Question 1

Maternal mortality rate definition include all except

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maternal mortality is typically defined as the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days (about 6 weeks) of termination of pregnancy, from causes related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management. Therefore, deaths occurring within pregnancy and within 6 weeks postpartum are included in the standard definition. Extending the postpartum window to 6 months goes beyond the classic maternal mortality definition and instead aligns more with broader concepts like late maternal death.
Category reason: This question tests the formal epidemiologic/obstetric definition of maternal mortality timing, which is foundational reproductive health knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 2

The hCG test is also known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) is produced primarily by trophoblastic cells of the placenta shortly after implantation. Detecting hCG in urine or blood is the standard method used to confirm pregnancy because levels rise predictably in early gestation. “Blood test” is a specimen type rather than the common name of the test, and “TLC test” is unrelated (typically refers to total leukocyte count).
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge about a pregnancy-related hormone assay and its common clinical name, which falls under reproductive physiology and testing rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 3

Which of the following is not a advantage of intrauterine contraceptive device-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: IUDs should not be inserted or continued when pregnancy is suspected because this requires prompt evaluation to confirm pregnancy status and exclude ectopic pregnancy. If pregnancy occurs with an IUD in place, there is increased risk of miscarriage, infection, and preterm birth, and management depends on gestational location and IUD string visibility. In contrast, reversibility and minimal systemic/metabolic effects are well-recognized benefits, and insertion is generally a simple outpatient procedure when done by trained personnel.
Category reason: This tests knowledge of contraceptive device use/contraindications and reproductive health principles rather than nursing prioritization or care management, so it fits the Reproductive System subject area.

Question 4

What is the female equivalent of the male testes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The testes are the male gonads that produce gametes (sperm) and secrete sex hormones (primarily testosterone). The homologous female gonads are the ovaries, which produce gametes (oocytes) and secrete sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone). The uterus and fallopian tubes are reproductive tract structures but are not gonads and do not serve the primary gamete- and hormone-producing role.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of female and male gonadal structures and their equivalents, which is core content within the Reproductive System.

Question 5

What is menarche?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Menarche is defined as the first menstrual bleeding marking the onset of menstrual cycles at puberty. It reflects maturation of the hypothalamic–pituitary–ovarian axis, though early cycles may be anovulatory. The other options describe broader reproductive life span concepts or physiologic changes that are not the definition of menarche.
Category reason: This item tests a basic definition related to female puberty and reproductive development, which is foundational knowledge of the Reproductive System rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision.

Question 6

A woman with 20 weeks pregnancy presents with bleeding per vaginum. On speculum examination, the os is open but no products have come out. The diagnosis is: [AIIMS Nov 2013]?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An open cervical os with vaginal bleeding indicates that miscarriage is in progress and cannot be stopped. The key distinction from incomplete abortion is that no products of conception have been expelled yet. Missed abortion typically has a closed os with retained nonviable pregnancy, and complete abortion implies expulsion of all products with subsequent closure of the os and reduced bleeding.
Category reason: This question tests obstetric diagnostic definitions of types of abortion based on cervical os status and passage of products of conception, which is foundational reproductive-system knowledge rather than nursing management or prioritization.

Question 7

The normal position of the baby delivery is called —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This describes the usual fetal presentation at term, where the head is the presenting part and enters the maternal pelvis first. It is the most common presentation and is associated with the safest, most efficient vaginal delivery mechanics. Breech, transverse, and oblique lies are malpresentations that increase risk of complications and often require obstetric intervention.
Category reason: This tests foundational obstetric knowledge about fetal lie/presentation in childbirth, which is part of the Reproductive System rather than a nursing management or intervention decision.

Question 8

Which of the following pelvic type is best for child Birth?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pelvic type has a rounded inlet and roomy midpelvis with a wide subpubic arch, which best accommodates fetal head engagement and rotation for vaginal delivery. It is considered the most favorable “female-type” pelvis for childbirth compared with android (more heart-shaped and narrower) or anthropoid/platypelloid variants. The option “platelets” is not a pelvic type and is therefore incorrect.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of pelvic anatomy types and their relationship to labor mechanics, which is a foundational topic in the reproductive system.

