Question 1

What is duration of puerperium?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard obstetrics teaching places this involution and systemic readjustment at about 6 weeks after delivery. This timeframe aligns with typical uterine involution, cessation of lochia progression, and normalization of many pregnancy-related cardiovascular and endocrine changes. Shorter durations like 28 days or 1 month underestimate the usual physiologic recovery window used clinically and in exams.

Question 2

Passive movement of the head due to untwisting of the neck sustained during internal rotation is called ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After internal rotation delivers the head, the neck is temporarily twisted; the head then passively realigns with the shoulders as the twist is released. That passive realignment is termed restitution and typically precedes external rotation. Flexion/extension describe head attitude changes, while descent refers to downward progression, not untwisting.

Question 3

What is velamentous placenta ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This exposes unprotected vessels (without Wharton’s jelly) to compression or rupture, clinically relevant for risks such as vasa previa and fetal hemorrhage. The margin insertion description fits a marginal (battledore) cord insertion, not velamentous. The fibrous ring at the margin describes a circumvallate placenta, a different placental abnormality.

Question 4

Ovum is an example of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ovum (egg) is the female haploid sex cell, containing 23 chromosomes, and it contributes half of the genetic material to the offspring. A zygote forms only after fertilization when the ovum and sperm combine to restore the diploid chromosome number. A follicle is the ovarian structure that surrounds and supports the developing oocyte, not the ovum itself.

Question 5

Maturation of sperm occurs in:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Sperm are produced in the seminiferous tubules but require post-testicular functional maturation to gain motility and fertilizing capacity. This maturation occurs as they transit and are stored within the epididymis, where membrane and biochemical changes are completed. The vas deferens primarily serves as a transport conduit during ejaculation rather than a maturation site. The prostate and seminal vesicles add secretions to semen but do not mature sperm cells.

Question 6

Average life span of sperm in female genital tract:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This timeframe aligns with the fertile window because sperm can remain capable of fertilization while awaiting ovulation. Shorter durations like 12–24 hours underestimate typical viability in supportive peri-ovulatory mucus. Longer durations such as 72 hours may occur in some cases, but it is not the average value commonly tested.

Question 7

The process of childbirth is called –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The term for this physiological event is the onset and progression of uterine contractions leading to cervical dilation and delivery. Gestation instead describes the entire period of pregnancy from conception to birth, not the act of giving birth. Lactation is milk production after delivery, and ovulation is release of an oocyte from the ovary.

Question 8

What is the safest method of family planning?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Barrier contraception has no hormonal exposure and does not require an invasive procedure, so it avoids thromboembolic risks of combined oral contraceptives and procedural risks like uterine perforation or pelvic infection associated with IUCD insertion. It is also reversible and generally safe for most users, including those with many medical comorbidities. Sterilization is effective but involves surgery/anesthesia and carries operative risks, making it less “safe” in a general, complication-minimization sense.

Question 9

“Bag of waters” refers to –

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This fluid cushions the fetus, allows movement, and helps maintain a stable intrauterine environment during pregnancy and labor. The placenta is a separate organ for exchange, not what is meant by “waters.” The cervical plug is mucus sealing the cervix, and the uterine cavity is an anatomic space rather than the fluid-filled sac described by this phrase.

Question 10

Which test is used for pregnancy diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Urine assays are commonly used for screening because they are rapid, noninvasive, and sufficiently sensitive around the time of a missed period. VDRL is a screening test for syphilis, Widal is used for typhoid fever serology, and ELISA is a general immunoassay format rather than a specific named pregnancy test in this context. Therefore the test used for pregnancy diagnosis among the options is the urine hCG test.

Question 11

Postpartum depression occurs –

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first 2–3 days and the first week more strongly align with postpartum “blues,” which is common, mild, and self-limited. Using the 1-year window captures later-onset symptoms driven by ongoing hormonal shifts, sleep deprivation, psychosocial stressors, and impaired bonding/functioning. The longer timeframe best matches standard clinical definitions used for screening and diagnosis in postpartum care.

Question 12

Most common cause of maternal mortality –

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It directly aligns with the question’s focus on the single most frequent cause. Sepsis and embolism are important contributors but are generally less frequent as the top cause in standard exam epidemiology. Eclampsia causes significant mortality but typically ranks below hemorrhage in most broad, exam-level maternal mortality statistics.

Question 13

The first stool of neonate is called ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Passage within the first 24–48 hours is expected and supports normal intestinal patency and transition after birth. Sebum and vernix caseosa are skin-related substances, not stool, while lanugo is fine fetal hair. Failure to pass this first stool on time raises concern for obstruction (e.g., Hirschsprung disease) or meconium ileus.

Question 14

Perinatal death includes death during..???

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The common epidemiologic window starts at 28 completed weeks of gestation and extends through the first 7 days of life. Options describing 0–28 days or 0–1 month refer to neonatal mortality (especially “neonatal” up to 28 days), which is a different measure. A window beginning at 37 weeks misses late-preterm fetal deaths and is therefore not the standard definition.

Question 15

Brownish black pigmented area in the midline of the abdomen of a pregnant woman extending from xiphisternum to symphysis pubis :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This manifests as a brown-black vertical line that typically runs from the symphysis pubis toward the umbilicus and may extend up to the xiphoid. This pattern matches the described finding and distinguishes it from stretch marks, which are linear dermal tears. Chloasma refers to facial “mask of pregnancy,” and linea alba is a normal pale midline fibrous seam rather than a pigmented change.

Question 16

Radiopaque material in IUD is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., confirming position or detecting perforation/expulsion). Many plastic IUD frames are compounded with barium sulphate specifically to achieve this X‑ray visibility. Copper is included for contraceptive efficacy (spermicidal inflammatory reaction) rather than to ensure radiopacity of the plastic body. Silicone is used as an elastomer in some devices but is not the standard radiopaque additive used for X‑ray visualization.

Question 17

Which screening test is NOT used for cervical cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HPV DNA testing and Pap smear are established screening methods, and VIA (visual inspection with acetic acid) is used as a low-resource screening approach. Colonoscopy is used to screen for colorectal pathology, not cervical disease, so it does not fit the purpose or target organ of cervical cancer screening. A common confusion is with colposcopy, which is a diagnostic follow-up test after abnormal screening, but that is different from colonoscopy.

Question 18

Which of the following is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When uterine tone is poor, bleeding is typically heavy and diffuse because the placental bed remains open. Lacerations and hematomas can cause significant bleeding, but they are less frequent and often present with a firm uterus (lacerations) or concealed bleeding with pain/pressure (hematoma). Retained placental tissue is an important cause but is also less common than inadequate uterine contraction overall.

Question 19

Uterus is also called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In common and many clinical contexts, it is referred to as the womb. The other choices are distinct structures with different roles: ovaries produce ova and hormones, the vagina is the canal leading to the cervix, and the placenta is a temporary organ of pregnancy for maternal-fetal exchange. Therefore the best synonym for uterus among the options is the commonly used term for the gestational organ.

Question 20

Which contraceptive is permanent in males?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This provides long-term sterilization and is considered a permanent method, even though reversal is sometimes attempted and not guaranteed. Tubectomy is a female sterilization procedure involving the fallopian tubes, not a male method. Condoms and oral pills are reversible, temporary contraceptive methods that require ongoing use and do not produce permanent sterility.

Question 21

The safe period method of contracepti is based on?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is the core principle of fertility awareness–based methods, historically referred to as the rhythm (calendar) method. Barrier methods work by physically blocking sperm rather than timing intercourse. Hormonal and surgical methods prevent pregnancy through endocrine suppression or permanent anatomical interruption, not cycle timing.

Question 22

Which contraceptive protects against STDs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly addresses STD prevention, unlike methods that only prevent pregnancy. Hormonal pills, IUCDs, and tubectomy do not provide a barrier and therefore do not protect against most STDs. Consistent, correct use is required for meaningful risk reduction, and protection is not absolute for infections spread by skin-to-skin contact outside the covered area.

Question 23

The nurse recalls that an age-related change to the reproductive system of an older female is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Menopause reflects ovarian follicular depletion leading to decreased estrogen and progesterone production, which causes permanent cessation of menses. This makes cessation of menstruation a typical age-related reproductive change in older females. In contrast, the uterus and vaginal epithelium tend to atrophy rather than hypertrophy, and reduced estrogen commonly leads to vaginal dryness rather than increased secretions. A rise in estrogen is opposite of the expected physiologic change with aging.

Question 24

It is defined as “the nursing specialty that deals with the care of women throughout their pregnancy and childbirth, and the care of their newborn children.”?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This matches the definition because it explicitly includes pregnancy, childbirth, and newborn care within a single nursing specialty scope. By contrast, gynecologic nursing centers on female reproductive health outside of pregnancy/newborn care, and antenatal nursing is limited to care before birth only. The term “maternal-child” is the standard nursing specialty label that encompasses both maternal and newborn domains.

Question 25

The following are the goals of Maternal and Child Health, EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maternal and child health aims to optimize outcomes for mothers, newborns, and children through health promotion, safe pregnancy and birth, and effective parenting education. Preventing fertility is not a goal of maternal-child health; rather, the focus is on supporting reproductive health choices, planned pregnancies, and healthy maternal-infant outcomes. Education on child care and ensuring good health in pregnancy and lactation align with maternal-child health objectives. A common confusion is equating family planning with “preventing fertility,” but family planning is about informed spacing/timing and access to services, not a blanket prevention of fertility.

Question 26

The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This funnel-shaped region lies closest to the ovary and opens into the peritoneal cavity, facilitating oocyte pickup. The ampulla is the longest and most common site of fertilization but is more medial than the fimbrial end. The isthmus is the narrow segment nearest the uterine wall, and the cervix is not part of the fallopian tube.

Question 27

Whats the average blood loss during c-section delivery?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard teaching is ~1000 mL for cesarean versus ~500 mL for uncomplicated vaginal birth, which aligns best with the highest range provided. The 400–500 mL range is more consistent with typical vaginal delivery and therefore underestimates cesarean blood loss. Knowing expected loss helps clinicians anticipate postpartum hemorrhage thresholds and appropriate monitoring and resuscitation planning.

Question 28

Hypertension probably exhibits which of the following Symptoms ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Severe-range blood pressure can produce persistent headache from cerebral edema/vasospasm. Visual disturbances such as blurred or double vision are classic warning signs of worsening preeclampsia and risk of eclampsia. Vaginal bleeding is more suggestive of placental abruption or placenta previa rather than being a typical defining symptom of hypertension. Uterine contractions indicate labor and are not a hallmark symptom used to identify hypertension-related complications.

Question 29

Baby developed inside the..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The uterus provides the environment for placental attachment, nutrient/oxygen exchange, and protection of the embryo/fetus throughout pregnancy. The vagina is the birth canal rather than the site of gestation, and the cervix primarily functions as the uterine outlet that remains closed during pregnancy. The ovary produces and releases oocytes and hormones, but it is not where a pregnancy develops under normal conditions.

Question 30

A couple trying to conceive asks the nurse when ovulation occurs. The woman reports a regular 32 day cycle. Which response by the nurse is correct?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In a 32-day cycle, subtracting 14 days predicts ovulation around day 18. The provided range that best brackets day 18 is days 17–19. Earlier ranges (e.g., days 10–13 or 14–16) correspond to shorter cycle lengths and would miss the most fertile window for a 32-day cycle.

Question 31

The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the post mature fetus is at risk due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This progressive decline is the central pathophysiologic risk in postmaturity and drives complications such as fetal hypoxia, meconium aspiration risk, and oligohydramnios. The decreased placental perfusion also contributes to a thin, wasted appearance and decreased reserves rather than robust growth. In contrast, excessive fetal weight is more characteristic of maternal diabetes or post-term growth without placental failure and is not the primary mechanism of postmaturity risk.

Question 32

A postpartum client admits to alcohol use throughout the pregnancy. Which of the following newborn assessments suggests to the nurse that the infant has fetal alcohol syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Characteristic findings include short palpebral fissures, a smooth philtrum, and a thin upper lip, making craniofacial abnormalities a key assessment clue. Growth retardation can occur but is less specific and overlaps with many other prenatal exposures and conditions. “Multiple anomalies” is nonspecific, and prune belly syndrome is a congenital abdominal wall/urinary tract disorder not linked to prenatal alcohol exposure.

Question 33

The nurse is assessing a pregnant client in her third trimester. The parents are informed that the ultrasound suggests that the baby is small for gestational age (SGA). An earlier ultrasound indicated normal growth. The nurse understands that this change is most likely due to what factor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypertension leads to placental vasoconstriction and reduced perfusion, limiting oxygen and nutrient delivery and causing a fetus that was previously growing normally to begin falling behind in the third trimester. In contrast, chromosomal abnormalities typically produce symmetric growth restriction evident earlier in pregnancy, often with other anomalies. Teratogen exposure classically affects early organogenesis and is less consistent with a new third-trimester shift from normal growth to SGA.

Question 34

CARRIES OXYGEN AND NUTRIENT RICH BLOOD TO FETUS FROM PLACENTA.. IS WHAT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It travels from the placenta through the umbilical cord toward the fetal liver and ductus venosus, ultimately contributing to systemic oxygen delivery. In contrast, the two umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus back to the placenta for gas exchange and nutrient replenishment. Therefore the vessel carrying oxygen and nutrient rich blood to the fetus from the placenta is the vein, not the arteries.

Question 35

Which methods can be used to prevent STDs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sterilization procedures (tubectomy and vasectomy) prevent pregnancy but do not block pathogen transmission during sexual contact. Copper-T is an intrauterine contraceptive that prevents fertilization/implantation and likewise provides no protection against STIs. Therefore, the option that directly addresses STI prevention is the barrier method.

Question 36

The endometrium during pregnancy is termed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This specialized, thickened, highly vascular endometrium is termed the decidua. Chorion and trophoblast refer to fetal-derived components of the developing placenta/extraembryonic membranes rather than maternal endometrium. Inner cell mass refers to the embryoblast within the blastocyst, not a uterine tissue layer.

Question 37

Which structure is responsible for protecting the fetus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This fluid environment also allows free fetal movement and helps prevent compression of the umbilical cord. The decidua primarily refers to the modified endometrium and supports implantation/placentation rather than acting as the main shock absorber. The yolk sac mainly contributes to early nutrition/hematopoiesis, and the corpus luteum’s main role is progesterone production to maintain early pregnancy.

Question 38

A lady with 12-week pregnancy with bleeding and on examination vagina is normal, Internal OS is closed and livebirth sign on USG and fundal height is 13 weeks. Diagnosis;?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The normal vaginal exam and closed internal os indicate that products of conception are not being expelled and miscarriage is not currently in progress. The presence of fetal cardiac activity (“livebirth sign”) supports ongoing viability, which excludes complete or incomplete abortion. Inevitable abortion would typically present with cervical dilation (open os), often with heavier bleeding and cramping, signaling that pregnancy loss cannot be prevented.

Question 39

Scarf sign is use to assess the child?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: As gestational age increases, passive tone increases and the infant’s elbow will not cross the midline as easily when the arm is drawn across the chest. Preterm infants have decreased tone and greater range of motion, making the maneuver “easier,” indicating lower gestational age. Birth weight and nutritional status are not directly measured by this tone-based passive range-of-motion sign, and it is not primarily a test of brain maturation as a standalone parameter.

Question 40

The nurse is aware that which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a diagnosis of hypospadias in a male newborn?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This abnormal ventral placement directly matches the described finding and is the hallmark physical exam manifestation in a newborn. Hydrocele and undescended testes are separate congenital conditions and are not diagnostic of hypospadias, though cryptorchidism can coexist in some genital anomalies. An “anterior” (dorsal/top) meatal location would be inconsistent with hypospadias and would suggest a different anatomic variant (e.g., epispadias).

Question 41

The first maternal perception of fetal movement commonly felt as a fluttering feeling usually occurring between the 18th and 20th weeks of gestation.

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first maternal perception of fetal movement is typically described as a fluttering sensation and is termed quickening, commonly occurring around 16–20 weeks (often later in primigravidas). In contrast, lightening/dropping refers to fetal head descent into the pelvis later in pregnancy, not first movement felt. Therefore the option that correctly names this early perception is the best answer.

Question 42

Signs of ectopic pregnancy include:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pain is a high-yield warning symptom that should prompt urgent evaluation because rupture can cause life-threatening intra-abdominal hemorrhage. Painless vaginal bleeding is more characteristic of placenta previa rather than ectopic pregnancy. Rebound tenderness can occur if there is peritoneal irritation from hemoperitoneum, but it is not as typical or consistently present as sharp abdominal pain and is generally a later, more severe finding.

Question 43

Excessive menstrual bleeding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent menstrual periods, not increased bleeding volume. Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation, which can occur with normal or abnormal bleeding but is primarily a pain descriptor. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation, the opposite of excessive bleeding.

Question 44

STRAWBERRY VAGINA IS SEEN IN?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Trichomoniasis commonly causes an erythematous, punctate, friable cervix/vaginal mucosa described as a “strawberry” appearance due to capillary hemorrhages. This aligns with its typical clinical picture of malodorous, frothy discharge and elevated vaginal pH. In contrast, Candida usually produces thick curdy discharge with vulvovaginal pruritus and does not classically create the punctate “strawberry” mucosa finding.

Question 45

Inflammation of the ovary is termed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ” The ovary is denoted by the root “oophor-,” so inflammation of the ovary is termed oophoritis; “ovaritis” is a synonymous term derived from the same organ name. The other choices refer to different structures or conditions: nephritis is kidney inflammation, hydrocele is a fluid collection (typically around the testis), and “fallotitis” would refer to the fallopian tube rather than the ovary.

Question 46

A full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypospadias is a congenital malposition of the urethral opening on the ventral (underside) surface of the penis due to incomplete fusion of the urethral folds. This directly matches the defining anatomic description being tested. A common distractor is dorsal placement, which instead describes epispadias. The urethral opening being absent is not typical for hypospadias, and penile length is not the defining feature used for diagnosis.

Question 47

How many months is a normal pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This duration reflects the normal time needed for fetal development to term and is the basis for standard obstetric dating (EDD at 280 days). While fetal age from conception is closer to 38 weeks, common clinical communication still describes a normal pregnancy as about 9 months. Shorter durations like 6–8 months would represent preterm delivery rather than a normal full-term pregnancy.

Question 48

Endometrium in pregnancy is known as ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This specialized, thickened, highly vascular maternal lining is termed the decidua and later contributes to the maternal portion of the placenta. The trophoblast is fetal-derived tissue forming chorionic structures rather than maternal endometrium. Decubitus refers to lying position/pressure-related terms and is unrelated to uterine histologic change in pregnancy.

Question 49

What is the normal weight of ovary?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A typical ovary in a reproductive-age adult weighs about 5–8 g, so this value best matches standard anatomy references. Options like 10 g are higher than the usual expected range, while 3 g is more consistent with a smaller or postmenopausal ovary. The 60 g option is far outside normal and would suggest gross enlargement or a different organ entirely.

Question 50

What is the normal size of uterus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 7.5 × 2.5 × 1.5 cm Normal adult (nulliparous) uterine dimensions are commonly taught as about 7–8 cm long, ~5 cm wide, and ~2–3 cm anteroposterior, with some variation by parity and hormonal status. Among the choices, only one matches the expected order of magnitude for length and gives a plausible width/anteroposterior thickness in basic anatomy references. Options with a width of 1.5–2 cm markedly underestimate uterine breadth, while the 5 cm width paired with 1.25 cm thickness underestimates the AP dimension. Therefore this option best represents the standard “normal uterus” size used in exams.

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