Reproductive System Practice Test 8
Reproductive System NCLEX Practice Test
Reproductive System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Reproductive System. This section covers anatomy, physiology, and nursing management of reproductive health conditions. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 8th part of the Reproductive System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Reproductive System Practice Test 8
What is the weight of a non-pregnant uterus?
- 1000 gm
- 10 gm
- 100 gm
- 50 gm
Explanation: Answer reason: The normal non-pregnant uterus weighs about 50–70 g; among the options, 50 gm is the most accurate value.
What is the condition called when retraction of the foreskin is difficult or impossible?
- Hydrocele
- Hypoaldosteronism
- Cryptorchidism
- Phimosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Phimosis is the inability or difficulty in retracting the foreskin over the glans penis. Hydrocele is fluid in the scrotum, hypoaldosteronism is an endocrine disorder, and cryptorchidism is undescended testis.
Which tube is clamped during a vasectomy?
- Ejaculatory duct
- Seminiferous tubules
- Seminal vesicle
- Vas deferens
Explanation: Answer reason: Vasectomy involves cutting, tying, or clamping the vas deferens to block sperm transport from the testes to the urethra.
Menstruation may be disturbed by?
- Being overweight
- Emotional stress
- Excessive exercise
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Excess body fat, psychological stress, and strenuous exercise can each disrupt hypothalamic–pituitary–ovarian function, leading to menstrual irregularities; therefore all are correct.
Which of the following are mucus-producing glands located on each side of the vaginal opening?
- Adrenal
- Bartholin's
- Bulbourethral
- Corpus luteum
- Parotid
Explanation: Answer reason: Bartholin's (greater vestibular) glands are paired mucus-secreting glands located at the vaginal introitus. The other options are unrelated glands.
Late hyperglycemia in pregnancy is associated with which condition?
- Macrosomia
- IUGR
- Postmaturity
- Congenital malformation
Explanation: Answer reason: Late-pregnancy maternal hyperglycemia causes fetal hyperinsulinemia, promoting excess growth and fat deposition, leading to macrosomia. Congenital malformations are linked to early first-trimester hyperglycemia; IUGR is more associated with vascular disease.
What is the most common complication of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
- Salphingitis
- Endometritis
- Vaginitis
- Gonorrhea
Explanation: Answer reason: PID most commonly leads to inflammation and scarring of the fallopian tubes (salpingitis), which underlies complications such as infertility and ectopic pregnancy. Other choices are causes or less typical sequelae.
During which trimester does degeneration most commonly occur?
- 1st trimester
- 2nd trimester
- 3rd trimester
- Puerperium period
Explanation: Answer reason: In pregnancy, red degeneration of uterine fibroids most commonly occurs during the second trimester.
Where are Bartholin glands located?
- Near The Breast
- Opening Of Vagina
- On The Kidney
- Near The Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: Bartholin (greater vestibular) glands are located bilaterally at the posterior vestibule with ducts opening near the vaginal orifice, providing mucus for lubrication.
Parasympathetic innervation of the testis includes which of the following nerves?
- Vagus
- Pelvic splanchnic
- Genitofemoral nerve
- Sciatic
Explanation: Answer reason: Autonomic fibers to the testes travel via the testicular plexus with the testicular artery from the aortic/renal plexuses; the parasympathetic contribution is via the vagus nerve. Pelvic splanchnic nerves supply pelvic organs (e.g., bladder, rectum), not the testes.
What is the lifespan of sperm for fertilization in the vagina?
- 96 hours
- 72 hours
- 48 hours
- 24 hours
Explanation: Answer reason: Sperm remain viable for fertilization in the female reproductive tract for about 48 hours.
What is the average menstrual blood loss?
- 60 ml
- 20 ml
- 30 ml
- 50 ml
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal menstrual loss ranges about 20–80 mL, with an average commonly cited around 50 mL; therefore 50 ml is the best answer.
What is the pH characteristic of sperm?
- Acidic
- No concentration
- Acidic and sometimes alkalic
- Alkalic
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal semen is slightly alkaline (about pH 7.2–8.0) to counteract the acidic vaginal environment.
