized for IQ-related gene findings in standard genetics teaching.
Category reason: This is a question about chromosomal location of genes affecting a trait, which is foundational heredity and chromosome mapping content in Genetics rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 27

Hemophilia is more dominant in ______?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because males have only one X chromosome, they are much more likely to express the disorder if they inherit the affected X. Females usually have a second, normal X chromosome that can compensate, making them more often carriers rather than clinically affected. Affected females are uncommon and generally require scenarios like skewed X-inactivation or having an affected father and a carrier/affected mother, so prevalence remains higher in males.

Question 28

The first genetic material was most likely :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because DNA replication requires complex protein enzymes and lacks catalytic versatility, it is less plausible as the earliest genetic system. Proteins can be catalysts but do not provide a straightforward templated, heritable information system like nucleic acids. Therefore, a polymer of RNA is the most likely first genetic material among the choices.

Question 29

DNA fingerprinting recognizes the differences in...

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These loci are found within repetitive DNA, classically including satellite DNA (and related minisatellite/microsatellite repeats), which generate person-specific fragment/allele size patterns. Bulk (unique) DNA is comparatively conserved and does not provide the same degree of inter-individual length variability for profiling. Therefore, the method recognizes differences in satellite and repetitive DNA rather than bulk DNA.

Question 30

The process of DNA replication is affected by an enzyme known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In prokaryotes, DNA polymerase I is essential for removing RNA primers (via its 5′→3′ exonuclease activity) and replacing them with DNA, an important step in completing replication, especially on the lagging strand. Ligase mainly seals nicks between Okazaki fragments after primer replacement, so it is supportive but not the key enzyme class that drives synthesis. Mutase and ribonuclease are not primary replication enzymes in the core DNA synthesis/primer-replacement pathway tested here.

Question 31

Achild's heredity is determined at the time of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is the point at which sex chromosomes and many inherited traits are established, including risks for single-gene and chromosomal disorders. Later milestones such as viability, delivery, or infancy affect survival and development but do not set the inherited genome. Environmental influences after conception can modify gene expression and phenotype, but they do not change the original hereditary blueprint.

Question 32

Cystic fibrosis is an example of...????

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pattern typically appears in siblings with unaffected parents and affects males and females equally because the gene is on an autosome (chromosome 7). X-linked patterns would show sex-skewed transmission and no male-to-male transmission, which does not fit. Autosomal dominant inheritance would usually show vertical transmission with an affected parent, unlike the typical carrier-parent presentation seen in cystic fibrosis.

Question 33

In this type of DNA replication, of the two newly formed molecules, one is purely a new one and the other is an old one?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In conservative replication, the two original parental strands stay together, producing one daughter DNA molecule that is entirely old while the other daughter molecule is entirely newly synthesized. This matches the description of one purely new molecule and one purely old molecule. By contrast, semiconservative replication yields two hybrid molecules (each with one old and one new strand), and dispersive replication yields strands with interspersed old and new segments.

Question 34

Number of chromosomes in human gametes:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Humans have 46 chromosomes in somatic (diploid) cells, organized as 23 pairs. Therefore gametes carry 23 chromosomes so that fertilization restores the diploid number (46) in the zygote. A common distractor is 46, which applies to somatic cells rather than gametes. Options like 44 or 22 exclude the sex chromosomes and do not reflect the true haploid count.

Question 35

Genetic material is...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DNA carries genes encoded in nucleotide sequences and provides the template for RNA and protein synthesis. Hemoglobin, insulin, and collagen are proteins produced based on genetic instructions rather than being the genetic information itself. Therefore, the option that directly represents genetic material is DNA.

Question 36

The composition of male gene is...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Typical males have one X and one Y chromosome, and the presence of the Y chromosome (especially the SRY gene) drives testes development and male differentiation. Typical females have XX, making that option incorrect for male composition. Single-letter options (X or Y alone) do not represent the normal diploid human sex chromosome complement in somatic cells.

Question 37

DNA can be extracted from?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Skin and blood provide abundant cells (e.g., epithelial cells and leukocytes) that are standard DNA sources. Semen and saliva commonly contain sufficient cells for DNA profiling, and urine can contain exfoliated uroepithelial cells that allow extraction, though yield may be variable. Since each listed specimen type can serve as a DNA source, the inclusive choice is best.

Question 38

The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with an atrioventricular canal. The nurse knows that many infants with an atrioventricular canal also have a diagnosis of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This lesion arises from abnormal formation/fusion of the endocardial cushions, which is a common congenital heart pattern seen in infants with Down syndrome. Trisomy 18 is more often linked to VSD/PDA, Turner syndrome to coarctation of the aorta/bicuspid aortic valve, and DiGeorge syndrome to conotruncal defects (e.g., truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot). Therefore, the most likely co-diagnosis is Down syndrome.