Question 9

Find out the correct statement regarding bartholin's gland

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bartholin (greater vestibular) glands are the female homologs of the male bulbourethral (Cowper) glands. They lie posterolateral to the vaginal introitus, with ducts opening into the vestibule. Their function is to secrete mucus that lubricates the vestibule, especially with sexual arousal, so each individual statement is correct.
Category reason: This tests anatomical location, homology, and function of Bartholin glands, which is foundational knowledge of the female genital tract within the Reproductive System.

Question 10

Eclampsia is characterized by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Eclampsia is defined as the onset of generalized tonic-clonic seizures in a pregnant or postpartum patient with preeclampsia, reflecting severe cerebral involvement from hypertensive disease. Proteinuria is a classic finding of preeclampsia and may be present with eclampsia, but it is not the defining feature. Hypoglycemia and hyperemesis are not characteristic criteria for eclampsia.
Category reason: This is testing the defining clinical feature and disease concept of a pregnancy-related hypertensive disorder, which is core obstetric knowledge within the Reproductive System.

Question 11

The fluid the fetus used to be inside is called –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is the fluid within the amniotic sac that surrounds the developing fetus throughout pregnancy. This fluid cushions against mechanical injury, helps maintain a stable temperature, and allows fetal movement and lung development. The other options refer to unrelated body fluids: semen is male reproductive fluid, synovial fluid lubricates joints, and “blood fluid” is not the correct anatomical term for the fetal environment.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of pregnancy anatomy and the fetal environment, which is primarily studied under the Reproductive System rather than nursing decision-making or care prioritization.

Question 12

When a Women's ovaries stop producing Hormones and Menstrual Periods stop.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C) Menopause This describes the physiologic cessation of ovarian follicular activity with a marked decline in estrogen/progesterone, resulting in permanent cessation of menses (typically confirmed after 12 months of amenorrhea). Menarche is the onset of menstruation, amenorrhea is absence of menstruation from various causes and is not necessarily due to ovarian hormone cessation, and metrorrhagia is abnormal uterine bleeding between periods. Therefore the best term for ovaries stopping hormone production with menstrual periods stopping is menopause.
Category reason: This tests foundational knowledge of female reproductive physiology and terminology around cessation of ovarian hormonal function and menstruation, which fits the Reproductive System in NursingScience rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 13

What is the medical term assigned to a woman who has never been pregnant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term denotes a woman with gravidity of zero, meaning she has never been pregnant. In contrast, primigravida refers to a woman pregnant for the first time, and primipara refers to a woman who has delivered one pregnancy beyond viability. “Virgin” is not an obstetric gravidity/parity classification and does not reliably indicate pregnancy history.
Category reason: This is a terminology/concept question about obstetric gravidity/parity classification, which is part of reproductive health science rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision-making scenario.

Question 14

___ is surgery procedure to deliver a baby. The baby is taken out through your abdomen.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C-section This describes a surgical delivery in which the fetus is delivered through incisions in the maternal abdominal wall and uterus. The other options are surgeries of the hip joint, appendix, or eye lens and are unrelated to childbirth. The defining feature is delivery via an abdominal approach rather than through the vaginal canal.
Category reason: This tests recognition of an obstetric surgical procedure used for childbirth, which is primarily content in reproductive/obstetric science rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 15

_____ is the process by which a baby is pushed out of the uterus and passes out of the mother's body,?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The description matches the overall event of delivery in which the fetus is expelled from the uterus and exits the mother’s body. Dilation is only cervical opening, and labor refers to the process of uterine contractions and cervical change leading up to delivery. Expulsion is a component/stage within labor rather than the broad term for the entire event described.
Category reason: This tests basic reproductive terminology defining the process of delivery rather than a nursing intervention or clinical judgment, so it fits foundational knowledge of the Reproductive System.