What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
- Bleeding disorders
- Abruptio placenta
- Placenta previa
- Atonic uterus
Explanation: Answer reason: Uterine atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage; inadequate uterine contraction after delivery results in excessive bleeding. The other options are less common or relate to antepartum bleeding.
Which phase is Galactopoiesis?
- Preparation of Breast
- Synthesis & secretion of the milk
- Ejection of milk
- Maintain lactation
Explanation: Answer reason: Galactopoiesis refers to the maintenance of established milk production, sustained primarily by prolactin and regular milk removal. Other phases are mammogenesis (preparation), lactogenesis (initiation/synthesis), and milk ejection.
What is the first sign of cervical cancer?
- Amenorrhea
- Oligomenorrhea
- Polymenorrhea
- Metrotrhagia
Explanation: Answer reason: The earliest symptom of cervical cancer is abnormal vaginal bleeding, particularly intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding (metrorrhagia).
Freshly ejaculated semen has high viscosity, self liquefaction should be completed after.......minute?
- 15
- 30
- 45
- 2hrs
Explanation: Answer reason: After ejaculation, semen coagulates due to proteins from the seminal vesicles, then liquefies under the action of prostatic proteolytic enzymes such as PSA. Normal liquefaction occurs within 15–30 minutes and is expected to be complete by about 30 minutes. Delayed liquefaction (>60 minutes) may indicate prostatic dysfunction or infection and can impair sperm motility and analysis.
Painful menstruation is called as?
- Menopause
- Menarche
- Dysmenorrhoea
- Amenorrhea
Explanation: Answer reason: Painful menstruation is termed dysmenorrhea, typically due to increased uterine prostaglandins causing intense cramping. Menarche refers to the first onset of menstruation. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation. Menopause is the permanent cessation of menses.
In a female, age of menarche is?
- 10 yrs
- 13 yrs
- 15 yrs
- 45 yrs
Explanation: Answer reason: The average age of menarche—the first menstrual period—is around 12–13 years in most populations, influenced by genetics, nutrition, and overall health. While menarche can normally occur as early as 10, 13 years best represents the typical age. Menarche at 15 may indicate delayed puberty if other secondary sexual characteristics are absent, and 45 years corresponds to the usual age of menopause, not menarche.
During normal child birth ____ is delivered first?
- Head
- Buttocks
- Legs
- Shoulders
Explanation: Answer reason: In normal labor, the fetus is in a cephalic (vertex) presentation, so the head engages and crowns first. The cardinal movements of labor facilitate flexion and descent of the head through the birth canal. Buttocks or legs presenting first indicate a breech presentation, which is not considered normal. Shoulders and the rest of the body follow after delivery of the head.
Excessive menstrual bleeding is called-?
- Menorrhagia
- Amenorrhea
- Dysmenorrhoea
- Hypomenorrhoea
Explanation: Answer reason: Excessive or prolonged menstrual bleeding is termed menorrhagia, classically defined as >80 mL per cycle or bleeding lasting more than 7 days. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation. Dysmenorrhoea is painful menstruation without implying heavy flow. Hypomenorrhoea denotes scant or light menstrual bleeding.
The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called?
- Cervix
- Hymen
- Oviduct
- Labia minora
Explanation: Answer reason: The hymen is a thin mucous membrane that may partially cover the vaginal introitus in some individuals. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus, not a membrane at the vaginal opening. The oviduct is the fallopian tube, unrelated to the vaginal opening. The labia minora are folds of skin flanking the vestibule, not a membrane covering it.
Honey comb Appearance in HSG is suggestive of?
- Asherman's syndrome
- Cushing's syndrome
- Sheehan's syndrome
- Turner's syndrome
Explanation: Answer reason: On hysterosalpingography, intrauterine adhesions of Asherman's syndrome create multiple irregular filling defects and compartmentalization of the uterine cavity, producing a honeycomb-like pattern. HSG specifically outlines the endometrial cavity, making synechiae readily apparent. Cushing's, Sheehan's, and Turner's syndromes are endocrine/genetic disorders not diagnosed by HSG nor associated with this radiographic sign.
