Question 1

Barrel chest is noted on patients with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic air trapping from loss of elastic recoil leads to lung hyperinflation and an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Over time, this produces the classic “barrel chest” appearance seen on physical exam. While COPD can include emphysema, the finding is most characteristically associated with emphysema rather than asthma or smoking alone.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a classic physical exam finding related to chronic pulmonary hyperinflation, which is foundational respiratory system knowledge rather than a nursing management decision.

Question 2

Which vital sign is the most critical indicator of a patient’s oxygenation status?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Changes in breathing rate are often the earliest sign of impaired ventilation and impending hypoxemia, reflecting the body’s immediate response to altered oxygen and carbon dioxide levels. Tachypnea can indicate increased work of breathing or compensation for reduced oxygen delivery, while bradypnea can suggest respiratory depression and inadequate ventilation. Compared with temperature, pulse, or blood pressure, it is more directly tied to pulmonary gas exchange and can deteriorate rapidly during respiratory compromise. Although pulse oximetry and arterial blood gases assess oxygenation more directly, among vital signs this one is most sensitive to acute respiratory changes.
Category reason: This question tests understanding of physiologic indicators related to ventilation and oxygenation, which is core content of the Respiratory System.

Question 3

Which oxygen therapy device delivers low concentration oxygen?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a) Nasal cannula It provides low-flow oxygen and delivers a variable, relatively low FiO2 depending on the flow rate and the patient’s inspiratory pattern. In contrast, a non-rebreather mask delivers high oxygen concentrations with a reservoir and one-way valves. A Venturi mask is designed for precise, controlled FiO2 (often moderate ranges), and high-flow nasal cannula is intended for higher flow rates with more reliable, higher oxygen delivery.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of oxygen-delivery devices and the typical FiO2 ranges they provide, which is core respiratory equipment/therapy content rather than a nursing judgment scenario.

Question 4

Normal oxygen saturation (SpO2) in adults:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: c) 95-100% Pulse oximetry in healthy adults at sea level typically reads in the mid-to-high 90s, reflecting near-maximal hemoglobin oxygen saturation. Readings below ~90% are generally considered hypoxemia and warrant assessment for respiratory or circulatory compromise and potential measurement artifact. Values above 100% are not physiologically possible for SpO2 because hemoglobin saturation is capped at 100%.
Category reason: This tests a normal physiologic range for oxygen saturation, a foundational concept of oxygen transport and gas exchange within the Respiratory System rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 5

What is the primary mechanism of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. Diffuse alveolar damage and surfactant dysfunction ARDS is driven by inflammatory injury to the alveolar-capillary membrane, causing increased permeability and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. Protein-rich fluid floods alveoli, inactivates surfactant, and promotes atelectasis with markedly reduced lung compliance. These changes create severe V/Q mismatch and intrapulmonary shunting leading to refractory hypoxemia, which is the hallmark pathophysiology.
Category reason: This question tests the underlying pathophysiologic mechanism of ARDS within pulmonary structure-function and gas exchange, which is foundational respiratory science rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 6

The lungs are covered by two membranes called as_____?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The lungs are enclosed by a double-layered serous membrane consisting of the visceral layer (adherent to the lung surface) and the parietal layer (lining the thoracic cavity). The pleural space between these layers contains a small amount of fluid that reduces friction during breathing. This structure supports smooth lung expansion and helps maintain negative intrathoracic pressure.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of lung coverings and thoracic membranes, which is core content of the Respiratory System in Nursing Science rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 7

Which oxygen therapy device delivers low concentration oxygen?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a) Nasal cannula It provides a low-flow oxygen delivery (commonly ~1–6 L/min) and therefore a relatively low, variable FiO2 depending on the patient’s inspiratory flow and breathing pattern. A non-rebreather mask is designed to deliver high FiO2. A Venturi mask delivers a precise, fixed FiO2 (often moderate, not typically classified as low concentration compared with nasal cannula). High-flow nasal cannula delivers higher flow rates and can achieve higher and more controlled FiO2 than standard nasal cannula.
Category reason: This tests foundational knowledge of respiratory oxygen-delivery devices and the typical oxygen concentrations (FiO2) they provide, which is core Respiratory System content rather than nursing judgment or prioritization.