Question 39

The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reverse transcriptase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase that uses an RNA template to synthesize complementary DNA. This process is central to retroviral replication and is also used in biotechnology to generate cDNA from mRNA for cloning or PCR. Transcription (DNA to mRNA) is performed by RNA polymerase, not reverse transcriptase. Translation (mRNA to protein) requires ribosomes, and DNA to DNA replication is done by DNA-dependent DNA polymerases.

Question 40

Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A DNA library is a collection of DNA fragments that are inserted into host cells and maintained for storage and screening. When yeast cells are used as the host, the cloned fragments collectively form a yeast genomic or cDNA library. A clone refers to one individual recombinant DNA fragment/host cell line, not the entire stored collection. A vector is the DNA vehicle used to carry the insert, while Southern blot and PCR are detection/amplification techniques rather than storage collections.

Question 41

A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In biotechnology, a clone is a genetically identical population derived from a single progenitor cell, so all cells carry the same introduced plasmid after transformation and selection. This term specifically refers to the group of cells/colonies harboring the desired recombinant DNA construct. By contrast, a vector is the DNA vehicle used to deliver the insert, not the resulting population of cells. Southern blot and PCR are detection/amplification techniques rather than names for transformed cell populations.

Question 42

Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A vector is a self-replicating DNA molecule (commonly a plasmid or viral genome) engineered to carry and deliver a gene into a host cell, enabling gene transfer and expression. The defining feature is its ability to replicate within the host while maintaining the inserted DNA sequence. A clone refers to genetically identical copies of a DNA fragment or organism, not the delivery vehicle. Southern blot and PCR are laboratory techniques for detecting or amplifying DNA rather than transmitting genes between organisms.

Question 43

What do genes consist of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In humans and most organisms, genes are made of DNA, a nucleic acid that can be replicated and transcribed to direct cellular function. Proteins are the products encoded by genes (via transcription/translation), not the material genes are composed of. Carbohydrates and lipids primarily serve structural and energy-storage roles rather than carrying genetic instructions.

Question 44

You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Starting from one double-stranded template, the total number of double-stranded products after n cycles is 2^n. After 3 cycles, 2^3 equals 8 molecules. Choices like 4 or 16 reflect incorrect cycle counting (2 cycles or 4 cycles, respectively), while “thousands” would require many more cycles.

Question 45

Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In eukaryotic systems, the RNA used for cDNA libraries is typically mature mRNA, which presupposes prior RNA processing (splicing) to remove introns. Transcription is involved upstream to generate the RNA transcript that ultimately serves as the template for cDNA production. Protein synthesis is not required for generating a DNA copy of RNA, making it the only option unrelated to the cDNA-making workflow.

Question 46

A restriction fragment is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Restriction enzymes cut double-stranded DNA at specific recognition sequences, producing discrete pieces called restriction fragments. These fragments can be of varying lengths depending on the locations of the enzyme’s cut sites. RNA species (mRNA, tRNA) are not the direct substrates in classic restriction digestion workflows. A gene can be contained within a fragment, but the defining feature is that it is a DNA piece generated by restriction enzyme cleavage.

Question 47

The parents of a child with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy want to know how it is acquired. What is the most accurate response by the nurse?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This explains why it primarily affects males and is often passed through an asymptomatic carrier mother, though new (de novo) mutations can also occur. Viral illness, autoimmune mechanisms, and environmental toxins do not produce the characteristic dystrophin deficiency that drives progressive muscle degeneration in DMD. Therefore, the most accurate explanation of how it is acquired is genetic inheritance.

Question 48

The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DNA fingerprinting relies on generating a reproducible pattern of DNA fragment lengths from polymorphic regions. After cells are lysed and DNA is collected/extracted, the next key step is cutting the DNA at specific recognition sites to produce fragments of varying sizes. Those fragments are then separated by gel electrophoresis to create the banding pattern used for comparison. Staining occurs after separation to visualize the bands, so it is a later step than enzymatic digestion.

Question 49

An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: cDNA is synthesized from mature, spliced mRNA, so it represents only the expressed coding sequences of a gene. Because introns are removed during RNA processing, cDNA lacks introns and can be directly used for expression in systems (e.g., bacteria) that cannot splice introns. This makes cDNA advantageous for cloning and producing eukaryotic proteins in prokaryotic hosts. A common distractor is the idea that it lacks exons, but exons are precisely the sequences retained in mRNA and therefore present in cDNA.

Question 50

Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gene guns, Agrobacterium (Ti plasmid-mediated transfer), electroporation (especially of protoplasts), and microinjection are direct or vector-based DNA delivery techniques used for plant transformation. Protoplast fusion instead merges two plant cells (often from different lines/species) to combine their entire genomes, producing somatic hybrids rather than specifically inserting a recombinant DNA construct. Therefore it is not considered a standard technique for introducing recombinant DNA into plants.

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