Question 1

Most common site for Fertilization is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ampullary segment is the widest portion of the fallopian tube and provides the optimal environment and time window for gamete encounter. More distal regions like the fimbriae mainly capture the ovum from the ovary, while more proximal segments (isthmus/intramural) are narrower and closer to the uterus, making them less common sites. This is also clinically relevant because implantation elsewhere in the tube increases ectopic pregnancy risk, with many tubal ectopics occurring in the same general region where fertilization happens.

Question 2

What is the weight of the Uterus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This value best matches standard anatomy references for reproductive organ size and weight. A much higher value such as 100 g would be more suggestive of enlargement from pregnancy-related change or pathology rather than baseline anatomy. The lower values (30–50 g) are more consistent with smaller/atrophic uteri (e.g., prepubertal or postmenopausal) than a typical adult uterus.

Question 3

Normal duration of puerperium?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Six weeks corresponds to 42 days and aligns with the typical timeframe for uterine involution and resolution of many pregnancy-related systemic changes. Shorter durations underrepresent expected physiologic recovery, while longer options are not the standard definition used in obstetrics. Therefore, the best answer is the 6-week (42-day) duration.

Question 4

Rhogam is most often used to treat___ mothers that have a ___ infant.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The highest-risk pairing is an Rh-negative mother carrying or delivering an Rh-positive infant, because fetal-maternal hemorrhage can trigger anti-D antibody formation. Those antibodies can cause hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn in subsequent Rh-positive pregnancies. If the mother is Rh-positive, she will not form anti-D against D antigen, so prophylaxis is not indicated.

Question 5

50 Widest Part of Fallopian tube is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This expanded lumen facilitates transport of the oocyte/zygote and provides the typical site where fertilization occurs. In contrast, the isthmus is narrow and thick-walled, and the interstitial portion is the narrowest segment traversing the uterine wall. The infundibulum is funnel-shaped with fimbriae but is not the widest tubular segment overall.

Question 6

Infection of fallopian tube is called....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The medical term for inflammation or infection of a structure uses the suffix “-itis” attached to the organ involved. The fallopian tube is also called the salpinx, so infection/inflammation of the tube is termed salpingitis, commonly seen as part of pelvic inflammatory disease. The other options refer to infection/inflammation of different organs (sinuses, Bartholin gland, appendix), making them anatomically incorrect for a fallopian tube process. Recognizing organ-specific terminology is key to correctly labeling reproductive tract infections on exams and in clinical documentation.

Question 7

The enzyme released by the sperm which allows penetration of the ovum is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This enzyme breaks down hyaluronic acid in the extracellular matrix of the cells surrounding the oocyte, dispersing them and facilitating passage. Amylase and trypsin are digestive enzymes and are not the characteristic acrosomal factor responsible for this step. Although multiple acrosomal enzymes contribute overall, this is the classic named enzyme tested for enabling penetration through the ovum’s surrounding cell layers.

Question 8

The process of milk synthesis and secretion by alveoli of breast is known as ................?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This specific initiation and establishment of milk synthesis and secretion is termed lactogenesis. Mammogenesis refers to breast growth and development, not milk production. Galactopoiesis refers to maintenance of established milk production, while galactokinesis describes milk ejection/let-down mediated largely by oxytocin.

Question 9

The endometrium during pregnancy is called....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In pregnancy, this modified endometrium becomes highly vascular and glandular, providing nourishment and contributing to the maternal part of the placenta. The term for this pregnancy-adapted endometrium is decidua (often written as “decidual/decidua”). By contrast, corpus luteum is an ovarian structure producing progesterone, and trophoblast refers to the outer embryonic cells forming chorion/placental components rather than the maternal endometrium.

Question 10

A woman who has given birth five times or more is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Five or more deliveries meets the definition of grand multiparity. By contrast, primipara refers to one birth and multipara generally indicates more than one birth but does not specifically denote the ≥5 threshold. Nullipara indicates no prior births.

Question 11

Confirmatory diagnostic test of multiple pregnancy is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Laboratory markers like hCG and AFP may be higher in multifetal pregnancy but are nonspecific and cannot confirm the diagnosis. Abdominal palpation can suggest an overdistended uterus or multiple fetal parts, but it is examiner-dependent and not reliably diagnostic. Therefore, imaging with ultrasound provides the confirmatory diagnosis.

Question 12

The failure of Uterus to return to its normal size is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Failure or delay of this return to normal size is termed subinvolution, commonly associated with uterine infection (endometritis) or retained products of conception that prevent adequate contraction. In contrast, involution describes the normal expected process rather than a complication. Retraction refers to the myometrium’s ability to maintain shortened muscle fibers after contraction, which supports hemostasis but is not the term for delayed uterine size reduction.

Question 13

Phantom or False pregnancy is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This entity is specifically termed pseudocyesis in obstetrics/gynecology. By contrast, striae gravidarum are stretch marks of real pregnancy, gravida describes the number of times pregnant, and nullipara refers to having had no deliveries beyond viability. Therefore the terminology that directly matches “false pregnancy” is the listed term.

Question 14

Bishops score is used for.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A higher score indicates a “ripe” cervix and a greater chance that induction methods (e.g., oxytocin, amniotomy) will be effective. A low score suggests the need for cervical ripening (e.g., prostaglandins or mechanical methods) before attempting induction. It is not designed to assess fetal status (monitoring or well-being) and does not directly measure labor progress once active labor is established.

Question 15

Normal weight of non pregnant uterus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This reflects baseline myometrial and endometrial tissue volume without gestational hypertrophy. Ranges such as 100–150 g or higher are more consistent with an enlarged uterus (e.g., pregnancy-related change or pathology like fibroids/adenomyosis). The smaller 30–50 g range is closer to low-end estimates and is less commonly used as the standard exam reference for average nonpregnant uterine weight.

Question 16

A women who is pregnant for the first time ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A first-time pregnancy is therefore classified as gravida 1, termed primigravida. In contrast, para refers to births at viability (not simply pregnancies), so primipara describes a woman who has delivered once at a viable gestation. Nuligravida means never having been pregnant, which does not fit the stem.

Question 17

Most common cause of Perinatal Mortality is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prematurity also correlates with low birth weight, which further raises vulnerability to respiratory distress, sepsis, and intraventricular hemorrhage. While congenital anomalies contribute substantially, they are less common overall than deaths related to preterm delivery in many populations. Birth injury and isolated metabolic causes account for a smaller proportion compared with complications of prematurity.

Question 18

At the time of labour weight of uterus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The expected exam range commonly cited for the gravid uterus at term is around 900–1000 g, reflecting this physiologic enlargement. The lower range listed would underestimate typical term uterine mass, while the higher range is less commonly used as the standard single-best estimate for term uterine weight. Therefore the choice matching the commonly taught term value is the best answer.

Question 19

The secretion from the prostate gland enters into the :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During ejaculation, this fluid mixes with sperm and other glandular secretions in the urethral lumen to form semen. The ureter carries urine from kidney to bladder and has no role in conveying prostatic fluid. The testis produces sperm and testosterone but does not receive prostatic secretions.

Question 20

Most cost effective family planning method is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Male sterilization is a one-time procedure with very low ongoing or maintenance costs while providing highly effective permanent contraception. In contrast, oral pills require continuous purchase and adherence, increasing long-term cost and failure risk. Copper IUDs are long-acting and cost-effective, but the initial device and follow-up costs generally exceed the one-time cost profile of male sterilization in many public health comparisons.

Question 21

Largest diameter of the fetal skull is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In a brow presentation (partial extension), the mentovertical diameter is the greatest (~13.5 cm), making vaginal delivery typically obstructed unless the presentation converts. Other diameters like submentovertical (face with full extension) and suboccipitofrontal (well-flexed vertex) are smaller and more favorable for passage. Therefore, the largest fetal skull diameter among the options is the mentovertical diameter.

Question 22

Still birth rate includes babies' death after

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In many standard nursing and public health exam references, this cutoff is 28 completed weeks of gestation, distinguishing late fetal death (stillbirth) from earlier pregnancy loss. Using this definition ensures uniform reporting and comparison across populations for perinatal mortality measures. Earlier gestations such as 20 or 24 weeks are used in some jurisdictions for fetal death reporting, but the classic stillbirth-rate cutoff tested in exams is 28 weeks.

Question 23

At term pregnancy weight of uterus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard obstetric anatomy values place the uterine weight at term at approximately 1 kg (around 900–1000 g). This range best reflects the expected physiologic enlargement compared with the nonpregnant uterus (~60–90 g). Options substantially above this range would be less typical for an uncomplicated term pregnancy and are more suggestive of additional pathology or inclusion of contents rather than uterine tissue mass alone.

Question 24

72 Total blood supply to circle of villi from cardiac output?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In late pregnancy, uterine blood flow rises markedly, commonly approximated at about 500–750 mL/min, which corresponds to roughly 10–15% of cardiac output. When the placental component supplying the chorionic villi is considered in exam conventions, the expected proportion is higher and is often taught as about one-third of cardiac output. Among the options, 30% best matches that high-flow uteroplacental perfusion figure; lower percentages understate the physiologic increase of pregnancy.

Question 25

Inflammation of prostate gland is called:--?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The prostate gland is therefore inflamed in prostatitis, which clinically can present with pelvic/perineal pain, dysuria, urinary frequency, and sometimes fever if infectious. Orchitis instead refers to inflammation of the testes, not the prostate. “Bruises” describes contusions/trauma rather than an inflammatory diagnosis of a specific gland.

Question 26

Inadequate intake of which vitamin by the pregnant woman may cause neural tube defects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Folate deficiency in the periconception period increases risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. Supplementation before conception and through early pregnancy reduces this risk because the neural tube closes by about the 4th week, often before pregnancy is recognized. The other B vitamins listed have important metabolic roles but are not the primary, established deficiency linked to neural tube defects in pregnancy.

Question 27

Which layer of vagina responsible for acidic pH of vagina?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This physiology is tied to the vaginal mucosa (stratified squamous epithelium) rather than deeper structural layers. The muscular and fibrous layers provide support and distensibility but do not generate the biochemical substrate or microenvironment responsible for acidity. When estrogen levels fall (e.g., prepuberty or postmenopause), epithelial glycogen decreases and vaginal pH rises, reinforcing that the mucosal epithelium is the key layer.

Question 28

In which part of the fallopian tube fertilization take place ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ampulla provides a larger lumen and favorable tubal environment (ciliary action and secretions) that support gamete transport and early zygote survival. After fertilization, the conceptus then moves toward the uterus for implantation. In contrast, the infundibulum primarily captures the oocyte with fimbriae, while the isthmus and interstitial (intramural) part are narrower passage segments rather than the usual site of fertilization.

Question 29

Golden colour of amniotic Fluid indicates which Condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In Rh isoimmunization, maternal anti-D antibodies cross the placenta and destroy fetal red blood cells, producing hyperbilirubinemia that can discolor amniotic fluid. This finding aligns with risk for hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn and can be correlated with elevated bilirubin in amniotic fluid assessment. By contrast, fetal distress is more associated with meconium-stained (green/brown) fluid rather than a golden/yellow hue.

Question 30

Multi load device refers to:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Copper IUDs are categorized as second-generation IUCDs (along with devices like Cu-T), distinguishing them from older inert plastic first-generation devices. Oral contraceptive pills and barrier methods are not intrauterine devices and therefore cannot be referred to as a “device” like Multiload. This makes the second-generation IUCD option the most specific and correct classification.

Question 31

What is the best time of episiotomy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Timing it here maximizes effectiveness for facilitating delivery and minimizes unnecessary bleeding and tissue trauma compared with cutting earlier. Doing it in the first stage is inappropriate because the fetal head is not distending the perineum yet and there is no imminent need for enlargement of the outlet. The third and fourth stages occur after birth of the baby, so they are not appropriate times for a procedure meant to aid the baby’s delivery.

Question 32

Absolute inability to conceive for one or more reason implies?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This wording contrasts with infertility, which usually indicates reduced ability to conceive or failure to conceive after a defined period of unprotected intercourse and may be treatable. Fertility is the normal capacity to reproduce, so it is the opposite of the stem. Impotence describes erectile dysfunction and may impair intercourse but does not necessarily mean absolute inability to conceive in all circumstances.

Question 33

The first milk produced after delivery is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is characteristically thick and yellowish and is rich in immunoglobulins (especially IgA), leukocytes, and growth factors that support neonatal gut maturation and infection defense. Lactose is a carbohydrate component of milk rather than the name of the first milk itself. Hind milk refers to the higher-fat milk expressed later during a feeding, not the first milk produced after delivery.

Question 34

Dark brown colour of amniotic Fluid indicates :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This discoloration is not the typical finding of meconium passage in postmaturity, which more often produces greenish-stained fluid. Rh incompatibility is more associated with fetal anemia/hydrops rather than a characteristic dark-brown liquor. Accidental hemorrhage (abruption) primarily causes fresh bleeding and uterine tenderness; while blood may mix with fluid, the classic exam association for dark-brown liquor is fetal death.

Question 35

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Effective uterine contraction is the primary physiologic mechanism of hemostasis in the immediate postpartum period. Compared with placental causes (previa/abruption) and coagulation problems, loss of uterine tone accounts for the largest proportion of cases. This is why first-line management emphasizes uterine massage and uterotonic medications to restore tone and reduce bleeding.

Question 36

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Adequate myometrial contraction compresses spiral arteries at the placental site; when tone is poor, these vessels continue to bleed heavily. In contrast, placenta previa and placental abruption are more classically associated with antepartum hemorrhage, though they can contribute to bleeding around delivery. Coagulopathies can worsen hemorrhage but are less frequent as the primary initiating cause than loss of uterine tone. Therefore the best single answer is uterine atony.

Question 37

Which of these is a permanent method of contraception?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Female sterilization (tubal ligation) blocks or occludes the fallopian tubes so sperm cannot reach the ovum, and male sterilization (vasectomy) occludes the vas deferens to prevent sperm from entering the ejaculate. Both are considered permanent methods, even though reversal may sometimes be attempted and is not reliably successful. In contrast, MTP is a method to terminate an existing pregnancy rather than prevent conception, so it is not a contraceptive method.

Question 38

The copper used in Copper T has the following action

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This prevents fertilization primarily by reducing the ability of sperm to reach and fertilize the ovum. While copper can also affect the endometrium, the key tested mechanism is its direct anti-sperm effect. Options focused on antibacterial effects describe unrelated properties and are not the contraceptive mechanism being asked.

Question 39

Softening of Cervix during pregnancy is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This specific finding is termed Goodell's sign. Chadwick's sign instead refers to bluish discoloration of the cervix/vagina from increased vascularity, not softening. Chvostek's sign is a neuromuscular irritability sign seen with hypocalcemia, unrelated to pregnancy cervical changes.

Question 40

Polyhydroamniosis means amniotic fluid volume more than .

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This threshold reflects abnormal fluid balance between fetal urine production and fetal swallowing/absorption. Using >2,000 mL distinguishes clinically significant excess from normal third-trimester increases in fluid volume. Lower cutoffs such as 1,000–1,500 mL overlap with normal ranges and would overdiagnose, while a higher cutoff like 2,500 mL would miss standard textbook-defined cases.

Question 41

Second stage of labour is associated with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The second stage begins at full cervical dilation (10 cm) and ends with birth of the neonate, driven by uterine contractions and maternal pushing. Therefore the defining association is the fetus being delivered. A common distractor is placental expulsion, but that occurs after the baby is born in the third stage.

Question 42

45 The first menstruation in a female is called as-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The onset of the first menstrual bleeding marks the beginning of reproductive cyclicity and typically occurs during puberty due to activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis. Amenorrhea refers to absence of menstruation, not its onset. Menopause is the permanent cessation of menses, and dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation rather than the first occurrence.

Question 43

Caput succedaneum is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This matches a description of a fluid collection beneath the scalp rather than a skin lesion. A key differentiator is that it typically crosses suture lines; therefore, the statement that swelling will not cross suture lines is more consistent with cephalohematoma. It is generally benign and resolves spontaneously over days without specific treatment.

Question 44

The safest method of termination of pregnancy before 12 week is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is quick, effective, and typically requires less cervical instrumentation than sharp methods. Dilatation and curettage relies on sharp curettage, which increases endometrial trauma and perforation risk compared with suction. Laminaria tents are primarily for cervical ripening, not a definitive termination method, and prostaglandins are medical methods whose adverse effects and failure rates vary and are not considered the single safest procedural method in this timeframe.

Question 45

After ovulation has occurred, the ovum remains viable for

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After release from the ovary, it can be fertilized only briefly before it degenerates in the fallopian tube. This timeframe is commonly taught as about 12–24 hours, with many nursing exam references specifying 12–18 hours. Longer ranges reflect sperm survival (up to several days), not ovum viability, making the higher-hour options incorrect.

Question 46

When the membrane gets ruptured before the onset of labour is called as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This definition is independent of gestational age; if it occurs before 37 weeks it is PPROM, but the stem does not specify weeks. The correct choice matches this standard obstetric terminology describing timing relative to labor onset. “Artificial rupture” refers to clinician-performed amniotomy during management of labor rather than spontaneous rupture before labor, making it a distractor.

Question 47

Umbilical cord contains?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Two arteries carry deoxygenated blood and metabolic waste from the fetus to the placenta, while a single vein returns oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood to the fetus. This “two arteries, one vein” configuration is the standard finding assessed in obstetrics and newborn exams. A single umbilical artery variant exists, but it is not the normal expected anatomy and is not reflected by the other options.

Question 48

Jacquemier's sign is also known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is an eponymic synonym for Chadwick's sign, which is a classic probable sign of pregnancy recognized on pelvic exam. The other options are different early pregnancy findings: Goodell’s sign is softening of the cervix and Hegar’s sign is softening/compressibility of the uterine isthmus. Osiander’s sign instead describes increased pulsation felt in the lateral fornices.

Question 49

Tail of sperm helps in:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This movement is powered by ATP produced primarily by mitochondria concentrated in the midpiece, but the tail is the structure that creates propulsion. Nutrition and respiration are not functions of the tail; nutrient delivery and energy production are handled by other cellular components. Cell division is not a role of mature sperm, which are terminally differentiated cells.

Question 50

What is the function of the testes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Their key reproductive function is the formation and maturation of sperm cells within seminiferous tubules under the influence of FSH and intratesticular testosterone. Oogenesis is an ovarian function, while osmoregulation is primarily a renal/homeostatic function. Although cell division occurs during sperm production, the specific tested function of testes among the options is sperm formation.

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Most common site for Fertilization is?

What is the weight of the Uterus?

Normal duration of puerperium?

Rhogam is most often used to treat___ mothers that have a ___ infant.?

50 Widest Part of Fallopian tube is?

Infection of fallopian tube is called....?

The enzyme released by the sperm which allows penetration of the ovum is called?

The process of milk synthesis and secretion by alveoli of breast is known as ................?

The endometrium during pregnancy is called....?

A woman who has given birth five times or more is called?

Confirmatory diagnostic test of multiple pregnancy is ?

The failure of Uterus to return to its normal size is ?

Phantom or False pregnancy is ?

Bishops score is used for.?

Normal weight of non pregnant uterus?

A women who is pregnant for the first time ?

Most common cause of Perinatal Mortality is ?

At the time of labour weight of uterus?

The secretion from the prostate gland enters into the :-

Most cost effective family planning method is?

Largest diameter of the fetal skull is?

Still birth rate includes babies' death after

At term pregnancy weight of uterus is?

72 Total blood supply to circle of villi from cardiac output?

Inflammation of prostate gland is called:--?

Inadequate intake of which vitamin by the pregnant woman may cause neural tube defects?

Which layer of vagina responsible for acidic pH of vagina?

In which part of the fallopian tube fertilization take place ?

Golden colour of amniotic Fluid indicates which Condition?

Multi load device refers to:

What is the best time of episiotomy?

Absolute inability to conceive for one or more reason implies?

The first milk produced after delivery is known as?

Dark brown colour of amniotic Fluid indicates :-

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage :-

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage :-

Which of these is a permanent method of contraception?

The copper used in Copper T has the following action

Softening of Cervix during pregnancy is?

Polyhydroamniosis means amniotic fluid volume more than .

Second stage of labour is associated with?

45 The first menstruation in a female is called as-?

Caput succedaneum is?

The safest method of termination of pregnancy before 12 week is?

After ovulation has occurred, the ovum remains viable for

When the membrane gets ruptured before the onset of labour is called as?

Umbilical cord contains?

Jacquemier's sign is also known as?

Tail of sperm helps in:

What is the function of the testes?

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Rhogam is most often used to treat_ mothers that have a _ infant.?