The greatest danger of labour with breech presentation?
- Prolapsed foot
- Prolapsed cord
- Precipitate labour
- Prolapsed arm
Explanation: Answer reason: In breech presentation, the presenting part does not effectively fill the pelvic inlet, leaving space for the umbilical cord to slip past when membranes rupture, especially in footling breech. Cord prolapse can lead to acute fetal hypoxia due to cord compression, making it the most dangerous immediate complication. Prolapsed extremities and precipitate labor are possible but generally less imminently life‑threatening than a prolapsed cord.
Vaginal lubrication is mainly due to secretion from?
- Ovaries
- Bartholin’s glands
- Fallopian tube
- Cervix
Explanation: Answer reason: The greater vestibular (Bartholin) glands secrete mucus that lubricates the vestibule and vaginal introitus, providing the principal glandular source of vaginal lubrication during intercourse. Cervical mucus varies with the menstrual cycle and contributes minimally to lubrication. Ovaries and fallopian tubes do not produce secretions that lubricate the vagina.
Commonest cause of bleeding at term is-?
- PPH
- Placenta praevia
- Abruptio placentae
- Atomic uterus
Explanation: Answer reason: In late pregnancy, the most frequent cause of painless vaginal bleeding is placenta praevia, where the placenta overlies or is close to the cervical os. Abruptio placentae typically presents with painful bleeding and uterine tenderness and is less common. PPH and an atonic uterus refer to postpartum bleeding etiologies rather than antepartum bleeding at term. Therefore, placenta praevia is the best answer.
PIH is also known as?
- Toxaemia of pregnancy
- Anaemia of pregnancy
- Hyperemesis gravidarum
- Abruptio placenta
Explanation: Answer reason: PIH stands for pregnancy-induced hypertension, which is essentially preeclampsia and historically referred to as toxemia of pregnancy. It is characterized by new-onset hypertension with or without proteinuria after 20 weeks’ gestation. Anaemia of pregnancy, hyperemesis gravidarum, and abruptio placenta are distinct conditions unrelated to hypertensive disease in pregnancy.
Major volume of semen secreted by?
- Seminal vesicles
- Prostate gland
- Cowper’s gland
- Bulbourethral gland
Explanation: Answer reason: Seminal vesicles contribute the largest portion of semen, roughly 60–70% of the ejaculate, providing fructose and prostaglandins that support sperm motility and viability. The prostate adds about 20–30% of the volume, supplying enzymes and alkaline fluid. Cowper’s (bulbourethral) glands secrete a small amount of mucus-rich pre-ejaculatory fluid for lubrication. Therefore, the major volume is from the seminal vesicles.
Monthly discharge of blood from Vagina is called ---------?
- Ovulation
- Abortion
- Mesntruation
- Fertilization
Explanation: Answer reason: The monthly discharge of blood from the vagina is menstruation, which is the shedding of the uterine lining when pregnancy does not occur. Ovulation refers to the release of an ovum from the ovary, not bleeding. Abortion is the termination or loss of an established pregnancy. Fertilization is the union of sperm and ovum and precedes any possible pregnancy.
In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the ovulation takes place typically on?
- Day 14 of the cycle
- Day 28 of the cycle
- Day 1 of the cycle
- Day 5 of the cycle
Explanation: Answer reason: In a typical 28‑day menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs about 14 days before the onset of the next menses. The luteal phase is relatively constant at ~14 days, while the follicular phase varies. The mid‑cycle LH surge triggers follicular rupture and ovum release around day 14. Therefore, day 14 is the expected time of ovulation.
Irregular, acyclic bleeding from the uterus is termed as-?
