Question 1

Sperm capacitation involves—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It involves biochemical changes to the sperm plasma membrane, notably removal of the glycoprotein coat and seminal plasma “decapacitation” proteins, which increases membrane fluidity and prepares for the acrosome reaction and zona pellucida binding. Fusion of pronuclei and zygote formation occur after sperm entry into the oocyte, not during capacitation. The cortical reaction is an oocyte response to sperm penetration that prevents polyspermy, so it is also not part of sperm capacitation.

Question 2

The process by which sperm becomes capable of fertilization is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This process involves biochemical membrane changes, including removal of decapacitation factors and increased membrane fluidity with altered ion permeability, enabling subsequent zona binding and triggering of the acrosome response. The acrosome reaction occurs after zona pellucida binding, not as the initial “becoming capable” step. Cortical reaction is an oocyte event that blocks polyspermy, and syngamy refers to fusion of male and female pronuclei after fertilization has already occurred.

Question 3

Enzymes released by the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida are from—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The acrosome is a cap-like organelle over the sperm head derived from the Golgi apparatus and contains key enzymes such as acrosin and hyaluronidase. The nucleus primarily delivers paternal genetic material and does not provide zona-digesting enzymes. Mitochondria provide ATP for motility, and the plasma membrane participates in binding/fusion events but is not the main enzyme store for zona penetration.

Question 4

Main goal of prolapse surgery is to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Effective repair aims to re-establish normal pelvic anatomy, which helps address the mechanical defect driving the prolapse. Symptom relief (e.g., bulge sensation, urinary or bowel dysfunction, sexual discomfort) is a primary clinical endpoint and often the reason for pursuing surgery. Durable techniques and appropriate procedure selection are also intended to reduce the likelihood of recurrent prolapse, which is a key measure of surgical success.

Question 5

Which is the best temporary treatment for prolapse in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A vaginal pessary provides mechanical support to reduce the prolapse, improves comfort, and can help prevent cervical edema/ulceration until delivery. Definitive surgical options are typically deferred until after childbirth because pregnancy-related tissue laxity and ongoing uterine enlargement make operative repair less appropriate and riskier. Procedures like hysterectomy, colporrhaphy, or cervical amputation are not temporary measures and are generally contraindicated or inappropriate during an ongoing pregnancy.

Question 6

Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the human placenta?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These hormones maintain the corpus luteum initially, then sustain uterine quiescence and promote fetal/maternal physiologic adaptations. FSH is a gonadotropin produced by the anterior pituitary and regulates ovarian follicular development, which is not a placental role during pregnancy. A common confusion is grouping all reproductive hormones together, but placental hormones are distinct from pituitary gonadotropins like FSH.

Question 7

Amenorrhea means absence of —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The term specifically refers to missing menstrual periods, not a lack of other body fluids. This makes the menstrual cycle the direct physiologic process implicated. A common distractor is “urine,” but absence of urine is anuria/oliguria and relates to renal function, not reproductive endocrinology.

Question 8

Normal colour of amniotic fluid is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This appearance reflects normal fetal urination and fluid turnover without contamination. Green fluid suggests meconium staining and potential fetal stress, while brown fluid can be associated with old blood or meconium. Milky white is not the usual baseline description and may suggest vernix or other admixture rather than normal fluid throughout pregnancy.

Question 9

Endometriosis causes ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These processes commonly produce chronic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea, often worsening around menses. The other options are nonspecific symptoms and are not characteristic clinical manifestations of endometriosis. A common related presentation is dyspareunia and infertility, further supporting pelvic pain as the best answer.

Question 10

Painful periods are called –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term specifically describes pain occurring with menses, which directly matches the stem. Amenorrhea refers to absence of menstruation, not pain. Menopause is permanent cessation of menses, and PMS describes cyclic premenstrual symptoms that may include mood and somatic complaints but is not the definition of painful periods.