Question 16

In which of the following fertilized eggs are covered by hard calcareous shell?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These amniotes lay shelled eggs in which calcium carbonate is deposited to form a protective shell, supporting development on land by reducing water loss and providing mechanical protection. Amphibians like frogs and toads typically lay jelly-coated eggs without a hard calcareous shell and usually require aquatic environments. Most mammals do not lay hard-shelled eggs because embryonic development occurs internally with placental support (with rare exceptions like monotremes, which still do not have the typical hard calcified shell seen in birds).
Category reason: This tests basic zoology/embryology concepts about how different vertebrate groups reproduce and protect developing embryos, which fits foundational reproductive biology rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 17

Which of the following correctly defines puerperium?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The puerperium is the postpartum period during which the reproductive organs and maternal physiology return toward the nonpregnant state. Clinically, it is typically defined as approximately 6 weeks after delivery, encompassing uterine involution and major hormonal and hemodynamic readjustments. The other options describe time frames that are either too short (immediate postpartum hour), context-dependent (hospital stay), or unrelated to physiologic recovery (breastfeeding duration).
Category reason: This item tests the definition of a postpartum physiologic period (puerperium), which is a foundational concept within the Reproductive System rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 18

The licensed practical nurse (LPN) is assisting a school nurse in conducting a session with female adolescents regarding the menstrual cycle. The LPN tells the adolescents that the most likely day for ovulation in a 30-day menstrual cycle is which day?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period (the luteal phase is relatively constant). In a 30-day cycle, this places ovulation around day 16 (30 − 14 = 16). The other choices are less consistent with this timing, with day 14 aligning more closely with a 28-day cycle and day 18 being later than expected for a 30-day cycle.
Category reason: This question tests menstrual cycle physiology and timing of ovulation, which is foundational knowledge of the female reproductive system rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 19

Which structure prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in liver?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In fetal circulation, this vessel shunts oxygen-rich blood from the umbilical vein directly into the inferior vena cava, bypassing hepatic sinusoids. This minimizes admixture with the more deoxygenated portal venous blood within the liver and helps preserve higher oxygen content for delivery to vital organs. The portal vein and hepatic artery are sources of hepatic inflow that mix within sinusoids, and the bile duct is not involved in blood flow separation.
Category reason: This question tests fetal circulatory anatomy and shunts related to the liver, which is a foundational concept within reproductive/fetal physiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 20

After teaching a group of students about pregnancy-related mortality, the instructor determines that additional teaching is needed when the students identify which condition as a leading cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C) Obstructed labor Globally, the leading direct causes of maternal mortality are typically postpartum hemorrhage, hypertensive disorders, sepsis/infection, and thromboembolism, along with complications of unsafe abortion. While obstructed labor can cause severe morbidity and can contribute to maternal death (e.g., via uterine rupture or sepsis), it is not usually cited as a leading cause compared with hemorrhage, infection, or embolic events. Therefore, naming it as a leading cause indicates misunderstanding of the primary epidemiologic contributors to pregnancy-related mortality.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of the major medical causes of pregnancy-related mortality (obstetric epidemiology) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, fitting foundational content in the Reproductive System.

Question 21

Preterm baby means that Newborn

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A) Born before 37 weeks Preterm birth is defined as delivery occurring before 37 completed weeks of gestation. Term pregnancy is 37 to 42 weeks, so options using 40, 42, or 44 weeks do not match the accepted clinical definition. This definition is used to stratify neonatal risks such as respiratory distress, thermoregulation problems, feeding difficulty, and infection susceptibility.
Category reason: This tests the foundational obstetric/neonatal definition of gestational age categories (preterm vs term), which is biomedical knowledge within the Reproductive System rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 22

Which of the following describes a preterm neonate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Preterm birth is defined by gestational age, with delivery occurring before 37 completed weeks. Birth weight cutoffs (e.g.,

Question 23

A nurse at a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who suspects she may be pregnant and asks the nurse how the provider will confirm her pregnancy. The nurse should inform the client that what lab test will be used to confirm her pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced after implantation by trophoblastic tissue, making it the earliest routinely detectable marker of pregnancy. Standard pregnancy tests detect this hormone (often in urine) and are used to confirm suspected pregnancy. The other listed hormones can change in pregnancy but are not specific or routinely used as a primary confirmatory test. “HCS” is not the hormone targeted by typical pregnancy confirmation tests.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of which hormone-based laboratory assay confirms pregnancy, which is primarily reproductive physiology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.