- Menorrhagia
- Metrorrhagia
- Dysmenorrhoea
- Amenorrhea
Explanation: Answer reason: Metrorrhagia refers to uterine bleeding occurring at irregular intervals, particularly between expected menstrual periods, and is not related to the normal cyclic menses. Menorrhagia is excessive or prolonged bleeding that remains cyclic. Dysmenorrhoea is painful menstruation, and amenorrhea is the absence of menses. Therefore, irregular, acyclic uterine bleeding is best termed metrorrhagia.
The Female Organ Which Corresponds To The Male Penis Is?
- Vestibule
- Hymen
- Clitoris
- Labia Majora
Explanation: Answer reason: The clitoris is the female homolog of the male penis, both developing from the genital tubercle. Like the penis, the clitoris contains erectile tissue and a glans, becoming engorged with blood during sexual arousal. The vestibule, hymen, and labia majora do not share this direct embryologic and functional homology.
The first menstruation in a female is called as-?
- Amenorrhea
- Menopause
- Dysmenorrhea
- Menarche
Explanation: Answer reason: The onset of the first menstrual period is termed menarche. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation. Menopause is the permanent cessation of menses after the reproductive years. Dysmenorrhea denotes painful menstruation.
Life of sperm for fertilization in vagina is?
- 96 hours
- 72 hours
- 48 hours
- 24 hours
Explanation: Answer reason: Sperm remain viable in the female reproductive tract for approximately 72 hours under favorable conditions. Cervical mucus and the upper reproductive tract help protect and nourish sperm, while vaginal acidity limits survival without this protection. Peak fertilizing capacity occurs within the first 48–72 hours after ejaculation. Therefore, 72 hours is the best single answer.
Normal vaginal PH is.....?
- 4-5
- 5-6
- 6-7
- 7-8
Explanation: Answer reason: In reproductive-age women, normal vaginal pH is acidic, typically 3.8–4.5, maintained by Lactobacillus species producing lactic acid from glycogen. This acidity inhibits pathogenic organisms and supports normal flora. Among the given ranges, 4–5 best represents the normal physiologic range.
What is the most common cause of postpartum haemorrhage?
- Uterine rupture
- Uterine atony
- Vulval or vaginal lacerations
- Retained placenta
Explanation: Answer reason: Uterine atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage because failure of the myometrium to contract after delivery prevents compression of the uterine spiral arteries, resulting in brisk bleeding. Risk factors include uterine overdistension, prolonged labor, chorioamnionitis, and use of tocolytics. Lacerations, retained placenta, and uterine rupture can cause hemorrhage but are less common overall.
What are the testes?
- Producer and storers pf millions of sperm
- Producer of male sex hormones
- Both of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: The testes are the male gonads that produce sperm within the seminiferous tubules and secrete male sex hormones, primarily testosterone, from Leydig cells. While long-term storage of sperm occurs in the epididymis, the testes are responsible for their production and for endocrine function. Therefore, the best overall choice that captures both functions is 'Both of the above.
Hindmilk is rich in?
- Water
- Fat
- Protein
- Minerals
Explanation: Answer reason: During a breastfeeding session, foremilk is more watery and lactose-rich, while fat content rises as the feed progresses. Hindmilk, delivered later in the feed, has a significantly higher concentration of fat, providing most of the calories and promoting satiety and weight gain in the infant. Protein and mineral concentrations change little across the feed compared with the marked increase in fat.
Full dilatation of cervix is?
- 5 cm
- 8 cm
- 10 cm
- 12 cm
Explanation: Answer reason: Complete cervical dilatation is 10 cm, which allows the fetal head to pass through the cervix and marks the transition to the second stage of labor. Measurements less than this (5 or 8 cm) indicate active labor but not full dilatation. A value like 12 cm exceeds normal anatomic limits and is not used clinically.
The part of sperm which contain its DNA?
- Tail
- Legs
- Body
- Head
Explanation: Answer reason: The DNA of a sperm cell is contained in its head, specifically within the nucleus that holds the haploid genetic material. The acrosome at the tip of the head contains enzymes for penetrating the ovum but no DNA. The midpiece (body) houses mitochondria for energy production, and the tail provides motility. "Legs" are not a structural part of sperm.
Menopause normally begins at-?