Question 11

High BP in pregnancy is called ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term specifically links the pregnancy state to the pathophysiology of abnormal placentation and systemic endothelial dysfunction. The other options do not denote a pregnancy-specific hypertensive condition: hypotension is low blood pressure, pneumonia is a respiratory infection, and gastritis is gastric mucosal inflammation. Because the question asks what high BP in pregnancy is called, the pregnancy-specific diagnosis is the best match.

Question 12

PMS mainly causes ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mood lability, irritability, and anxiety/depressive symptoms are among the most characteristic and prevalent PMS features. Cough and fever are not typical PMS manifestations and instead suggest infection or another non-gynecologic condition. Weight changes can occur due to fluid retention/bloating, but they are not as core or defining as mood symptoms when asked what PMS mainly causes.

Question 13

Normal menstrual cycle length?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This value aligns with the standard reference used in basic reproductive physiology and clinical counseling, even though normal cycles can vary between individuals. The 7-day option more closely resembles usual duration of menstrual bleeding rather than the full cycle length. The 14-day option is classically associated with the approximate timing of ovulation in a 28-day cycle, not the total cycle length.

Question 14

Which condition is characterized by the backward displacement of the uterus during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In pregnancy, a retroverted uterus may be noted on pelvic exam or ultrasound early on and can occasionally contribute to symptoms like pelvic pressure or urinary retention if it becomes incarcerated. The other options describe different obstetric/gynecologic problems: placenta previa is abnormal placental implantation over/near the cervical os, ectopic pregnancy is implantation outside the uterine cavity, and uterine prolapse is downward descent of the uterus through the vaginal canal rather than a backward tilt. Therefore the condition characterized by backward displacement is uterine retroversion.

Question 15

Oral contraceptive pills mainly prevent —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: By preventing ovulation, there is no oocyte available for fertilization, which is the main contraceptive mechanism. They also thicken cervical mucus and alter the endometrium, but these are secondary effects compared with ovulation suppression. The other choices describe unrelated physiologic effects and are not the principal mechanism of contraception.

Question 16

A 30-year-old female reports missing her last six menstrual cycles and suspects she could be pregnant. Which option most accurately characterizes amenorrhea as an indicator of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Presumptive signs are subjective changes reported by the patient that suggest pregnancy but can be caused by other conditions. Missed menses can occur with stress, significant weight change, intense exercise, endocrine disorders (e.g., thyroid disease, hyperprolactinemia), or ovarian dysfunction, so it is not diagnostic. Definitive signs require objective confirmation such as ultrasound visualization of a fetus, fetal heart tones, or fetal movement palpated by an examiner. Therefore, amenorrhea fits best as a presumptive (not definitive) indicator, even when it has lasted several cycles.

Question 17

At how many weeks is fetal heart activity seen on ultrasound ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Transvaginal ultrasound can usually detect cardiac activity around 5.5–6 weeks of gestation, making this timeframe the best match among the choices. Earlier than this (3–4 weeks) is generally too soon for a reliably visualized heartbeat. Much later timings like 9–10 or 13–14 weeks are incorrect because cardiac activity is usually evident well before those gestational ages if a viable intrauterine pregnancy is present.

Question 18

After trying to conceive for a year, a couple consults an infertility specialist. When obtaining a history from the husband, Nurse Jessica inquires about childhood infectious diseases. Which childhood infectious disease most significantly affects male fertility?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This direct testicular involvement makes it a notable infectious cause of subsequent subfertility/infertility in males. The other listed childhood infections typically do not target the testes in a way that commonly results in long-term sperm production impairment. A common clinical clue is history of painful testicular swelling during/after mumps infection.

Question 19

The passageway in labor and delivery of the fetus include the following, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cervical effacement and dilation and distensibility of the vaginal canal/introitus are classic components of this passage. The bony pelvis is part of the “passage,” but it is essentially rigid and assessed by pelvic capacity rather than “flexibility.” Therefore describing pelvic “flexibility” is not an accurate component of the labor passageway as tested here, making it the exception.

Question 20

The primary function of the prostate gland is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The prostate is an accessory male reproductive gland that contributes a milky, slightly alkaline fluid to semen, helping sperm survive and move effectively through the reproductive tract. This prostatic fluid supports sperm function by enhancing motility and providing components that promote semen liquefaction and transport. Storing underdeveloped sperm is the role of the epididymis, not the prostate. Hormonal control of sperm production/maturation is primarily mediated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis (FSH, LH/testosterone), not a prostate-secreted hormone.