Question 8

Which oxygen therapy device delivers a precise oxygen concentration?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It uses air-entrainment jets to deliver a fixed, controlled FiO2 with high accuracy across different flow settings. This makes it especially appropriate when tight oxygen control is needed (e.g., patients at risk of CO2 retention), because the delivered concentration is predictable. Nasal cannula and simple masks provide variable FiO2 depending on the patient’s inspiratory flow and breathing pattern, and non-rebreather masks can provide high FiO2 but not a precisely fixed concentration.
Category reason: This tests knowledge of oxygen-delivery devices and how they determine FiO2, which is core respiratory system physiology/therapy content rather than nursing prioritization or an intervention sequence.

Question 9

Which oxygen mask provides the highest concentration of oxygen?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It can deliver the highest FiO2 among the listed devices because its reservoir bag and one-way valves minimize entrainment of room air during inspiration. When the reservoir is adequately inflated and flow is set high (commonly 10–15 L/min), it can provide very high oxygen concentrations for acute hypoxemia. By contrast, nasal cannula and simple face mask allow more room-air mixing, and a Venturi mask is designed for precise, usually lower, fixed FiO2 rather than maximal concentration.
Category reason: This asks about comparative oxygen delivery capability (FiO2) of common oxygen devices, which is core respiratory physiology/respiratory support knowledge rather than a nursing-priority or safety intervention scenario.

Question 10

Spirometry is used to diagnose which disease condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Spirometry measures lung volumes and airflow (e.g., FEV1, FVC, and the FEV1/FVC ratio), which are key for detecting obstructive and restrictive ventilatory defects. It is central to diagnosing and monitoring conditions like asthma and COPD and assessing severity and response to bronchodilators. It is not a primary diagnostic test for neurologic, cardiovascular, or metabolic diseases.
Category reason: The item tests what spirometry evaluates and which body system it diagnoses, which is foundational knowledge of pulmonary function testing within the Respiratory System.

Question 11

Which is the covering of lungs-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The lungs are enclosed by a double-layered serous membrane consisting of visceral and parietal layers. This membrane reduces friction during breathing by producing pleural fluid in the pleural space. The other options refer to coverings of bone (periosteum), abdominal organs (peritoneum), and the heart (pericardium).
Category reason: This asks for the anatomical membrane that covers the lungs, which is core respiratory anatomy rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 12

What is the common cause of airway obstruction in unconscious patients?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loss of muscle tone in unconsciousness causes the tongue to relax posteriorly and occlude the oropharynx, making it the most common mechanism of upper-airway obstruction in this setting. This is why airway maneuvers like the head-tilt–chin-lift or jaw-thrust (if trauma suspected) are first-line to relieve obstruction. A foreign body can obstruct the airway but is not the typical cause in an otherwise unconscious patient without choking history. Neck edema related to oxygen delivery is not a common or physiologically typical cause of obstruction.
Category reason: This tests foundational understanding of the mechanism of upper-airway obstruction during unconsciousness, which is core respiratory physiology/airway anatomy rather than a nursing priority/delegation scenario.

Question 13

Which of the following is a symptom of hypoxia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypoxia reduces arterial oxygen saturation, increasing deoxygenated hemoglobin and producing a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes. This is classically seen around the lips and nail beds and is a key clinical sign of inadequate oxygenation. Flushed skin is more consistent with vasodilation (e.g., fever, hypercapnia), jaundice with hyperbilirubinemia, and itching with dermatologic/allergic or cholestatic conditions.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a clinical manifestation of impaired oxygenation, a core concept of respiratory physiology and assessment rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 14

While on treatment, Nina 18 months old weighed 18 kgs. and her temperature registered at 37 degrees C. Her mother's she developed cough 3 days ago. Nina has no general danger signs. She has 45 breaths/minute, no chest indrawing, no stridor. How would you classify Nina's manifestation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In children aged 12 months to 5 years, fast breathing is defined as ≥40 breaths/minute. With a respiratory rate of 45/min plus cough, this meets criteria for pneumonia (non-severe) when there is no general danger sign, no chest indrawing, and no stridor at rest. Severe pneumonia is suggested by any general danger sign or chest indrawing/stridor, which are absent here. Therefore the presentation is classified as pneumonia rather than no pneumonia or severe disease.
Category reason: This question tests clinical respiratory classification based on pediatric respiratory rate thresholds and danger signs, which is foundational knowledge about respiratory illness assessment rather than nursing task prioritization or interventions.

