Question 1

A 72-year-old client is on hospital day 2 after an ischemic stroke. The client coughs when sipping water, has right-sided weakness, and lives in a third-floor walk-up with a spouse who has limited lifting ability. Which nursing action best demonstrates collaborative care to promote a safe transition of care?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Collaborative care requires purposeful coordination among disciplines to address medical, functional, nutritional, and social needs. An early, structured team huddle using SBAR engages SLP for dysphagia risk, PT/OT for mobility and transfers, a dietitian for nutrition consistency, a social worker for resources, and case management for equipment/home services—reducing complications and readmissions while ensuring continuity. Option B is a unilateral action that may preempt a formal swallow evaluation; option A focuses only on education/transport without addressing core risks; option D delays essential planning.

Question 2

Which statement best reflects the Recommendation component of ISBAR when reporting significant patient change to the physician?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Recommendation component of ISBAR states what action is suggested or requested. Option C proposes a specific intervention and follow-up. A is assessment, B is background, and D is identification.

Question 3

What is the most appropriate initial action when a papular lesion is noted on the perineum of a laboring client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A new perineal lesion in labor could indicate an infectious process (e.g., genital herpes) that may change the delivery plan. The nurse’s priority is to promptly notify the provider for evaluation and orders. Documenting alone or continuing routine care is unsafe, and preparing for a C-section requires a provider order.

Question 4

A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. During examination, the nurse notes a papular lesion on the perineum. Which initial action is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A new perineal lesion during labor may indicate an infectious condition (e.g., HSV/HPV) that can affect delivery decisions and neonatal safety. The nurse’s priority initial action is to notify the provider so the finding can be evaluated and the plan of care adjusted. Preparing for surgery without orders or merely documenting/continuing care is inappropriate.

Question 5

A home health nurse is caring for a client with diabetes and arthritis who has difficulty drawing up insulin. It would be MOST appropriate for the nurse to refer the client to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An OT helps clients develop fine-motor skills and adaptive techniques needed for tasks like drawing up and administering insulin. A social worker addresses resources, a PT focuses on mobility, and a home health aide provides basic care rather than skill training.

Question 6

Which of the following BEST describes strategies that help build personal power in an organization?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Building personal power is best achieved through positive influence and relationships—networking, mentoring, and coalition building—rather than relying on tenure, confrontation, or appearance.

Question 7

Nominal group technique for decision making is described by which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The nominal group technique structures decision making by allowing each member to contribute ideas independently before group discussion. This reduces dominance by outspoken members and ensures equal participation.

Question 8

The nurse manager hears a physician loudly criticizing one of the staff nurses in the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the physician's complaints. The nurse manager's FIRST action should be?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Move the discussion to a private setting and facilitate interprofessional communication to protect clients and staff and address the issue assertively.

Question 9

Which specialist should a patient with liver disease consult?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A hepatologist specializes in liver diseases; the other specialists focus on the heart, lungs, pregnancy/childbirth, or child health.

Question 10

A nurse is caring for a client with worsening shortness of breath and new crackles on lung auscultation. Which action demonstrates effective collaborative care?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Worsening respiratory status requires prompt interdisciplinary collaboration. Contacting the respiratory therapist ensures timely airway support, while notifying the provider facilitates evaluation for urgent interventions such as diuretics, oxygen adjustments, or imaging. Delay in escalation may compromise client safety.

Question 11

A baby in the NICU is having trouble latching on to the bottle for feeding. What interdisciplinary team member can help with this?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Speech-language pathologists evaluate and manage infant feeding and swallowing, including suck–swallow–breathe coordination for bottle feeding. They can recommend appropriate nipple types, pacing, and positioning and provide oral-motor therapy. Physical therapists focus on gross motor skills, and lactation specialists primarily assist with breastfeeding latch rather than bottle feeding. Occupational therapists may support feeding skills, but primary expertise for dysphagia and swallowing lies with the speech therapist.