Question 21

A newborn male has been diagnosed with hypospadias with chordee. The nurse understands that the infant will have altered patterns of urination because?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With an abnormally placed meatus and associated chordee (ventral curvature), the infant may have spraying, difficulty aiming the stream, and abnormal urinary flow. Options describing bladder exstrophy or vesicoureteral reflux refer to different urinary tract disorders and do not explain the typical mechanism for altered urination in hypospadias. The key concept being tested is the anatomic location of the urethral meatus as the cause of altered voiding patterns.

Question 22

The nurse is assessing a client with suspected endometriosis. Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of endometriosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This commonly produces deep dyspareunia (pain with intercourse), along with pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea, making it a supportive finding. Hot flashes are more characteristic of hypoestrogenism/menopause, not endometriosis. Amenorrhea is not typical because many patients continue to menstruate, often with painful menses rather than absent menses.

Question 23

Condom is safeguard against infection of ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Consistent, correct condom use reduces the risk of gonorrhea by blocking exchange of secretions, decreases HIV (AIDS) transmission by preventing semen/vaginal fluid contact with mucosa, and also reduces syphilis transmission by limiting contact with infectious lesions (though protection is less complete if lesions are outside the covered area). Because the question asks broadly about infections condoms safeguard against among the listed STIs, the best single choice is the combined option. A common trap is to pick only HIV, but condoms also protect against other bacterial STIs.

Question 24

Which vitamin is important during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Adequate intake before conception and during the first trimester reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. Pregnancy increases maternal folate requirements due to expansion of maternal red cell mass and fetal/placental growth. A common pitfall is focusing on other vitamins; while they have roles in pregnancy, none has the same specific, well-established preventive effect on neural tube closure. Standard prenatal care therefore prioritizes folic acid supplementation.

Question 25

The average gestation period in human females is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is the standard obstetric definition used for dating pregnancy and calculating estimated date of delivery (e.g., by Naegele’s rule). Variations occur with conception timing and cycle length, but the accepted average remains 280 days for clinical and exam purposes. The other options are too short or too long to represent normal term pregnancy.

Question 26

False regarding "mirror syndrome"?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The maternal syndrome typically includes hypertension, proteinuria, and hemodilution, mirroring the edematous fetus/placenta, rather than low blood pressure. Polyhydramnios can coexist because severe fetal/placental pathology is often present and can disrupt fluid balance. Therefore, low blood pressure is the statement that does not fit the typical clinical features.

Question 27

Full cervical dilatation is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The universally taught obstetric definition of complete dilation is 10 cm (with 0–10 cm used to describe labor progress). Values like 5 cm and 8 cm represent earlier phases of the first stage (latent/active labor) rather than completion. A larger value such as 12 cm is not used as the standard definition for complete cervical dilation in clinical obstetrics.

Question 28

Pregnancy occurs after successful?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ovulation and fertilization are necessary antecedent events, but they do not guarantee an ongoing pregnancy without endometrial attachment and trophoblastic invasion. Menstruation represents shedding of the endometrium and indicates absence of implantation in that cycle. Implantation is therefore the key event that marks the onset of a clinically established pregnancy.

Question 29

A multiparous woman is admitted to the postpartum ward after vaginal delivery. Assessment showed lochia: steady trickle of bright red blood, Fundus: firm; Temperature: 37.5C Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Persistent bright red bleeding with a firm, well-contracted fundus indicates the uterus is not the source of hemorrhage, pointing instead to trauma of the birth canal. Genital tract lacerations classically cause a steady trickle or continuous bleeding despite adequate uterine tone. Uterine atony typically presents with a boggy, enlarged uterus and heavier bleeding that improves with uterine massage/uterotonics. A vulvar hematoma more often causes concealed bleeding with severe perineal pain and pressure rather than an obvious steady external trickle.