Question 15

The exchange of gases between alveoli and their surrounding capillaries is called respiration.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Respiratory physiology distinguishes ventilation from gas exchange, and defines the location of gas exchange as either pulmonary (lungs) or systemic (tissues). Gas exchange across the alveolar-capillary membrane in the lungs is termed external respiration because it occurs between the external environment (alveoli) and pulmonary capillary blood. Internal respiration refers instead to exchange between systemic capillaries and body tissues. “Both” is incorrect because the stem specifies the alveoli and surrounding capillaries, which uniquely identifies the pulmonary site.

Question 16

Most common cause of chronic Asthma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic asthma involves long-standing airway inflammation that can lead to airway remodeling and fixed airflow limitation over time. Among the provided choices, fibrosis best aligns with a chronic, structural change process rather than an acute infectious cause or an alveolar collapse event. Pneumonia is an acute infection and is not a typical underlying cause of chronic asthma. Emphysema is primarily a COPD process characterized by alveolar destruction rather than asthma-driven chronic airway remodeling.

Question 17

A major reason for the development of respiratory distress syndrome in the preterm infant is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Surfactant reduces alveolar surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse at end-expiration. Preterm infants have type II pneumocyte immaturity, leading to insufficient surfactant production and poor lung compliance. This causes widespread atelectasis, increased work of breathing, impaired gas exchange, and hypoxemia—the core pathophysiology of neonatal RDS. An immature immune system predisposes to infection but does not directly cause the primary ventilatory failure pattern seen in RDS.

Question 18

Laryngeal Airway location :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This placement distinguishes it from endotracheal devices, which traverse the glottis and sit within the trachea. Because the device does not enter the trachea, it is classified as supraglottic rather than glottic or endotracheal. The remaining option is not a valid anatomic/airway location category.

Question 19

Laryngeal Airway location :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., LMA) is designed to sit above the vocal cords and seal around the laryngeal inlet rather than pass through it. This supraglottic position allows ventilation without tracheal intubation and is commonly used for rescue airway management or elective anesthesia in selected patients. An endotracheal device, by contrast, must pass through the glottis into the trachea with the cuff inflated below the cords, which is a different airway class. Therefore, the correct anatomical location category for a laryngeal airway is supraglottic.

Question 20

How to diagnose diaphragmatic hernia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is fast, widely available, and typically the first imaging test obtained in suspected cases, especially in emergency or neonatal presentations. CT chest can better delineate the defect and associated injuries but is usually confirmatory rather than the first-line screening study. Ultrasound may help in select settings but is less definitive than an x-ray for visualizing intrathoracic gas-filled bowel.

Question 21

The person who becomes short of breath with little exertion, such as when eating a meal, has what kind of respiratory condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dyspnea is the subjective sensation of difficult or uncomfortable breathing, often triggered or worsened by exertion, even minimal activities like eating. The stem describes exertional shortness of breath, which matches this definition. Stridor is a high-pitched inspiratory sound from upper-airway obstruction rather than a general exertional symptom. Cheyne-Stokes is a cyclic waxing-and-waning breathing pattern with apnea, and hyperventilation refers to increased ventilation leading to low CO2, neither of which is suggested here.

Question 22

Most important features to diagnose severe pneumonia:-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lower chest wall indrawing reflects significant negative intrathoracic pressure generation to maintain ventilation, which correlates with more serious disease and need for urgent management. Fast breathing is a key screening sign for pneumonia, but it does not by itself distinguish severe from non-severe cases as reliably. Cyanosis is late and may be missed clinically, while nasal flaring is supportive but less specific than chest indrawing for severe pneumonia classification.

Question 23

A lack of Oxygen in Blood is called ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This specifically refers to oxygen deficiency at the blood level rather than at the tissue level (hypoxia). Hypercapnia is elevated carbon dioxide in the blood, not reduced oxygen. Stridor is an audible sign of upper-airway obstruction, and orthopnea is dyspnea when lying flat, neither of which defines low blood oxygen.