Question 24

Commonest cause of transverse lie is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In women with multiple prior pregnancies, the abdominal and uterine musculature are more lax, allowing greater fetal mobility and making persistent abnormal lies more likely. Placenta previa and uterine malformations can also predispose to malpresentation, but they are less common overall causes compared with multiparity. Contracted pelvis more classically contributes to cephalopelvic disproportion rather than being the leading cause of a transverse lie.
Category reason: This is an obstetrics question about a common cause of fetal malpresentation (transverse lie), which is foundational knowledge of pregnancy and childbirth within the Reproductive System.

Question 25

Muscle cut in mediolateral episiotomy are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A mediolateral episiotomy starts at the posterior fourchette and is directed laterally, so it typically incises the perineal skin and muscles including the bulbospongiosus and superficial/deep transverse perineal muscles, and may involve fibers of the levator ani. It is specifically angled to reduce the likelihood of extending into the external anal sphincter compared with a midline episiotomy. Therefore, the option listing these perineal muscles (and not the external anal sphincter) best matches the standard anatomy involved.
Category reason: This question tests anatomical knowledge of which perineal muscles are transected during a mediolateral episiotomy, which is primarily content of the female pelvic/perineal anatomy within the Reproductive System.

Question 26

Pearl index is related to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is a statistical measure of the number of unintended pregnancies occurring per 100 woman-years of exposure, used to quantify failure rates. Lower values indicate better performance in preventing pregnancy under typical study conditions. The other options refer to obstetric assessments such as pelvic contraction, Bishop score for induction readiness, and screening for high-risk pregnancy, which are unrelated to this index.
Category reason: This tests a foundational metric used in family planning to evaluate methods of contraception, which falls under reproductive health science rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 27

Placental Abruption vs. Placenta Previa A pregnant client at 34 weeks presents with painful, dark red vaginal bleeding and a rigid abdomen. The nurse suspects:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B) Placental abruption Painful vaginal bleeding with dark red blood and a firm/rigid (hypertonic) uterus is classic for premature separation of the placenta. Placenta previa typically causes painless, bright red bleeding with a soft, non-tender uterus. Vasa previa also presents with painless bleeding but is often associated with fetal distress after membrane rupture. Uterine rupture is usually linked to a prior uterine scar and sudden severe pain with loss of fetal station and abnormal fetal heart rate patterns rather than a persistently rigid abdomen.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of distinguishing clinical features of third-trimester bleeding disorders (abruption vs previa vs vasa previa vs rupture), which is foundational obstetric pathophysiology within the Reproductive System.

Question 28

Which vessel transports blood rich in oxygen and nutrients to the fetus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In fetal circulation, oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood returns from the placenta to the fetus through the umbilical vein. The umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. The ductus venosus shunts a portion of this oxygenated blood past the liver into the inferior vena cava, and the ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta to bypass the lungs.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of fetal circulation and the function of umbilical vessels, which is primarily anatomy/physiology of pregnancy within the Reproductive System.

Question 29

Where is the placenta located in placenta previa?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Placenta previa is defined by implantation of placental tissue in the lower uterine segment such that it approaches, partially covers, or completely covers the internal cervical os. This abnormal location predisposes to painless vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy because cervical effacement and dilation disrupt placental attachment. In contrast, normal placentation occurs in the upper uterine segment (fundal/posterior/anterior away from the os), and the other options do not describe placental implantation sites.
Category reason: This is testing the definition/anatomic location of an obstetric pathology (placenta previa), which is foundational reproductive system knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 30

Absolute indication for cesarean section is-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An absolute indication means vaginal delivery is not feasible or would be unsafe because of a fixed mechanical problem. True CPD indicates the fetal head cannot pass through the maternal pelvis, creating obstructed labor risk with maternal and fetal compromise if labor continues. Primigravida status alone is not an indication for operative delivery, and premature rupture of membranes is typically managed based on gestational age, infection risk, and labor progress rather than automatically requiring surgery. Therefore, among the options, CPD best fits an absolute indication for cesarean section.
Category reason: This question tests obstetric indications for delivery route (vaginal vs cesarean) based on reproductive anatomy and labor mechanics, which is foundational biomedical/obstetric knowledge rather than a nursing care prioritization scenario.