Question 12

The doctor prescribes IV antibiotics and the nurse administers them. Which step is this?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Administering IV antibiotics is the act of carrying out a prescribed treatment, which falls under the implementation phase of the nursing process. Because the intervention requires a provider order, it is classified as a dependent nursing intervention. Planning would involve selecting goals and interventions, diagnosis involves identifying nursing diagnoses, and evaluation assesses the patient’s response after the intervention.

Question 13

The nurse completes an admission database and explains that the plan of care and discharge goals will be developed with the patient's input. The patient states, How is this different from what the doctor does? Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Option D best describes the nursing role as collaborative, patient-centered care that includes partnering with the patient to set goals and create a plan for health maintenance and discharge. Nursing care focuses not only on implementing prescribed treatments but also on assessment, education, health promotion, and coordination to support recovery and long-term wellness. Options A and B incorrectly reduce nursing to carrying out physician orders or assisting the doctor. Option C is vague and does not clearly explain the distinct nursing focus on individualized, holistic care planning with the patient.

Question 14

Collaborative intervention is-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A collaborative intervention involves interprofessional teamwork where the nurse coordinates care with other healthcare professionals to achieve patient outcomes. Working with a physiotherapist for rehabilitation requires shared planning and execution across disciplines, which is the essence of collaborative care. The other options describe independent nursing actions (pain assessment) or nurse-initiated dependent interventions (administering a drug based on a provider order), not collaboration.

Question 15

A conflict arises between two team members during a shift. What should the nurse leader do first?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The nurse leader should first address team conflict promptly and privately to maintain a respectful work environment and preserve patient safety. Private mediation allows both parties to communicate concerns, clarify misunderstandings, and work toward a collaborative solution without escalating the situation unnecessarily. Ignoring the issue risks worsening teamwork and errors, while reporting to the hospital director or permanently changing shifts are premature actions unless safety threats or repeated unresolved issues persist after appropriate unit-level intervention.

Question 16

What is the primary purpose of TNCC certification?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: TNCC (Trauma Nursing Core Course) is designed to provide nurses with a standardized, evidence-based approach to the assessment and initial management of trauma patients. It focuses on improving trauma care knowledge and clinical decision-making using consistent priorities and terminology across settings. It does not replace physician care, is not a surgical specialization, and does not confer prescribing authority.

Question 17

A diabetic client is NPO for surgery. What should the nurse do regarding morning insulin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A client who is NPO preoperatively often requires adjustments to insulin to prevent both hypoglycemia (if usual dose is given without intake) and hyperglycemia/ketosis (if insulin is omitted). The correct action is to verify the specific perioperative insulin plan (e.g., which insulin types to hold, reduce, or continue, and target glucose range) with the prescriber/anesthesia team. Blanket directions such as “give full,” “give half,” or “omit” are unsafe because the appropriate management depends on the insulin regimen (basal vs. prandial) and current glucose control. Clarifying orders supports safe, coordinated perioperative care and prevents medication errors.

Question 18

When you are ill, first speak to ____?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When a person is ill, the safest first point of contact for assessment, diagnosis, and treatment planning is a licensed healthcare provider. A doctor can evaluate symptoms, identify red flags, order appropriate tests, and start evidence-based therapy or refer to higher-level care if needed. Family or friends may provide support but cannot reliably rule out serious conditions or prescribe treatment. Therefore, "Doctor" is the best answer.

Question 19

The emergency department nurse is caring for a client exposed to inhalation anthrax. It would be essential for the nurse to take which action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Notify the public health department Inhalation anthrax is a potential bioterrorism-related, reportable condition and requires immediate notification of public health authorities for investigation, contact tracing, and coordinated prophylaxis measures. This action is essential to protect the community and ensure rapid public health response alongside the patient’s clinical management. Continuous pulse oximetry and chest radiography may be appropriate assessments, but they do not meet the urgent legal/public health reporting priority. Lumbar puncture is not a routine or essential initial action for suspected inhalation anthrax.