Question 24

Which of the following statements concerning ARDS is true? 1. One of the causes of ARDS is CHF. 2. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is elevated in ARDS. 3. Surfactant production is reduced in ARDS. 4. ARDS has a low mortality rate.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because it is noncardiogenic, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is typically normal or low, not elevated. Alveolar epithelial injury and inflammation impair type II pneumocytes, leading to decreased surfactant and resulting atelectasis and stiff lungs (low compliance). Mortality is clinically significant (not low), especially when ARDS is severe or due to sepsis, making the low-mortality statement incorrect.

Question 25

Cough with blood occur in the.

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pulmonary tuberculosis classically causes chronic cough with blood-streaked sputum because caseating necrosis and cavitary lesions can erode bronchial blood vessels. The other options are less directly associated with true hemoptysis: asthma causes cough and wheeze without bleeding, typhoid primarily causes gastrointestinal/systemic symptoms, and malaria causes hemolysis and anemia rather than bleeding from the airways. Therefore the respiratory disease most classically linked with cough with blood is TB.

Question 26

Tha percentage and flow of oxygen in red color of venturi mask is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Venturi masks deliver a fixed, precise FiO2 determined by the color-coded jet adapter and its required minimum oxygen flow rate. The red Venturi adapter is commonly standardized to deliver about 31% FiO2 when set at a minimum flow around 6 L/min to generate the correct air-entrainment ratio. If the flow is set below the adapter’s minimum, the delivered FiO2 becomes unreliable because the total flow may not meet the patient’s inspiratory demand. Higher percentages (e.g., 40% or 60%) typically correspond to different color adapters and higher minimum flow settings.

Question 27

The term empyema refers to:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly matches pus accumulating in relation to the lung/pleural cavity rather than a structural tear or bleeding event. Pus in the sinuses describes sinusitis rather than empyema in the usual clinical usage. A ruptured diaphragm and massive haemorrhage are different pathologies and do not involve suppurative pleural infection.

Question 28

What is a distinctive sign that a patient has flail chest?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During inspiration, negative intrathoracic pressure pulls this unstable segment inward while the rest of the chest expands, and during expiration it moves outward, producing a paradoxical pattern. This finding is distinctive because it directly reflects the underlying mechanical instability, whereas cyanosis and hypotension are nonspecific consequences of hypoxia or shock. Dyspnea is common but not uniquely characteristic and does not identify the defining mechanical sign.

Question 29

Normal oxygen saturation is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Values below this range suggest impaired oxygenation and warrant clinical assessment for respiratory, cardiac, or perfusion problems. The 40%, 60%, and 20% choices are incompatible with life or would indicate severe hypoxemia requiring urgent intervention. Therefore the only option consistent with normal physiology is saturation at or above the mid-90s.

Question 30

Which of the following systems is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pattern strongly points to inflammation/irritation of pleura or other lung-related causes such as pleurisy or pulmonary embolism. Cardiac ischemic pain is more often pressure-like and not consistently increased by breathing. Gastrointestinal pain is commonly related to meals or reflux and musculoskeletal pain is usually reproducible with palpation or movement rather than specifically with inspiration.

Question 31

All of the following is true about positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP) except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This recruitment reduces shunt and improves oxygenation, so improved alveolar gas exchange and prevention of alveolar collapse are true effects. By raising intrathoracic pressure, PEEP can impede venous return and lower preload, which is why hypotension can occur at higher levels. Mean airway pressure generally increases (not decreases) when PEEP is added, making this statement the exception.

Question 32

What is the name of the tiny air sacs in your lungs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gas exchange occurs at the terminal respiratory units where very thin walls and a dense capillary network allow diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide. These microscopic air sacs maximize surface area and are lined with surfactant to prevent collapse during exhalation. Bronchioles are small conducting airways that deliver air to the exchange units but are not the primary sacs themselves. The other choices are non-anatomic terms and do not describe lung microstructure.

Question 33

What is a normal tidal volume (Vt) for a client on a ventilator?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Normal adult ventilator tidal volume is traditionally estimated around 6–8 mL/kg (ideally based on predicted body weight) to provide adequate alveolar ventilation while limiting volutrauma. This range aligns most closely with typical “normal” settings taught for basic ventilator parameters. Lower values can be used for lung-protective strategies (e.g., ARDS), but the question asks for a normal tidal volume. Higher ranges increase risk of overdistension, barotrauma, and ventilator-induced lung injury without clear benefit in routine cases.