Question 31

Common minor disorder of pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gastroesophageal reflux is very common in pregnancy due to progesterone-mediated relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter and increased intra-abdominal pressure from the enlarging uterus. This typically presents as postprandial burning and regurgitation and is considered a minor discomfort rather than a pathologic sign when uncomplicated. Abdominal pain is not typically classified as a “minor disorder” because it can indicate serious obstetric or abdominal pathology. Vomiting can be common, but the question’s single best “minor disorder” classically listed is reflux-related symptoms.
Category reason: This is testing common physiologic changes and typical symptoms during pregnancy (a reproductive physiology concept) rather than a nursing intervention, prioritization, or safety decision.

Question 32

Bleeding in early pregnancy is.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vaginal bleeding in the first trimester most commonly indicates threatened or ongoing miscarriage, grouped clinically under abortion. Placenta previa and placental abruption are classically causes of bleeding in the second half of pregnancy (after fetal viability), though previa can occasionally be noted earlier but typically presents later. Postpartum hemorrhage occurs after delivery and is not an early-pregnancy diagnosis. Therefore the best match for early-pregnancy bleeding among the options is miscarriage/abortion.
Category reason: This tests obstetric pathophysiology and timing of pregnancy-related bleeding etiologies (early vs late vs postpartum), which is foundational reproductive system knowledge rather than a nursing-intervention scenario.

Question 33

WHO recommended antenatal visit is at least?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: WHO’s focused antenatal care model recommended a minimum of four visits historically, but updated WHO guidance increased the minimum number of contacts to improve detection of complications and perinatal outcomes. Many exam syllabi using “visits” frame this as at least 6, reflecting expanded contact schedules beyond the older 4-visit model. Compared with fewer visits, more scheduled contacts enhance opportunities for screening, preventive interventions (e.g., anemia, hypertension), counseling, and timely referral. Therefore, among the given choices, this best matches the commonly tested WHO minimum-contact update.
Category reason: This question tests a standard guideline about the minimum recommended antenatal care contacts/visits, which is foundational reproductive health knowledge rather than a nursing judgment or intervention in a specific patient scenario.

Question 34

Newborn with NTDs should be delivered via?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Vaginal birth can increase mechanical trauma to exposed neural tissue in open neural tube defects (e.g., myelomeningocele), raising the risk of lesion rupture, bleeding, and infection. Planned cesarean delivery helps minimize pressure and friction on the defect during delivery, supporting better immediate neonatal stabilization. Assisted vaginal methods (vacuum) and breech presentation further increase traction and trauma risk to the lesion and are avoided when possible.
Category reason: This asks for the preferred mode of delivery in the presence of a congenital fetal anomaly (neural tube defect), which is an obstetric/reproductive-system topic rather than a nursing care prioritization or safety-intervention scenario.

Question 35

In breech presentation denominator is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In obstetrics, the denominator is the fetal landmark used to describe position relative to the maternal pelvis. For breech presentations, the fetal sacrum is the reference point (e.g., left sacroanterior, right sacroposterior). In contrast, vertex uses the occiput, face uses the mentum, and shoulder presentations use the scapula/acromion, making the other options incorrect here.
Category reason: This question tests foundational obstetric anatomy/terminology regarding fetal presentation and position, which fits the Reproductive System subject rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 36

What is nurse’s primary critical observation when performing an assessment for determining an Apgar score?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Apgar scoring assesses Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. Among these components, pulse (heart rate) is the most critical because it best reflects neonatal perfusion and the need for immediate resuscitative interventions. A heart rate

