Question 1

Identify the correct statement regarding caput succedaneum-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because this fluid collection forms during the birth process, it is typically most apparent at delivery and then begins to resolve over the next 24–48 hours. In contrast, a subperiosteal collection that enlarges after birth and is limited by suture lines describes cephalohematoma, not caput. The ability to cross sutures is a key distinguishing feature of caput due to its location above the periosteum.

Question 2

A 32 year old woman is pregnant with twins at 32 week gestation. This is her first pregnancy. Which option below best describes the patient’s gravidity and parity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Parity counts the number of pregnancies carried to viability (commonly ≥20 weeks), not the number of fetuses delivered, and it requires a completed pregnancy outcome. Because this is her first pregnancy, her gravida is 1. At 32 weeks she has not yet delivered, so she has no prior completed viable births, making her para 0.

Question 3

Life of sperm for fertilization in vagina is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Under typical exam assumptions, sperm can remain capable of fertilization for about 3 days, aligning with the commonly taught fertile-window physiology. Options like 24 hours underestimate survival because many sperm remain viable beyond a day when protected by cervical mucus. Options like 96 hours overestimate the standard “for fertilization” lifespan emphasized in most nursing/medical MCQs.

Question 4

What is the wider part of the fallopian tube called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The widened mid-portion is the ampulla, which is the most common site of fertilization due to its larger lumen and mucosal folds that support gamete transport. The isthmus is the narrow, thick-walled segment near the uterine end, not the widest part. The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped distal end, and fimbriae are fringe-like projections rather than a named “wider part” segment.

Question 5

Inflammation of fallopian tube is called......?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therefore, inflammation of the fallopian tube is termed salpingitis, commonly seen as part of pelvic inflammatory disease. Endometritis is inflammation of the uterine lining (endometrium), not the tube. Endometriosis describes ectopic endometrial tissue growth, and tinnitus is an ear symptom, making them anatomically unrelated.

Question 6

Pain during ovulation is termed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The medical term for this mid-cycle unilateral lower abdominal pain is “mittelschmerz” (German for “middle pain”). Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation rather than ovulation, and dysuria is pain or burning with urination. Therefore the term that specifically names ovulation pain is the correct choice.

Question 7

Common site of birth injury newborn is ..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The fetal head is most commonly the presenting part in vertex deliveries, making it the most frequent site for injuries such as caput succedaneum, cephalohematoma, and scalp bruising. These injuries reflect compression against the cervix and pelvic structures and may be increased with prolonged labor or instrument use. Shoulder injuries (e.g., brachial plexus injury, clavicle fracture) are important but are less common overall than head/scalp trauma.

Question 8

When is the maturity of pregnancy considered?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gestational age beyond this point represents full term rather than post-term. By contrast, 41 weeks is often labeled late-term and 42 weeks post-term, both associated with increasing risks such as oligohydramnios and placental insufficiency. Therefore, the earliest point at which maturity/term is considered is 39 weeks.

Question 9

Name the hormone used for induction of labour?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxytocin acts on uterine oxytocin receptors (which increase near term) to trigger rhythmic contractions and is the standard hormone/drug used clinically for labor induction and augmentation. Estrogen and fetal cortisol contribute to physiologic preparation for labor but are not administered as the primary induction agent. Progesterone generally maintains uterine quiescence during pregnancy, so it would oppose rather than initiate labor.

Question 10

Which of the following controls for the correct temperature during sperm production?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The scrotum regulates this by positioning the testes closer to or farther from the body via the cremaster and dartos muscles, adjusting heat loss. Testosterone primarily supports sperm production and secondary sex characteristics but does not provide thermoregulation. The vas deferens transports sperm, and the testes are the site of production but rely on scrotal temperature control to function optimally.

Question 11

Rho gam is most often used to treat__ mothers that have a __ infant.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The classic risk situation is an Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus/infant, where fetomaternal hemorrhage at delivery (or procedures/bleeding) can sensitize the mother. Preventing maternal anti-D antibody formation protects future pregnancies from hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn. If the infant is Rh-negative, there is no D antigen exposure and prophylaxis is not indicated; if the mother is Rh-positive, she will not form anti-D against D antigen.

Question 12

What is colour of meconium stained amniotic fluid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This discoloration is a classic clinical sign described as meconium-stained liquor. The other choices describe normal fluid (typically clear/straw) or unrelated discolorations and do not match the bile-stained particulate look of meconium. Recognizing the green color is important because it can correlate with fetal stress and risk for meconium aspiration around delivery.