Question 34

Which malfunction of the respiratory system is the destruction of alveolar walls?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This results in air trapping and impaired diffusion, often presenting with progressive dyspnea and hyperinflation. In contrast, bronchitis primarily involves inflammation and mucus hypersecretion in the bronchi, not alveolar wall destruction. Pneumonia causes alveolar filling with exudate, and asthma is characterized by reversible bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation.

Question 35

A male adult client is suspected of having a pulmonary embolus. A nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This most commonly presents as abrupt shortness of breath, often accompanied by tachypnea and pleuritic chest pain. Bradypnea and decreased respirations are not typical early findings because the physiologic response is usually increased respiratory drive. Bradycardia is also uncommon initially; sympathetic stimulation more often produces tachycardia.

Question 36

A client is in danger of respiratory arrest following the administration of a narcotic analgesic. An arterial blood gas value is obtained. The nurse would expect to PaCO2 to be which of the following values?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With reduced alveolar ventilation, PaCO2 rises (hypercapnia), which is a key ABG change in impending respiratory failure/arrest. A value of 80 mm Hg reflects severe hypoventilation and acute respiratory acidosis risk, fitting the clinical scenario of narcotic-induced respiratory depression. Values like 30 or 15 mm Hg would suggest hyperventilation with CO2 blowing off, which contradicts opioid-related hypoventilation. A PaCO2 of 40 mm Hg is normal and would not match a patient nearing respiratory arrest from depressed ventilation.

Question 37

A client has started a new drug for hypertension. Thirty minutes after he takes the drug, he develops chest tightness and becomes short of breath and tachypneic. He has a decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The timing after starting an antihypertensive can precipitate bronchospasm (e.g., nonselective beta-blockers) or other acute respiratory compromise that progresses to inadequate ventilation/oxygenation. Chest tightness and shortness of breath can occur in several conditions, but altered mental status points to failure of gas exchange rather than a localized joint disease. Pulmonary embolism can cause sudden dyspnea and chest discomfort, yet the question emphasizes progressive ventilatory compromise with reduced consciousness as the key indicator of respiratory failure requiring urgent support.

Question 38

The term "blue bloater" refers to which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to chronic hypoxemia (cyanosis/“blue”) and often hypercapnia with secondary pulmonary hypertension and peripheral edema/weight gain (“bloater”). Emphysema is more associated with the “pink puffer” description due to predominant alveolar destruction and relatively preserved oxygenation early with increased work of breathing. ARDS and asthma are acute or episodic processes and are not the traditional COPD phenotype referred to by this term.

Question 39

The term "pink puffer" refers to the client with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clients often compensate with tachypnea and pursed-lip breathing (“puffing”) to maintain ventilation and oxygenation, which helps them appear relatively well-oxygenated (“pink”) compared with chronic bronchitis. In contrast, chronic obstructive bronchitis is associated with prominent mucus production, ventilation–perfusion mismatch, and hypoxemia (“blue bloater”). ARDS and asthma are acute/inflammatory processes and are not the classic COPD phenotype referenced by this term.

Question 40

A 66-year-old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is thin, and uses accessory muscles to breathe. He's tachypneic, with a prolonged expiratory phase. He has no cough. He leans forward with his arms braced on his knees to support his chest and shoulders for breathing. This client has symptoms of which of the following respiratory disorders?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thin body habitus, dyspnea at rest, accessory muscle use, and the tripod position are classic for emphysema (“pink puffer”) where loss of elastic recoil leads to air trapping. Minimal or absent cough further supports emphysema over chronic bronchitis, which typically has a productive cough and frequent infections. ARDS is an acute hypoxemic respiratory failure syndrome rather than a chronic pattern, and asthma usually has episodic wheeze with reversible bronchospasm rather than progressive cachexia and chronic tripod posture.

Question 41

A client with emphysema should receive only 1 to 3 L/minute of oxygen, if needed, or he may lose his hypoxic drive. Which of the following statements is correct about hypoxic drive?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In some patients with chronic CO2 retention (e.g., advanced COPD/emphysema), central chemoreceptors become less responsive to elevated CO2, so ventilation is driven more by peripheral chemoreceptors sensing low arterial oxygen. When PaO2 falls below a threshold, peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies stimulate increased respiratory drive. Giving high-flow oxygen can raise PaO2 enough to blunt this stimulus and reduce ventilatory effort, contributing to CO2 retention in susceptible patients. Options suggesting breathing occurs when oxygen rises or when CO2 falls do not match the physiology of hypoxemia-triggered peripheral chemoreceptor activation.