Question 37

Which prenatal diagnostic tool is best for open NTD?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. Amniocentesis for AFP Open neural tube defects allow fetal proteins such as alpha-fetoprotein to leak into amniotic fluid, making amniotic fluid AFP a highly sensitive diagnostic test. Cordocentesis is primarily used for fetal karyotyping, anemia, or infection evaluation and is not the preferred test for NTDs. Amniocentesis for bilirubin assesses hemolytic disease (e.g., Rh isoimmunization), not structural defects. Ultrasound is an important screening/assessment tool, but biochemical confirmation with amniotic fluid AFP is the best diagnostic choice among the options listed.
Category reason: This question tests prenatal diagnostic evaluation of fetal congenital malformations (neural tube defects) and which obstetric test best detects them, which fits reproductive/obstetric science rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 38

Which test is used to confirm pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. HCG test Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced after implantation, and its detection in urine or serum is the standard method used to confirm pregnancy. It becomes detectable in serum earlier than urine and rises predictably in early gestation. Ultrasound is typically used to visualize an intrauterine pregnancy after hCG is positive, while amniocentesis and CT scan are not used to confirm pregnancy.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of how pregnancy is biologically confirmed via detection of hCG, which falls under reproductive system concepts rather than nursing care actions.

Question 39

Bleeding between periods is termed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bleeding that occurs at irregular intervals, especially between expected menstrual periods, is defined as metrorrhagia. Menorrhagia refers to excessively heavy or prolonged bleeding during menses, not between cycles. Amenorrhea is absence of menstruation, and dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation. Therefore, the term for intermenstrual bleeding is metrorrhagia.
Category reason: This question tests definitions of menstrual bleeding patterns and related gynecologic terminology, which is foundational knowledge within the Reproductive System.

Question 40

Which vitamin is essential for preventing neural tube defects in fetus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C. Folic acid Neural tube closure occurs very early in embryogenesis, and adequate folate is required for DNA synthesis and cell division during this rapid growth period. Periconceptional folic acid supplementation significantly reduces the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. Vitamins C, A, and K do not have this established preventive role for neural tube defects; additionally, excess vitamin A can be teratogenic.
Category reason: This tests a foundational concept in embryologic development and pregnancy-related nutrient requirements, which best fits Reproductive System rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 41

The safest method of termination of pregnancy before 12 weeks is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For first-trimester termination (≤12 weeks), vacuum aspiration is generally the safest and most effective surgical method, with lower risks of uterine perforation and intrauterine adhesions compared with sharp curettage. Dilatation and curettage is older and associated with more endometrial trauma. Laminaria tents are primarily for cervical ripening rather than being the termination method itself. Prostaglandins are used for medical abortion but are not typically the single “safest method” asked in classic MCQs for

Question 42

The early sign of preeclampsia is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Preeclampsia classically presents after 20 weeks with new-onset hypertension accompanied by protein loss in urine from glomerular endotheliosis. Proteinuria reflects early renal involvement and may be detected before severe neurologic manifestations develop. Headache is a concerning feature of worsening disease (cerebral edema/vasospasm), and seizures define eclampsia rather than early preeclampsia. Polyuria is not a typical feature; reduced urine output (oliguria) can occur with severe disease.
Category reason: This question tests the defining clinical feature used to recognize preeclampsia based on pregnancy-related reproductive physiology/pathophysiology, rather than nursing actions or prioritization.

Question 43

Lighting takes place at which week?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lighting refers to engagement of the fetal presenting part (usually the head) into the maternal pelvis, which commonly occurs around 36 weeks in primigravidas but may occur earlier in multiparas and is often taught as occurring about 32 weeks in standard obstetric MCQ keys. In many exam-oriented references, 32 weeks is used as the representative time point for when lightening can be appreciated as the uterus begins to “drop.” This change is associated with easier breathing for the mother and increased urinary frequency due to bladder pressure.
Category reason: This question tests obstetric timing of a pregnancy-related event (lightening/engagement), which is foundational knowledge about pregnancy and childbirth within the Reproductive System.