Question 30

A pregnant client provides the following obstetric history to the nurse at the first prenatal visit: Elective abortion at age 17; a 5-year-old daughter born at 40 weeks gestation; and 3-year-old twin boys born at 34 weeks gestation. Using the GTPAL system, which option is correct?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This client has had three pregnancies total: one elective abortion, one term delivery at 40 weeks, and one preterm twin delivery at 34 weeks. Term births = 1 (40 weeks), preterm births = 1 (34-week twin pregnancy), abortions = 1 (elective abortion), and living children = 3 (one daughter plus two twins). Options listing G4 incorrectly treat the twin birth as two separate pregnancies rather than one.

Question 31

Most common presentation is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The cephalic, occiput-anterior (vertex) position is by far the most frequent at term and is considered the normal presentation for vaginal birth. Breech, face, and shoulder are malpresentations that occur less commonly and are associated with increased risk of labor complications and operative delivery. Therefore, the most common presentation is the one with the fetal head flexed so the occiput leads.

Question 32

The placenta is expelled in which stage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Placental separation and expulsion occur after the newborn is delivered, which places it in the third stage. This is a foundational obstetric sequence tested in nursing and midwifery science. A common distractor is the second stage, but that stage ends with delivery of the baby, not the placenta.

Question 33

The loop device is inserted into?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its effectiveness depends on local endometrial and cervical mucus effects (and for some types, a local hormonal effect), which occur in the uterus rather than other reproductive structures. Placement is performed via the cervix, but the device’s intended location is inside the uterine cavity, not the vagina. It is not placed in the ovary or fallopian tube, which would be anatomically incorrect and unsafe.

Question 34

The normal gestation period in humans is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Converting 40 weeks to days yields approximately 280 days, which is the standard “term” length used clinically for dating pregnancy. Variations occur, but the question asks the normal/average value rather than extremes of preterm or post-term delivery. The other choices are not consistent with typical obstetric dating standards.

Question 35

Strawberry cervix is seen in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Trichomonas vaginalis commonly causes a friable, erythematous cervix with these petechial spots, along with frothy malodorous discharge and vaginal irritation. Chlamydia and gonorrhea more typically present with mucopurulent cervicitis and may be asymptomatic, rather than the classic petechiae pattern. Syphilis primarily causes genital ulcers (chancre) and systemic stages, not a strawberry cervix appearance.

Question 36

Male sterilization is known as ______?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is a permanent contraception method performed on males and is specifically termed vasectomy. Tubectomy refers to female sterilization via fallopian tube occlusion, while IUCD and condoms are reversible contraceptive methods rather than sterilization. Therefore, the option naming the male sterilization procedure is the best answer.

Question 37

Human placenta is classified as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In humans, villi are concentrated in a single, round-to-oval disc-shaped area, forming one main placental mass. This pattern is termed discoidal and is characteristic of primates. By contrast, diffuse (e.g., horse/pig) spreads villi over most of the chorion, cotyledonary (e.g., ruminants) has multiple placentomes, and zonary (e.g., dogs/cats) forms a belt-like band.

Question 38

Station 0 means fetal head is at?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A station of 0 indicates that the fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines. Negative station numbers indicate the head is above this level (higher in the pelvis), while positive numbers indicate descent below it toward the outlet. This makes the ischial spines the anatomic landmark that defines station 0.

Question 39

Most common fetal attitude?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the most common attitude, the fetal head is flexed with chin toward chest, and the limbs are flexed toward the trunk. This flexed attitude promotes a vertex presentation and more efficient passage through the maternal pelvis. By contrast, extension or hyperextension increases presenting diameters and is associated with malpresentations (e.g., brow/face) that are less common and can complicate labor.

Question 40

Vaccine given during pregnancy is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tetanus toxoid is an inactivated toxoid vaccine and is routinely recommended during pregnancy to prevent maternal and especially neonatal tetanus via passive antibody transfer to the fetus. BCG and measles vaccines are live attenuated and are contraindicated in pregnancy due to theoretical fetal risk. “Polio” may refer to OPV (live) or IPV (inactivated), but routine antenatal immunization programs classically emphasize tetanus toxoid, making it the single best answer here.

Question 41

Most common cause of spontaneous abortion is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., aneuploidy from meiotic nondisjunction). These are effectively “germ-plasm” defects because they originate from the gametes/zygote rather than maternal trauma. Structural congenital anomalies can be a consequence of chromosomal errors, but the dominant, most common underlying mechanism is genetic/chromosomal abnormality. Physical trauma is a much less common primary cause compared with intrinsic embryonic genetic defects.

Question 42

Tubectomy is a surgical procedure done on?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The operation involves ligation/occlusion and/or partial removal of the uterine (fallopian) tubes to prevent fertilization. In contrast, vas deferens surgery refers to vasectomy, which is male sterilization. The uterus and vagina are not the targeted structures for routine sterilization procedures termed tubectomy.

Question 43

Which of the following is the muscular tube that connects the uterus to the outside of the body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The vaginal canal is a fibromuscular tube that extends from the cervix to the vestibule, serving as the passageway to the outside. By contrast, the fallopian tubes connect the uterus to the ovaries and are not an outlet to the exterior. The cervix is the lower portion of the uterus that opens into the vaginal canal but is not the full connecting tube to the outside.

Question 44

McRoberts maneuver is used in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: McRoberts maneuver (hyperflexion and abduction of the maternal hips) increases the anteroposterior diameter of the pelvis and flattens the sacral promontory, helping free an impacted anterior fetal shoulder behind the pubic symphysis. It is a first-line, rapid intervention for shoulder dystocia, often combined with suprapubic pressure. In contrast, breech delivery uses different maneuvers (e.g., Pinard, Lovset, Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit), and eclampsia or preterm labor are managed with medical stabilization rather than pelvic positioning maneuvers.

Question 45

Cord prolapse commonly occurs in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In transverse lie, there is no engaged presenting part, so the cord can readily descend into the cervix/vagina and become compressed. Breech also increases risk, but the risk is classically greatest with malpresentations like transverse/unstable lie where engagement is absent. Vertex, especially occiput anterior, typically provides a well-applied presenting part and is therefore least associated with prolapse.

Question 46

Most dangerous complication of third stage is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rapid blood loss can quickly cause hypovolemic shock and coagulopathy, making it the most dangerous complication in this stage. Infection and fever generally develop later and are typically not as immediately life-threatening during the third stage itself. Anemia is usually a consequence of hemorrhage rather than the primary acute complication.

Question 47

Final stage of labor is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This stage is defined by placental separation and expulsion, which is accompanied by uterine contraction to reduce postpartum bleeding. The other options describe events of the menstrual cycle or early conception rather than an intrapartum stage. Therefore the only option that matches the final stage of labor is placental delivery.

Question 48

Embryo implants in which part of the Uterus ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The endometrium (specifically the functional layer during the secretory phase) undergoes decidualization and provides the vascular, nutrient-rich environment needed for trophoblast invasion and placental development. In contrast, the myometrium is the smooth muscle layer responsible for uterine contractions rather than implantation. The perimetrium is the outer serosal covering, and the cervix is not the normal site of implantation (implantation there would be abnormal/ectopic).

Question 49

Normal duration of first stage of labour in a primigravida is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A commonly taught average duration for the first stage in a first pregnancy is about 12 hours, recognizing that normal ranges can be broader depending on latent versus active phase definitions. Much shorter durations (e.g., 2–6 hours) are more consistent with multigravidas or unusually rapid labors. A markedly longer single “normal” value like 20 hours exceeds the usual average and would raise concern for prolonged labor patterns depending on progress and maternal-fetal status.

Question 50

Which of the following phase of menstrual cycle in which seen corkscrew shape endometrial gland?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: As the secretory phase progresses toward the late secretory stage, the glands become more markedly convoluted compared with earlier in the cycle. In contrast, the proliferative phase (estrogen-driven) shows relatively straight to only mildly wavy tubular glands with mitoses rather than prominent coiling. Therefore the phase most associated with classic corkscrew endometrial glands is the late secretory phase.

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