Question 20

When experiencing conflict with another nurse (that is not resolvable between the parties), what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Report the conflict to the nurse manager of the unit. If conflict cannot be resolved between the involved staff, the appropriate next step is to follow the chain of command and escalate to the nurse manager, who has authority and responsibility for staffing issues, mediation, and unit-level performance management. Going directly to the director of nursing is typically an unnecessary escalation unless the manager is unavailable or part of the conflict. Involving another peer nurse (not in a supervisory role) is not an appropriate formal escalation pathway and may worsen confidentiality and workplace dynamics.

Question 21

The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse should plan to take which most appropriate intervention?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Withhold the medication and call the HCP, questioning the prescription for the client. Exenatide (a GLP-1 receptor agonist) is not indicated for type 1 diabetes and should not be used as a substitute for insulin; use in type 1 diabetes is inappropriate because endogenous insulin secretion is absent. Administering it as ordered risks ineffective therapy and potential harm, including hypoglycemia if combined with insulin without appropriate rationale and monitoring. The safest nursing action is to hold the medication and clarify the prescription with the prescriber before administration.

Question 22

The nurse manager reviews the results of a staff satisfaction survey. The feedback requests better engagement from the manager and staff involvement in unit-based decisions. Based on this feedback, the nurse manager plans to adjust their management style to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leadership approach increases staff participation in decision-making and promotes shared governance, directly addressing requests for involvement in unit-based decisions. It also emphasizes two-way communication and engagement between the manager and staff, which improves morale and satisfaction. In contrast, autocratic limits input, laissez-faire lacks guidance/engagement, and transactional focuses mainly on rewards and performance rather than shared decision-making.

Question 23

The transformational leader engages staff by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Transformational leadership is characterized by inspiring and motivating team members through a shared vision, empowerment, and participation in decisions. This approach increases engagement, autonomy, and commitment, which supports effective team performance and patient-care outcomes. In contrast, punitive, top-down, or unilateral decision-making styles align more with authoritarian/transactional leadership and tend to reduce staff involvement and collaboration.

Question 24

In the provision of nursing care, it is most important to perform which of the following actions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nursing care is a continuous process, and assessing outcomes is essential to determine whether interventions are effective or need modification. Evaluation provides the feedback loop for clinical judgment, enabling timely recognition of deterioration, adverse effects, or unmet goals. Without evaluating responses, administering medications or implementing orders may continue despite harm or lack of benefit, compromising patient safety and quality of care.

Question 25

A nurse has just received a medication order which is not legible. Which statement best reflects assertive communication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This response is respectful, direct, and focused on patient safety by verifying an unclear order before administering a medication. It communicates the nurse’s concern without blaming or attacking the prescriber, which supports effective interprofessional collaboration. The other options are either accusatory or dismissive and can escalate conflict while still failing to constructively resolve the unsafe ambiguity.

Question 26

Select the member of the healthcare team that is paired with one of the main functions of this team member?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Speech-language pathologists assess and manage dysphagia, including bedside swallow evaluations and strategies to reduce aspiration risk. Gait training is primarily a physical therapy function. Assistive devices for activities of daily living (e.g., adaptive utensils, dressing aids) are typically addressed by occupational therapy. Case managers coordinate care, resources, and discharge planning rather than prescribing medications or ordering treatments.

Question 27

The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber include?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Holistic, patient-centered assessment considers physical symptoms along with psychosocial factors, functional status, health literacy, and patient goals, which improves shared decision-making and adherence. This approach can enhance coordination of care, preventive counseling, and monitoring for medication effectiveness and adverse effects. The other options are inaccurate or overly generalized (pharmacology knowledge varies, controlled-substance prescribing is regulated and not inherently less likely, and APRN independent practice authority varies by state).

Question 28

Select the best description of nursing practice in the psychiatric setting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Interdisciplinary psychiatric care requires collaboration among multiple professionals, but each discipline maintains a distinct perspective and scope. Nursing uniquely integrates continuous assessment, therapeutic communication, medication administration/monitoring, patient education, and advocacy while coordinating day-to-day care. Saying the nurse is merely “supportive” minimizes nursing’s autonomous role, and suggesting roles need not be defined is unsafe and inconsistent with scope-of-practice standards. Claims that nursing actions are “clearly differentiated” from all other professions are too absolute given real-world role overlap.

Question 29

Two nurses disagree on patient care priorities. What should the nurse leader do?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The safest leadership response is to use collaborative conflict-resolution so the team can align on patient priorities using clinical evidence and unit standards. Bringing both nurses together supports open communication, clarifies roles, and helps reach a shared plan of care that protects patient safety. The other options either escalate conflict, allow unsafe inconsistency in care, or use punitive staffing changes without attempting resolution.

Question 30

20 minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60 mmHG. What action should the practical nurse take immediately?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epidural anesthesia can cause sympathetic blockade leading to maternal hypotension, which can rapidly compromise uteroplacental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This is an urgent change in maternal status that requires prompt escalation for medical evaluation and interventions (e.g., IV fluid bolus, positioning, vasopressor per protocol). Simply continuing to monitor delays definitive treatment, and uterine palpation does not address the immediate hemodynamic risk. Turning off the epidural may be outside the practical nurse’s scope/prescribed orders and does not replace rapid provider/team response.

Question 31

A garment factory does not have an occupational nurse. Who shall provide the occupational health needs of the factory workers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the absence of an occupational health nurse within a workplace, community health services typically provide occupational health support through the local public health system. The RHU public health nurse is positioned to deliver preventive services, health education, surveillance, and referral for workers at the municipal level. A physician employed by the factory is not available by the stem, and the rural sanitary inspector’s role is more focused on sanitation and regulatory inspections rather than comprehensive occupational health nursing services. The provincial office role is usually supervisory/technical and not the primary point of service delivery for a specific municipality’s workers.

Question 32

A nurse practitioner is a member of which group?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nurse practitioners deliver advanced clinical care while coordinating and collaborating with other health professionals (e.g., physicians, pharmacists, therapists, social workers) to optimize outcomes. This places the NP within an interprofessional/multiprofessional healthcare team rather than restricting the role to administrative management. While NPs may demonstrate leadership, the defining structure emphasized is collaborative clinical practice across disciplines.

Question 33

A client who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is having frequent episodes of dysphagia. Which of the following referrals is appropriate for the nurse to make currently?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ALS commonly causes bulbar muscle weakness leading to impaired swallowing and elevated aspiration risk. A speech-language pathologist evaluates dysphagia, recommends safe swallowing techniques and diet texture modifications, and determines need for further interventions (e.g., instrumental swallow study). Physical and occupational therapy focus on mobility and ADLs rather than primary management of swallowing safety. A dietitian can assist with nutrition planning, but the immediate priority is swallowing assessment and aspiration prevention.

Question 34

A client who has chronic progressive dementia exhibits symptoms of malnutrition. Which action is needed at this time?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Malnutrition in progressive dementia is multifactorial (swallowing difficulty, inability to self-feed, medication effects, caregiver burden), so safe management requires coordinated assessment and a unified plan. Interprofessional collaboration can rapidly address nutrition support (dietitian), swallowing safety (speech-language pathology), functional feeding assistance (OT), and caregiver/community resources (social work/case management). The other options are either premature (abuse report without evidence), too narrow (PT daily), or insufficient alone (written instructions) and do not ensure comprehensive, coordinated care.

Question 35

Scenario: A patient scheduled for surgery drank tea 2 hours before surgery. Q. What should the nurse do?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Preoperative fasting is required to reduce aspiration risk during induction of anesthesia; drinking tea 2 hours pre-op may violate NPO guidelines depending on institutional policy and whether it is considered a clear liquid. The nurse should promptly notify the anesthesia provider and surgeon so they can assess aspiration risk and decide whether to delay, proceed, or modify the anesthetic plan. Nurses do not independently cancel surgery, and inserting an NG tube is not a routine or definitive fix for recent oral intake. Proceeding without communicating the intake could compromise patient safety.

Question 36

A nurse manager meet regularly with other nurse managers, participates on the organizations committees, and attends meetings sponsored by professional organizations in order to manage relationships. These activities are considered which function of a manager?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These actions focus on building and maintaining professional relationships across departments and organizations to facilitate collaboration and resource sharing. Committee participation and attending professional meetings expand contacts and improve coordination, which strengthens influence and access to information for effective management. Informing, monitoring, and problem solving are important managerial tasks, but they do not specifically describe relationship-building through external and internal professional connections.

Question 37

In conflict management, the win-win approach occurs when?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A win-win approach aligns with collaboration/problem-solving, where all parties actively engage to address the underlying issues and reach a mutually beneficial outcome. This requires shared commitment, open communication, and a focus on common goals rather than concessions that leave both sides partially dissatisfied. Splitting differences 50/50 describes compromise (often win-lose/lose-lose depending on outcomes), and settling out of court is unrelated to interpersonal conflict resolution strategies in nursing leadership.

Question 38

The manager gives incentive for one employee on their extra effort on new project, the power which used in this situation is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In leadership theory, power is defined by the ability to influence others’ behavior through specific mechanisms. Providing an incentive for extra effort is a direct use of positive reinforcement, where desired performance is encouraged by offering valued benefits.

Question 39

ART-DOTS linkages is being established at all?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Establishing ART-DOTS linkages at TB treatment points reduces missed diagnoses, improves adherence support through DOTS infrastructure, and lowers TB-related mortality in people living with HIV. TB centers are the operational site where TB case detection and treatment supervision occur, making them the most efficient location for linkage mechanisms. Other facility types may provide ART, but they are not the universal point-of-contact for all TB patients and therefore do not meet the intent of “DOTS linkage at all” sites.

Question 40

The nurse anticipates that for a family who practices Chinese medicine the priority goal would be to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The nurse anticipates goals that focus on restoring equilibrium between yin (cool, passive) and yang (warm, active) to relieve illness symptoms and promote well-being. This option directly reflects the core organizing principle commonly taught about Chinese medicine and guides culturally congruent care planning. Other choices are more general (e.g., harmony or respect for life) and do not capture the specific yin–yang balance that is prioritized in this healing system.

Question 41

Nurse Linda tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in all directions and involve workers in decision making. Which form of organizational structure is this?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Decentralized organizational structures distribute decision-making authority closer to the point of care, which increases staff participation and accountability. This approach supports multidirectional communication (upward, downward, and lateral) because information is shared across levels rather than filtered through a single chain of command. It also aligns with shared governance and team-based practice, where frontline nurses contribute to operational and clinical decisions. A centralized structure is a common distractor because it typically concentrates authority at the top, which restricts autonomy and tends to favor primarily downward communication.

Question 42

In developing a plan of care for a clean with chronic hypertension which nursing activity would be most important?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Involving the client and family improves understanding, motivation, cultural fit, and follow-through, which directly impacts long-term blood pressure control. This approach also enables the nurse to identify barriers (health literacy, resources, preferences) and tailor interventions accordingly. While sodium reduction, incremental BP targets, and medication-adherence assessment are important interventions, they are less effective if the plan is not jointly developed with the client/family to ensure commitment and feasibility.

Question 43

During which phase of the nursing process does the nurse use essential information about the child's physical, cognitive, and emotional health and about the family's adaptation to health alterations to decide which interventions to use?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The stem emphasizes using collected information about the child and family to decide which interventions to use, which is the core task of planning. Assessment is focused on collecting and validating data rather than choosing interventions, and diagnosis is focused on labeling patient responses/problems. Implementation is the phase where the chosen interventions are carried out, not selected.

Question 44

To determine possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, which is the BEST method that may be undertaken by the public health nurse?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Identifying sources of sexually transmitted infections relies on systematically finding and notifying exposed partners to interrupt transmission and locate the likely index/source cases. Contact tracing directly targets sexual partners and recent contacts, providing the highest-yield and most specific method for source determination compared with broad population approaches. Community surveys and mass screening can estimate prevalence and detect cases, but they are less efficient for mapping transmission chains and identifying specific sources. “Interview of suspects” is not a standard public health STI control strategy and is less reliable than structured partner services that document and follow contacts confidentially.

Question 45

You are the PHN in the city health center. A client underwent screening for AIDS using ELISA. His result was positive. What is the best course of action that you may take?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  A screening test is designed to be sensitive, so a positive result must be confirmed with a more specific supplemental test before a definitive diagnosis and counseling are given. Confirmatory testing reduces the risk of harm from false-positive results and ensures accurate clinical and public health management. Immediate detailed risk-history taking or disclosure planning can follow confirmation, but the priority is validating the result first. Referring disclosure solely to the physician is unnecessary; the key safety step is appropriate confirmatory testing per protocol.

Question 46

Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The municipal health board is a coordinating body that aligns health programs, budgeting, and implementation with local government priorities, which is led by the mayor. Clinical staff such as the municipal health officer and public health nurse function as technical and operational leads, but do not chair the governing board. Choosing “any qualified physician” is too nonspecific and does not reflect the formal leadership designation for the board.

Question 47

The nurse manager is concerned about cultural awareness among staff nurses. Each nurse is given a questionnaire to help identify the areas of personal cultural awareness that need to be examined. Which question will provide the staff nurses with important information to promote cultural awareness?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " Cultural awareness begins with self-awareness, because clinicians must recognize their own cultural values, assumptions, and potential biases before they can provide consistently respectful, individualized care. This question directly targets reflection on personal cultural identity, which is the foundation for developing cultural humility and reducing stereotyping in practice. The assessment-focused option addresses clinical data gathering but does not specifically identify the nurse’s internal biases or perspectives that may shape interactions. The remaining options are inappropriate because they center the nurse’s beliefs over the client’s needs, increasing the risk of ethnocentric care and communication barriers.

Question 48

The nurse manager identifies that time spent by staff in charting is excessive, requiring overtime for completion. The nurse manager states that "staff will form a task force to investigate and develop potential solutions to the problem, and report on this at the next staff meeting." The nurse manager's leadership style is best described as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Creating a task force of staff to investigate the charting issue and bring recommendations back to the group reflects delegation of problem-solving authority rather than unilateral manager-driven decisions. This approach promotes buy-in, uses frontline expertise, and often improves workflow changes because those doing the work help design the solution. Autocratic leadership would more typically involve the manager independently deciding and directing corrective actions without soliciting staff input. Laissez-faire would involve minimal direction or follow-up, which is not consistent with organizing a structured task force with a reporting expectation.

Question 49

The nurse admits an elderly Mexican-American migrant worker after an accident that occurred during work. To facilitate communication the nurse should initially?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This establishes whether an interpreter is necessary and what level/type (in-person, phone/video) will ensure accurate informed consent, history-taking, and safety instructions. Using family or co-workers risks breaches of confidentiality and inaccurate translation, especially for medical terminology and work-related injury details. Pictures or boards can be helpful adjuncts, but they do not replace an initial language assessment needed to choose the safest, most reliable communication approach.

Question 50

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute heart failure who reports increasing shortness of breath and anxiety. The nurse notifies the provider and receives new prescriptions for IV furosemide and a respiratory therapy consult. Which action best demonstrates effective collaborative care?

Accepted Answer

Collaborative care involves coordinated, interdisciplinary management of a client’s condition. Working directly with the respiratory therapist to initiate oxygen therapy while monitoring the effects of IV diuretics reflects active communication, shared planning, and integrated intervention across disciplines.

Option A reflects independent nursing implementation but not interprofessional collaboration.
Option B addresses psychosocial support but does not demonstrate interdisciplinary coordination.
Option D represents task delegation rather than collaborative clinical management.

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