Question 13

Which of these is a permanent method of contraception?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Female sterilization via tubal ligation blocks or occludes the fallopian tubes, preventing sperm from reaching the ovum. Male sterilization via vasectomy interrupts the vas deferens, preventing sperm from being present in ejaculate after confirmed azoospermia. In contrast, MTIP (medical termination of intrauterine pregnancy) is not contraception and does not prevent future conception.

Question 14

A pregnant client states that her LMP was on 12/01/24. She has been pregnant two other times, delivered twins at 37.1 weeks who are now 2, and had one miscarriage at 8 wks. Which best describes her gravidity and parity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This client has had two prior pregnancies plus the current one, making her gravida 3, which is multigravida. Parity counts the number of pregnancies that reached viability (commonly ≥20 weeks), and a twin gestation counts as one birth event toward parity. She has one viable delivery at 37.1 weeks and the miscarriage at 8 weeks does not increase parity, so she is para 1 (not multipara), but among the provided choices this is the closest fit because the correct gravidity term is paired only with this option.

Question 15

The fertilized egg gets implanted in the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After fertilization in the fallopian tube, the developing embryo travels to the uterine cavity over several days before attaching to the uterine lining. The uterus provides the vascular endometrium needed for placental development and sustained pregnancy. Implantation in the fallopian tube would represent an ectopic pregnancy, which is abnormal and potentially life-threatening.

Question 16

Healthy sperm can survive upto ....in female body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Under optimal conditions, motile sperm commonly remain capable of fertilization for up to about 5 days, which is the basis for the fertile window extending several days before ovulation. The longer durations listed (9 or 12 days) exceed accepted physiologic survival for healthy sperm in vivo. Shorter survival (2 days) can occur in less favorable conditions but is not the typical upper limit tested.

Question 17

Which of the following is TRUE in Rh incompatibility?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rh hemolytic disease requires maternal sensitization, meaning an Rh-negative mother must first develop anti-D IgG antibodies after exposure to Rh-positive fetal blood. In a first pregnancy, the initial immune response is typically slow and largely IgM early on, so significant IgG-mediated hemolysis of fetal RBCs usually does not occur until a subsequent Rh-positive pregnancy. This is why prophylaxis is aimed at preventing sensitization rather than treating an already affected first fetus. By contrast, incompatibility is classically Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive fetus, and Rho(D) immune globulin is administered at 28 weeks and postpartum (and after sensitizing events), not only in the first pregnancy.

Question 18

In pregnancy a pigmented line runs from the pubis to the umbilicus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A midline darkened streak extending vertically on the abdomen, classically from the symphysis pubis toward the umbilicus (and sometimes above), matches this finding. Striae gravidarum are stretch marks rather than a single midline line, chloasma is facial “mask of pregnancy,” and lochia is postpartum uterine/vaginal discharge. Therefore the described pigmented abdominal line is the named midline hyperpigmentation of pregnancy.

Question 19

Male sterilisation is otherwise called as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This procedure is specifically termed a vasectomy and is the standard male surgical method for contraception. Tubectomy and salpingectomy involve the female fallopian tubes and therefore represent female sterilization procedures. Orchidectomy removes testes and is done for conditions like malignancy, not routine sterilization.

Question 20

In India maximum maternal mortality is due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Severe bleeding around delivery can cause rapid hypovolemic shock and death if not treated immediately with uterotonics, uterine interventions, and timely transfusion/surgery. The other options do contribute (e.g., sepsis and unsafe abortion as direct causes, anemia as an important indirect contributor), but they are generally not the top single cause compared with hemorrhage in exam framing. Therefore, hemorrhage best fits the epidemiologic “maximum maternal mortality” cause asked here.

Question 21

The ovum is released from the ovary on which day in menstrual cycle..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This surge triggers release of the mature ovum from the dominant ovarian follicle about 14 days before the next menses. Therefore, day 14 best matches the expected timing of ovulation in the standard cycle model. Earlier days such as day 6 fall within the follicular phase when the follicle is still maturing, and day 22 is usually in the luteal phase after ovulation has already occurred.

Question 22

Which of the following is 3rs generation IUD?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., Lippes loop), then copper-bearing devices, with later/third-generation copper IUDs having higher copper surface area and improved efficacy and duration. Cu-T 380A (often written with silver core as 380Ag) is a higher-copper-load device designed for longer-acting, highly effective contraception, fitting the later-generation category. Cu-T 220C is an older, lower copper surface area model compared with 380A/380Ag. Mirena is a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (hormonal IUD) and is typically categorized separately from copper IUD generations.

Question 23

The Average Length of Menstrual Cycle is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This average aligns with typical timing of ovulation around day 14 in a 28-day cycle, making it the common reference point for teaching and clinical counseling. The other values (20, 24, 32 days) can occur in some individuals but are not the conventional average referenced in basic reproductive science. Therefore the best single answer is the 28-day cycle length.

Question 24

Painful menstruation is termed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term specifically describes menstrual pain, distinguishing it from disorders of flow or absence of menses. Menorrhagia refers to abnormally heavy menstrual bleeding, and amenorrhea refers to absence of menstruation. Decreased prostaglandin production is a mechanism/therapeutic target (e.g., NSAIDs), not the diagnostic term for the symptom.

Question 25

Which sign is considered as welcome sign in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This indicates cervical change and impending labor rather than a normal mid-pregnancy physiologic sensation. Lightening is descent of the fetal presenting part late in pregnancy, quickening is first perception of fetal movement (a presumptive sign), and onset of labor pain is the labor process itself rather than a classic named “welcome sign.” Therefore the option describing mucus plug passage best matches the obstetric term asked.

Question 26

Labor pain are caused by...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxytocin is the key hormone that stimulates rhythmic myometrial contractions during labor and is also used clinically to induce or augment labor. Progesterone generally maintains uterine quiescence during pregnancy, making it an opposite physiologic effect. Estrogen increases uterine sensitivity and prostaglandin activity but does not directly serve as the primary trigger for contraction-generated pain in the way oxytocin does.

Question 27

Sperm contains...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The sperm head contains a highly condensed haploid nucleus with chromosomes, which are made of deoxyribonucleic acid. In contrast, WBCs, RBCs, and platelets are formed elements of blood, not components of a sperm cell. While semen may contain other cells in pathology, the defining constituent of sperm itself is its nuclear genetic material.

Question 28

High BP in pregnancy is...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This condition reflects abnormal placentation leading to widespread endothelial dysfunction and vasospasm, making pregnancy-specific hypertension a key warning sign. It is distinguished from simple chronic hypertension by its timing in pregnancy and potential association with proteinuria or end-organ features (e.g., headache, visual changes, RUQ/epigastric pain). Fever and pneumonia are infectious processes and do not define the syndrome of pregnancy-related high blood pressure. Recognizing this linkage is important because preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia and other maternal-fetal complications if not identified and managed.

Question 29

Study of infertility is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it the best match among the listed “-ology” terms for the study relevant to infertility in a clinical/biological context. Astacology refers to the study of crustaceans (e.g., crayfish/lobsters), which is unrelated to human reproduction. Desmology concerns ligaments/connective tissue, not reproductive capability.

Question 30

The menstruation completely stopped is..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This endocrine change causes the endometrium to no longer cycle and shed, so menstrual bleeding ceases completely after the menopausal transition. Ovulation is a mid-cycle event and does not represent cessation of menstruation, and menarche is the onset of the first menstrual period. Therefore the term describing complete stopping of menstruation is the menopausal state.

Question 31

Which condition of the female reproductive system generally requires the identification and treatment of sexual partners?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chlamydial cervicitis is frequently asymptomatic, so untreated partners can perpetuate infection even after the patient completes therapy. Standard management includes partner notification and empiric treatment of recent sexual partners along with abstinence until treatment is completed. In contrast, vulvovaginal candidiasis and endometriosis are not sexually transmitted conditions, and bartholinitis is typically a localized gland infection not routinely managed via partner therapy.

Question 32

Which assessment finding is abnormal in a 72-year-old male client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Testes may become smaller and less firm (more soft) due to decreased seminiferous tubule mass and hormonal changes. A distinctly firm testis is not an expected age-related change and raises concern for pathology (e.g., tumor, chronic inflammation, fibrosis) that warrants further evaluation. The other findings listed are typical physiologic changes seen with advancing age.

Question 33

A female client tells the nurse she is having her menstrual period every 2 weeks and it lasts for 1 week. The nurse interprets this as which pattern?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Having bleeding every 2 weeks indicates an abnormally shortened cycle interval (more frequent than the typical 21–35 day range), which fits an irregular/frequent bleeding pattern rather than simply heavy flow. Amenorrhea is absence of menses, and dyspareunia is painful intercourse, so neither describes this complaint. Menorrhagia primarily refers to excessive bleeding volume or duration with otherwise regular timing, whereas this stem emphasizes abnormal frequency.

Question 34

A 22-year-old female visiting the clinic describes her chief complaint as “frothy greenish vaginal discharge.” The nurse anticipates setting up for a wet mount procedure to diagnose which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A saline wet mount is a rapid bedside test used to visualize motile, flagellated protozoa, making it directly aligned with this suspected diagnosis. In contrast, candidiasis typically causes thick, white “cottage cheese” discharge and is better supported by KOH prep showing budding yeast/pseudohyphae. Bacterial vaginosis from Gardnerella is characterized by thin gray discharge with fishy odor and clue cells, while gonorrhea is usually diagnosed with NAAT rather than wet mount.

Question 35

A pregnant client is very upset when she hears that her TORCH panel has returned positive. She is distraught and says, “This means the baby has HIV!” The nurse replies that the H in TORCH represents which of the following disorders?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The “H” in TORCH is commonly used to represent herpes simplex virus, one of the key pathogens screened/considered in maternal-fetal infection risk. This helps correct the client’s misconception because HIV is not what the “H” denotes in TORCH. Knowing the acronym supports accurate patient education about which infections are associated with congenital syndromes and typical screening panels. A common distractor is hepatitis B, which is important in pregnancy but is not the “H” within the TORCH acronym.

Question 36

During a routine visit to the clinic, a client tells the nurse that she thinks she may be pregnant. The physician orders a pregnancy test. The nurse is aware that pregnancy would most accurately be confirmed by which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rising levels in serum and urine are therefore the most direct and accurate biochemical confirmation of early pregnancy. In contrast, LH is primarily involved in triggering ovulation and does not serve as a diagnostic marker for established pregnancy. A falling hCG level would argue against a normally progressing pregnancy rather than confirm one.

Question 37

A 19-year-old woman reports an intermittent milky vaginal discharge. She is not sexually active and denies itching or burning. Which factor is the most likely cause of the milky-appearing discharge?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An intermittent milky/white discharge without pruritus, burning, malodor, or sexual exposure is most consistent with a normal, noninfectious process. Irritant or allergic vaginitis from hygiene products and moisture-related irritation more often causes vulvar burning/itching and erythema rather than isolated milky discharge. Poor perineal hygiene is not a typical primary cause of a cyclic, milky discharge in the absence of other symptoms.

Question 38

The nurse is reviewing content prepared by the student nurse, who is planning a presentation on risk reduction for developing ovarian cancer. Which statement should the nurse delete from the student’s prepared content?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Oral contraceptive use is a well-established protective factor that lowers ovarian cancer risk by suppressing ovulation over time. Therefore, teaching clients to avoid oral contraceptives as a risk-reduction strategy is incorrect and should be removed. In contrast, factors that reduce lifetime ovulatory cycles (e.g., pregnancy and breastfeeding) are associated with reduced risk. Diet counseling may be discussed for general health, but the uniquely incorrect, directionally wrong risk-reduction claim here is the advice to avoid oral contraceptives.

Question 39

The otherwise healthy client who is menopausal tells the nurse that she has been experiencing vaginal itching and burning and increased vaginal infections over the last 2 years. Which statement is the nurse’s best response?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Estrogen decline in menopause reduces glycogen in vaginal epithelium, leading to fewer lactobacilli and less lactic acid production. This raises vaginal pH (less acidic), which increases susceptibility to infections and causes symptoms such as burning and itching from atrophic/vaginal mucosal changes. This option correctly links menopause-related physiologic changes to recurrent infections. In contrast, stating the vagina becomes more acidic is the opposite of the expected physiologic change, and cancer framing is an unsafe, non–best-response explanation for this presentation.

Question 40

A 42-year-old pregnant client presents for her first prenatal visit at 16 weeks' gestation. She has severe morning sickness and no fetal heart tones. Her blood pressure is 150/100 mm Hg. Fundal height is 24 cm. The nurse interprets this assessment as most likely indicative of which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The absence of fetal heart tones at 16 weeks plus a fundal height far ahead (24 cm) strongly suggests abnormal trophoblastic proliferation rather than a viable fetus. Gestational hypertension this early is also a red flag for trophoblastic disease. Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright-red bleeding, and abruptio placenta with painful bleeding and uterine tenderness, neither of which is described.

Question 41

A 15-year-old client’s mother asks the nurse why the I-ICP prescribed oral contraceptives (OCPs) for treating her daughter’s dysmenorrhea. Before responding to the mother, which fact about oral contraceptives should the nurse consider?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dysmenorrhea is primarily driven by endometrial prostaglandin release, which increases uterine contractions and uterine ischemia, leading to cramping pain. By suppressing ovulation and stabilizing the endometrium, combined OCPs reduce endometrial proliferation and the amount of prostaglandin generated during menses, so contractions and pain decrease. This mechanism aligns with why OCPs are commonly used to treat primary dysmenorrhea in adolescents. A common distractor is the idea that increased uterine blood flow reduces pain; the key pain mediator is prostaglandin-induced hypercontractility and ischemia rather than improved perfusion from OCPs. The progesterone statement is inaccurate because OCPs provide exogenous hormones and do not relieve pain by “inhibiting progesterone production.”.

Question 42

A woman who has never been pregnant ___?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A person who has never been pregnant has gravidity of zero, which is termed nulligravida. In contrast, primigravida indicates a first pregnancy, while parity terms (nullipara/primipara) describe births at viability rather than pregnancies. Therefore the term that matches “never been pregnant” is based on gravidity, not parity.

Question 43

The placenta does all of the following except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxygen and nutrients diffuse/are transported from maternal blood across the placental barrier into fetal blood, and wastes move in the opposite direction. The placenta also functions as an endocrine organ producing hormones that support pregnancy (e.g., hCG, progesterone, estrogen, hPL). Therefore, it does not directly provide maternal blood to the fetus; instead, it facilitates transfer into the fetus’s own circulating blood.

Question 44

The condition in which the bleeding is so irregular and excessive that the menses cannot be identified is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term describes abnormal uterine bleeding that is both heavy (excessive volume) and irregular (unpredictable timing), making a normal menstrual pattern difficult to recognize. Menorrhagia refers to heavy bleeding occurring at regular menstrual intervals, so the cycles are still identifiable. Metrorrhagia is irregular bleeding between expected menses but does not inherently imply excessive flow. Polymenorrhoea means abnormally frequent cycles (shortened interval), not irregular and excessive bleeding together.

Question 45

Which of the following hormones is not produced by placenta?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Androgens like testosterone are not considered a primary placental product in standard nursing/medical teaching; maternal and fetal adrenal glands and fetal testes are the main sources. Therefore, among the choices, the androgen is the best answer as the hormone not produced by the placenta. A common confusion is that the placenta can convert steroid precursors, but that differs from being the principal site of testosterone production.

Question 46

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loss of this physiologic “living ligature” mechanism leads to brisk, often heavy vaginal bleeding and a boggy enlarged uterus on exam. This etiology accounts for the majority of immediate postpartum hemorrhage cases, making it the single best choice. Placenta previa and abruptio placenta are classically major causes of antepartum hemorrhage, not the most common postpartum cause. Coagulopathies can contribute to bleeding but are less frequent than atony as the primary driver.

Question 47

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The defining feature is vomiting intense enough to cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and often weight loss, which distinguishes it from normal nausea of pregnancy. Typical “morning sickness” is usually mild to moderate, self-limited, and not associated with significant metabolic derangements. Food cravings and lethargy can occur in pregnancy but are nonspecific and do not define this condition.

Question 48

Pregnancy period is called...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term encompasses the entire duration from conception to birth. Puberty refers to sexual maturation, lactation refers to milk production after delivery, and menstruation refers to cyclical shedding of the endometrium when pregnancy has not occurred. Therefore, the only option that accurately names the pregnancy period is the one that denotes intrauterine developmental duration.

Question 49

Oxygenated blood is carried to the fetus by...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The umbilical vein carries this oxygenated blood toward the fetal liver and ductus venosus, then into the inferior vena cava to reach the fetal heart. In contrast, the two umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus back to the placenta. This “vein carries oxygenated blood” pattern is a key exception to the usual adult rule that veins are deoxygenated.

Question 50

The second stage of labor begins with_____ and ends with_____?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The second stage specifically starts when the cervix is fully dilated (10 cm) and fully effaced, allowing descent and maternal pushing, and it ends with birth of the neonate. The first stage runs from onset of regular contractions with cervical change through complete dilation/effacement, and the third stage is delivery of the placenta. A common trap is confusing the third stage (placenta) or the immediate postpartum “fourth stage” observation period with the second stage.

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