- 10-15 years
- 45-55 years
- 65-75 years
- 25-35 years
Explanation: Answer reason: Menopause is the permanent cessation of menses after 12 months of amenorrhea due to ovarian follicle depletion. The average age is about 51 years, with a typical normal range from 45 to 55 years. Ages 10–15 reflect menarche, 25–35 are reproductive years, and 65–75 is well beyond the expected menopausal transition.
Absence of menstruation is called?
- Amenorrhoea
- Dysmenorrhoea
- Menopause
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: The medical term for absence of menstruation is amenorrhea, which can be primary or secondary depending on onset. Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation, not absence. Menopause is the permanent cessation of menses after 12 consecutive months without periods due to ovarian failure, a specific life stage rather than the general term for missing periods.
The first day of bleeding is called day ____ of the cycle?
- 1
- 7
- 14
- 28
Explanation: Answer reason: By convention, menstrual cycle counting begins on the first day of menstrual bleeding, which is designated as Day 1. This marks the start of the follicular phase. In a typical 28-day cycle, ovulation occurs around Day 14 and the cycle ends by Day 28. Therefore, the first day of bleeding is Day 1.
Process of formation of sperms is known as?
- Spermiogenesis
- Spermation
- Spermatogenesis
- Spermiation
Explanation: Answer reason: Spermatogenesis is the complete process by which spermatogonia develop into mature spermatozoa through mitosis, meiosis, and differentiation. Spermiogenesis refers only to the final transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa. Spermiation is the release of mature spermatozoa into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules. Therefore, the overall formation of sperm is called spermatogenesis.
Menstruation is due to ______?
- Reduction of FSH
- Increase of LH
- Reduction is Estrogen and progesterone
- Decrease in LH
Explanation: Answer reason: Menstruation occurs when the corpus luteum regresses and circulating estrogen and progesterone levels fall. This hormone withdrawal causes constriction of spiral arteries and breakdown of the functional endometrium, leading to bleeding. Increased LH triggers ovulation mid-cycle, not menses, and changes in FSH or LH alone are not the proximate cause of menstrual shedding.
The scrotum help in maintaining a temp. ____ lower than the body temp?
- 1 to 1.5°C
- 2 to 2.5°C
- 3 to 3.5°C
- 4 to 4.5°C
Explanation: Answer reason: Optimal spermatogenesis requires the testes to be maintained cooler than core body temperature. The scrotum, with dartos and cremaster muscle action and sweat-mediated cooling, keeps testicular temperature about 2–3°C below body temperature. Among the options, 2 to 2.5°C best reflects this physiologic range.
Which of the following pelvis type is best for child Birth?
- Arthoropoid
- Gynecoid
- Platypelloid
- Android
Explanation: Answer reason: The gynecoid pelvis has a round, wide inlet, a wide subpubic angle, and non-prominent ischial spines, providing the most favorable dimensions for fetal passage. It allows efficient engagement and descent of the fetal head, facilitating spontaneous vaginal delivery. In contrast, android and platypelloid pelves have narrower dimensions associated with labor dystocia, and the anthropoid pelvis often leads to occiput posterior positions.
Which one smallest cell in male?
- Neuroglia
- Sperm
- Ovum
Explanation: Answer reason: The human spermatozoon is the smallest cell produced by males, with a compact head about 5 µm long and a flagellum for motility. Its minimal cytoplasm and streamlined structure optimize travel to the ovum. Ovum is a female gamete and is the largest human cell, not applicable to males. Neuroglia are support cells in the nervous system and are much larger than sperm cells.
The invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium of the uterus is referred to as?
- Amenorrhea
- Endometriosis
- Adenomyomatosis
- Adenomyosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Adenomyosis is defined by endometrial glands and stroma within the uterine myometrium, often causing a diffusely enlarged, tender uterus with dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Endometriosis instead refers to endometrial tissue located outside the uterus. Amenorrhea is the absence of menses, not tissue invasion. Adenomyomatosis is a benign gallbladder condition, unrelated to the uterus.
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