Question 42

Which of the following respiratory disorders is most common in the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes early postoperative hypoxemia most commonly due to atelectasis rather than infection. Pneumonia typically develops later because it requires time for bacterial proliferation and inflammatory consolidation. Pneumothorax is an important complication but is far less common and is usually associated with specific risk factors (e.g., central line placement, barotrauma) rather than routine surgery.

Question 43

A 58-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettes a day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema, and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely has which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The presence of thick sputum and persistent cough fits this phenotype better than asthma, which is typically episodic and often reversible. Cyanotic nail beds indicate chronic hypoxemia, and peripheral edema suggests cor pulmonale/right-sided heart strain from chronic pulmonary disease—findings classically associated with the “blue bloater” presentation. Emphysema more often presents with minimal sputum and prominent dyspnea with less cyanosis early (“pink puffer”), making it less consistent with the described signs.

Question 44

Miriam, a college student with acute rhinitis sees the campus nurse because of excessive nasal drainage. The nurse asks the patient about the color of the drainage. In acute rhinitis, nasal drainage normally is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clear drainage reflects increased mucosal permeability and glandular secretion without significant neutrophil-pus content. Yellow or green discharge more strongly suggests a later-stage inflammatory response or secondary bacterial infection due to leukocyte enzymes. Gray is not a typical described color for uncomplicated acute rhinitis and would prompt reconsideration of the diagnosis or exposure-related causes.

Question 45

A male client with pneumococcal pneumonia is admitted to an acute care facility. The client in the next room is being treated for mycoplasmal pneumonia. Despite the different causes for the various types of pneumonia, all of them share which feature?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This shared inflammatory process is present in pneumococcal, mycoplasmal, viral, and other pneumonias even though the pathogens and typical presentations differ. Sudden onset is more typical of some bacterial pneumonias but not universal, and antibiotic responsiveness depends on the organism and drug susceptibility. WBC elevation is common in bacterial infection but may be normal in atypical or viral cases, so it is not a consistent feature across all types.

Question 46

Which phrase is used to describe the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This contrasts with forced vital capacity, which is a maximal maneuver measuring the largest volume exhaled after a full inspiration. Total lung capacity includes all lung volumes (including the air that cannot be exhaled) and therefore is not limited to a normal breath. Residual volume specifically refers to the air remaining in the lungs after maximal exhalation, not the air exchanged with a typical breath.

Question 47

Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms that occur in the lung parenchyma allows pneumonia to develop?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Inflammation increases capillary permeability and recruits neutrophils, leading to alveolar edema and exudate that support consolidation and impaired gas exchange—hallmarks of pneumonia. This mechanism explains the clinical findings of crackles, fever, and hypoxemia due to shunting and reduced ventilation of affected alveoli. By contrast, atelectasis and pleural effusion can impair ventilation but are not the core parenchymal mechanism that defines pneumonia’s development as an infectious consolidation process.

Question 48

A 7-year-old client is brought to the E.R. He's tachypneic and afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and a nonproductive cough. He recently had a cold. From his history, the client may have which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An afebrile presentation with a nonproductive cough and increased respiratory rate is more consistent with an acute asthma exacerbation than an infectious pneumonia. Bronchial pneumonia typically presents with fever, toxic appearance, and often productive cough or focal findings. COPD and emphysema are chronic, adult-predominant conditions and would be very unlikely diagnoses in a 7-year-old based on this brief history.

Question 49

Which of the following assessment findings would help confirm a diagnosis of asthma in a client suspected of having the disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Wheezing that can be heard during both inspiration and expiration supports more diffuse airway narrowing and is a classic assessment finding during an asthma exacerbation. Increased forced expiratory volume would be inconsistent because obstructive disease typically reduces expiratory flow (e.g., decreased FEV1). Circumoral cyanosis is a late, severe sign of hypoxemia and is not specific for diagnosing asthma, while normal breath sounds would not help confirm it.

Question 50

A 69-year-old client appears thin and cachectic. He's short of breath at rest and his dyspnea increases with the slightest exertion. His breath sounds are diminished even with deep inspiration. These signs and symptoms fit which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thin/cachectic body habitus is classic for emphysema due to increased work of breathing and caloric expenditure. Diminished breath sounds even with deep inspiration suggest overdistended lungs and reduced effective ventilation rather than acute bronchospasm. Asthma typically has episodic wheezing with variable symptoms, and chronic bronchitis is more associated with productive cough and a heavier/edematous phenotype.

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Barrel chest is noted on patients with?

Which vital sign is the most critical indicator of a patient’s oxygenation status?

Which oxygen therapy device delivers low concentration oxygen?

Normal oxygen saturation (SpO2) in adults:

What is the primary mechanism of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

The lungs are covered by two membranes called as_____?

Which oxygen therapy device delivers low concentration oxygen?

Which oxygen therapy device delivers a precise oxygen concentration?

Which oxygen mask provides the highest concentration of oxygen?

Spirometry is used to diagnose which disease condition?

Which is the covering of lungs-?

What is the common cause of airway obstruction in unconscious patients?

Which of the following is a symptom of hypoxia?

While on treatment, Nina 18 months old weighed 18 kgs. and her temperature registered at 37 degrees C. Her mother's she developed cough 3 days ago. Nina has no general danger signs. She has 45 breaths/minute, no chest indrawing, no stridor. How would you classify Nina's manifestation?

The exchange of gases between alveoli and their surrounding capillaries is called respiration.?

Most common cause of chronic Asthma?

A major reason for the development of respiratory distress syndrome in the preterm infant is?

Laryngeal Airway location :-

Laryngeal Airway location :-

How to diagnose diaphragmatic hernia?

The person who becomes short of breath with little exertion, such as when eating a meal, has what kind of respiratory condition?

Most important features to diagnose severe pneumonia:-

A lack of Oxygen in Blood is called ?

Which of the following statements concerning ARDS is true? 1. One of the causes of ARDS is CHF. 2. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is elevated in ARDS. 3. Surfactant production is reduced in ARDS. 4. ARDS has a low mortality rate.?

Cough with blood occur in the.

Tha percentage and flow of oxygen in red color of venturi mask is ?

The term empyema refers to:

What is a distinctive sign that a patient has flail chest?

Normal oxygen saturation is?

Which of the following systems is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration?

All of the following is true about positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP) except?

What is the name of the tiny air sacs in your lungs?

What is a normal tidal volume (Vt) for a client on a ventilator?

Which malfunction of the respiratory system is the destruction of alveolar walls?

A male adult client is suspected of having a pulmonary embolus. A nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolism?

A client is in danger of respiratory arrest following the administration of a narcotic analgesic. An arterial blood gas value is obtained. The nurse would expect to PaCO2 to be which of the following values?

A client has started a new drug for hypertension. Thirty minutes after he takes the drug, he develops chest tightness and becomes short of breath and tachypneic. He has a decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate which of the following conditions?

The term "blue bloater" refers to which of the following conditions?

The term "pink puffer" refers to the client with which of the following conditions?

A client with emphysema should receive only 1 to 3 L/minute of oxygen, if needed, or he may lose his hypoxic drive. Which of the following statements is correct about hypoxic drive?

Which of the following respiratory disorders is most common in the first 24 to 48 hours after surgery?

A 58-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettes a day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema, and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely has which of the following conditions?

Miriam, a college student with acute rhinitis sees the campus nurse because of excessive nasal drainage. The nurse asks the patient about the color of the drainage. In acute rhinitis, nasal drainage normally is?

A male client with pneumococcal pneumonia is admitted to an acute care facility. The client in the next room is being treated for mycoplasmal pneumonia. Despite the different causes for the various types of pneumonia, all of them share which feature?

Which phrase is used to describe the volume of air inspired and expired with a normal breath?

Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms that occur in the lung parenchyma allows pneumonia to develop?

A 7-year-old client is brought to the E.R. He's tachypneic and afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and a nonproductive cough. He recently had a cold. From his history, the client may have which of the following?

Which of the following assessment findings would help confirm a diagnosis of asthma in a client suspected of having the disorder?

A 69-year-old client appears thin and cachectic. He's short of breath at rest and his dyspnea increases with the slightest exertion. His breath sounds are diminished even with deep inspiration. These signs and symptoms fit which of the following conditions?

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