Question 44

She wants to know the length of her menstrual cycle. Her previous menstrual period is October 22 to 26. Her LMB is November 21. Which of the following number of days will be your correct response?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Menstrual cycle length is counted from the first day of one menstrual period to the first day of the next. Here, the first day of the prior period is Oct 22 and the first day of the next period (LMB) is Nov 21; counting the days between these start dates gives a 29-day cycle. The end date of bleeding (Oct 26) does not determine cycle length, only the first day does.
Category reason: This question tests calculation/understanding of menstrual cycle timing, which is foundational knowledge of female reproductive physiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 45

You instruct Mariah to keep record of her basal temperature every day, which of the following instructions is correct?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Basal body temperature must be measured at true rest to avoid activity-related increases that can obscure the ovulatory thermal shift. The measurement should be done at the same time each morning after a continuous sleep period, prior to any movement, eating, or drinking. Ovulation is typically indicated by a sustained rise in temperature due to progesterone, so consistent technique is essential for accurate interpretation. The other options are incorrect because fertility is highest in the days before ovulation and BBT rises after ovulation (luteal/secretory phase), not being lowest during that phase.
Category reason: This question tests understanding of ovulation/fertility tracking physiology and the correct technique for basal body temperature monitoring, which is core reproductive physiology rather than a nursing intervention prioritization scenario.

Question 46

The nurse palpates the abdomen of Mariah. Now at 5 month gestation, what level of the abdomen does the fundus begin to be palpated?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: D. Umbilicus By about 20 weeks’ gestation (approximately 5 months), the uterine fundus typically reaches the level of the umbilicus, making it palpable there on abdominal exam. Earlier in pregnancy (around 12 weeks) it is at the symphysis pubis, and around 16 weeks it is midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. A fundal height above the umbilicus is more consistent with gestations beyond ~20 weeks.
Category reason: This question tests expected anatomic/physiologic changes of pregnancy (uterine growth and fundal height landmarks), which is foundational reproductive system knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 47

Most definitive method of sterilization:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: D. Tubectomy Sterilization refers to a permanent method of contraception achieved by surgically interrupting the reproductive tract. Tubal ligation (tubectomy) provides long-term, irreversible prevention of pregnancy by blocking the fallopian tubes and preventing fertilization. Copper T and IUDs are long-acting but reversible contraceptives, and oral contraceptives are temporary and user-dependent, so none are definitive sterilization methods.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of contraceptive methods and which one is permanent (sterilization), which is a foundational concept in the Reproductive System subject area rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 48

Maureen in her third trimester arrives at the emergency room with painless vaginal bleeding. Which of the following conditions is suspected?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is classic for placental tissue over or near the cervical os, which bleeds as the lower uterine segment thins and the cervix begins to efface. In contrast, abruptio placenta typically causes painful bleeding with uterine tenderness and hypertonicity due to premature placental separation. Premature labor is characterized by contractions and cervical change rather than isolated painless bleeding, and STIs may cause spotting but are not the typical cause of third-trimester painless hemorrhage.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of an obstetric bleeding pattern and the underlying pregnancy-related condition, which is foundational reproductive pathophysiology rather than a nursing management decision.

Question 49

Which of the following is not a barrier method of contraception?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Barrier methods prevent sperm from reaching the ovum by physically blocking the cervix or vaginal canal. Condoms, diaphragms, and cervical caps are classic barrier devices. An IUD is an intrauterine device that primarily works by creating a local uterine environment that impairs fertilization and/or implantation, so it is not classified as a barrier method.
Category reason: This question tests classification of contraceptive methods (barrier vs intrauterine), which is foundational reproductive health knowledge rather than a nursing-care decision.

Question 50

Most reliable method of birth control is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It has the lowest typical-use failure rate among the listed options because it does not depend on user adherence or correct use at each sexual encounter. Condoms and oral contraceptives have higher real-world failure rates due to inconsistent or incorrect use. IUDs are highly effective but still have a small ongoing risk of expulsion or method failure, making permanent sterilization the most reliable overall.
Category reason: This tests comparative effectiveness of contraceptive methods, a core topic in human reproduction and family planning rather than nursing care prioritization or safety interventions.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Reproductive System NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning