Question 1

What is the maternal surface of placenta called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The maternal surface of the placenta is divided into multiple lobules called cotyledons, giving it a rough, lobulated appearance. This surface is also referred to as the basal plate, which interfaces with the decidua basalis of the uterus. By contrast, the fetal surface is smooth/shiny because it is covered by amnion. Therefore, “cotyledonary” best names the characteristic maternal surface.

Question 2

Painful menstruation ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dysmenorrhea is the medical term for painful menstruation (menstrual cramps). Amenorrhoea refers to absence of menstruation, not pain. Dyspareunia is pain during sexual intercourse, and hypermenorrhoea refers to excessive menstrual bleeding rather than pain. Therefore, dysmenorrhea best matches the stem.

Question 3

Which of the following part of sperm that contain chromosome?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The chromosomes (haploid DNA) are contained within the nucleus, which is located in the head of the sperm. The head also includes the acrosome that helps penetrate the ovum, but the genetic material is in the nuclear region. The midpiece primarily contains mitochondria for energy production, and the tail provides motility; neither contains the chromosomes.

Question 4

Monochorionic twins are at risk of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Monochorionic twins share a single placenta, which commonly contains vascular anastomoses between the two fetal circulations. These placental connections can cause unbalanced blood flow from one twin (donor) to the other (recipient), leading to twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome. The other options are not specifically linked to monochorionic placentation in the same characteristic way.

Question 5

Pre-ejaculate fluid is secreted from?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pre-ejaculate (pre-seminal) fluid is produced primarily by the bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands. This secretion lubricates the urethra and helps neutralize residual acidity in the urethral tract before ejaculation to facilitate sperm passage. The prostate and seminal vesicles contribute most of the ejaculate (semen) volume, while the epididymis is mainly for sperm maturation and storage rather than pre-ejaculate secretion.

Question 6

Normally, embryo implanted in ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Normal implantation occurs in the endometrium of the uterus, most commonly in the upper uterine segment near the fundus (typically the posterior superior wall). Implantation in the fallopian tube is ectopic and associated with high risk of rupture and hemorrhage. Cervical implantation is abnormal and can cause severe bleeding. Ovarian implantation is also ectopic and uncommon.

Question 7

Normal position of placenta in uterus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The placenta normally implants in the upper uterine segment, most commonly on the posterior or anterior wall near the fundus. Implantation near or over the cervix/cervical canal is abnormal and is termed placenta previa, which increases risk of painless antepartum bleeding. The fallopian tube is a site of ectopic pregnancy, not normal placental implantation. Therefore, the best answer is the fundus.

Question 8

_____ is a lytic enzyme released by the sperm?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hyaluronidase is released from the sperm acrosome during the acrosome reaction and helps disperse the cumulus cells by breaking down hyaluronic acid in the extracellular matrix. This enzymatic action facilitates sperm penetration through the layers surrounding the oocyte. Trypsin is a pancreatic protease (though acrosin is a trypsin-like enzyme, it is not listed as such here), and helicase is involved in DNA replication rather than fertilization. Therefore, hyaluronidase is the best answer among the options provided.

Question 9

Which defect is more common in boys than girls?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypospadias and epispadias are congenital anomalies of the male urethral meatus (ventral and dorsal opening, respectively) and therefore predominantly occur in boys. Cryptorchidism is failure of testicular descent and is, by definition, a male condition, making it more common in boys than girls. Since each listed defect is primarily a male genital/urinary congenital anomaly, the best answer is that all of the above are more common in boys.

Question 10

The most common cause of maternal death in India is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hemorrhage is the leading direct cause of maternal mortality worldwide and is most commonly due to postpartum hemorrhage from uterine atony, trauma, or retained products. It can cause rapid hypovolemic shock and death if not promptly recognized and treated. Compared with infection, obstructed labor, and eclampsia, hemorrhage remains the most frequent immediate cause around the time of delivery.

Question 11

Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rh incompatibility refers to maternal–fetal mismatch where an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. Fetal Rh(D) antigen exposure (often at delivery, miscarriage, or procedures) can sensitize the mother to produce anti-D IgG antibodies. In a subsequent Rh-positive pregnancy, these antibodies can cross the placenta and hemolyze fetal RBCs, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Options involving ABO groups describe ABO incompatibility, not Rh incompatibility.

Question 12

Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is.........................?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Osiander's sign refers to increased pulsations felt through the lateral vaginal fornices due to increased uterine blood flow in early pregnancy. The other options describe different presumptive signs: bluish coloration of the vagina is Chadwick's sign, and softening of the cervix is Goodell's sign. Therefore, the correct match for Osiander's sign is pulsations felt in the lateral vaginal fornix.

Question 13

Corpus luteum is a mass of cells found in ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The corpus luteum forms in the ovary from the ruptured Graafian follicle after ovulation. It is a temporary endocrine structure that secretes progesterone (and some estrogen) to prepare and maintain the endometrium for possible implantation. If pregnancy does not occur, it regresses into the corpus albicans.

Question 14

Corpus luteum is a mass of cells found in...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epispadias is a congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is located on the dorsal (upper) surface of the penis. This contrasts with hypospadias, where the meatus opens on the ventral surface and may be near the scrotum or perineum in severe cases. Therefore, the best answer is the dorsal surface.

Question 15

Epispadias is characterized by opening of urethral meatus on the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony, in which the uterus fails to contract effectively after delivery. Without adequate uterine contraction, the uterine vessels at the placental implantation site remain open, leading to heavy bleeding. Cervical/vaginal lacerations, retained placenta, and uterine rupture are important causes but occur less frequently than atony overall.

Question 16

The first menstruation in a female is called as-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Menarche is the medical term for a female’s first menstrual period, marking the onset of menstruation and reproductive maturation. Amenorrhea refers to absence of menstruation, not its beginning. Menopause is the permanent cessation of menstruation, typically later in life. Dysmenorrhea means painful menstruation, which can occur at any time after menarche.

Question 17

Composition of amniotic fluid includes all EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Normal amniotic fluid contains water with dissolved electrolytes, small amounts of proteins, and fetal cells shed from fetal skin and other tissues (the basis for amniocentesis testing). Maternal red blood cells and their hemoglobin are not a normal component of amniotic fluid. The presence of blood would suggest contamination during sampling or pathology such as bleeding/placental issues rather than normal composition.

Question 18

The second stage of labour ends with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The second stage of labor begins with full cervical dilation (10 cm) and ends with the birth of the baby. The third stage is the delivery (expulsion) of the placenta. The onset of regular uterine contractions marks the beginning of the first stage of labor, not the end of the second stage.

Question 19

The second stage of labour ends with:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The majority of first-trimester spontaneous abortions are due to fetal chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., autosomal trisomies, monosomy X), reflecting nonviable embryonic development. Maternal conditions such as hypertension or diabetes can increase risk, but they are not the most common overall cause. Trauma is an uncommon cause of miscarriage compared with genetic causes, especially early in pregnancy. Therefore, chromosomal abnormalities is the best answer.

Question 20

The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A woman is most fertile around ovulation, which in a typical 28-day cycle occurs near day 14. Because sperm can survive in the female reproductive tract for up to about 5 days and the ovum is viable for about 24 hours, the fertile window spans several days before and shortly after ovulation. Therefore, days 9–16 best capture the peak fertility period compared with the other ranges listed.

Question 21

At which point in the menstrual cycle is a woman most fertile?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first 24 hours after birth are termed the immediate postnatal (postpartum) period, a time of rapid maternal physiologic adjustment and highest risk for early postpartum complications such as hemorrhage. “Early” and “late” postnatal periods generally refer to broader time spans beyond the first day (days to weeks), not strictly the initial 24 hours. “Transitional period” is more commonly used for the newborn’s adaptation immediately after birth rather than labeling the mother’s 24-hour postpartum timeframe.

Question 22

The first 24 hours after delivery is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Many fish species exhibit sequential hermaphroditism, where an individual can change functional sex during its lifetime (e.g., protandry or protogyny), often in response to social or environmental cues. This demonstrates that in these species, phenotypic sex is not fixed solely by genetic sex determination. While some snails are hermaphroditic, the classic concept of changing from one sex to the other is best exemplified by fish among the listed options. Therefore, fish is the single best answer.

Question 23

Which of the following can change sex, indicating that sex is not genetically determined?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The endometrium (especially the functional layer) undergoes cyclical proliferation, secretory transformation, and shedding in response to fluctuating estrogen and progesterone during the menstrual cycle. The myometrium primarily provides contractile function and does not exhibit the characteristic cyclical growth-and-shed pattern. The perimetrium is the outer serosal covering and is not hormonally cycled like the endometrium. Therefore, the layer with cyclical menstrual changes is the endometrium.

Question 24

Function of amniotic fluid includes all EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amniotic fluid primarily cushions and protects the fetus, permits fetal movement for musculoskeletal development, and helps normal lung development through fetal breathing/swallowing cycles. It also helps maintain a stable temperature and prevents compression of the umbilical cord. Nutrition to the fetus is supplied mainly via the placenta and umbilical cord (maternal-fetal exchange), not by amniotic fluid, making this the exception.

Question 25

Function of amniotic fluid includes all EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The normal duration of human pregnancy is about 280 days (40 weeks) when dated from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), which is the standard obstetric convention. This corresponds to roughly 266 days from conception, but clinical dating typically uses LMP. Therefore, among the options provided, 280 days is the correct normal duration.

Question 26

The Normal duration of Pregnancy is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital defect with exposed bladder mucosa and high risk of infection, fluid loss, and trauma. Standard management is early surgical closure in the neonatal period (often within the first 48–72 hours when feasible) to protect tissues and optimize later continence and renal outcomes. Delaying to later childhood or adulthood increases complication risks and makes reconstruction more difficult.

Question 27

The surgical repair of bladder exstrophy is done?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Population studies of intravaginal ejaculation latency time (IELT) show a median around 5 minutes, with most couples falling within a few minutes of that value. Therefore, an approximate “average” duration is best represented by the 3–7 minute range. The other choices are either much shorter than typical median values (1–2 minutes) or substantially longer than the usual central tendency (15–20 or 30–40 minutes).

Question 28

The average duration of sexual intercourse in humans is approximately?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first milk produced and secreted by the breasts after childbirth is called colostrum. It is typically thick and yellowish and is rich in immunoglobulins (especially IgA), leukocytes, and other immune factors that provide early protection to the newborn. Colostrum also has a laxative effect that helps the infant pass meconium and may reduce the risk of neonatal jaundice.

Question 29

First milk ejected from breast after the birth of the baby is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Human gestation from fertilization (conception) to birth is approximately 38 weeks (about 266 days). The commonly cited 40 weeks refers to gestational age measured from the last menstrual period, which is about 2 weeks before fertilization. Among the options, 36 weeks is the closest approximation to the true fertilization-to-birth interval. Therefore, 36 weeks is the best answer provided.

Question 30

The time from fertilization to birth in humans is about?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An unusually long umbilical cord increases fetal mobility and slack, which raises the chance of cord loops and true knots, leading to cord entanglement. Greater mobility and malpresentation are more likely, so breech presentation is associated. Long cords are also more commonly seen in multiple gestations, where increased intrauterine movement and space dynamics predispose to longer cord length and entanglement risks. Therefore, all listed associations are commonly linked with a long umbilical cord.
ion.

Question 31

A long umbilical cord is commonly associated with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An unusually long umbilical cord increases fetal mobility and slack, which raises the chance of cord loops and true knots, leading to cord entanglement. Greater mobility and malpresentation are more likely, so breech presentation is associated. Long cords are also more commonly seen in multiple gestations, where increased intrauterine movement and space dynamics predispose to longer cord length and entanglement risks. Therefore, all listed associations are commonly linked with a long umbilical cord.

Question 32

Diabetes in pregnancy increases the risk of all EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diabetes in pregnancy is classically associated with polyhydramnios (often related to fetal polyuria from hyperglycemia) and fetal macrosomia due to increased fetal insulin acting as a growth factor. Pregestational diabetes (especially if poorly controlled early) increases the risk of congenital anomalies. Oligohydramnios is not a typical increased risk finding in diabetic pregnancies; it is more commonly linked to uteroplacental insufficiency, ruptured membranes, or fetal renal anomalies.

Question 33

The mechanism of placenta separation is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Placental separation commonly occurs by either the Schultze mechanism (central separation with a retroplacental clot; fetal surface presents first) or the Duncan mechanism (marginal separation; maternal surface presents first with more visible bleeding). These are the recognized named mechanisms describing how the placenta detaches and is expelled in the third stage of labor. The other pairs listed refer to different obstetric concepts (e.g., Bandl’s ring, labor curves, pelvic measurements) rather than placental separation mechanisms.

Question 34

L/S ratio in amniotic fluid is used to assess?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio in amniotic fluid reflects fetal pulmonary surfactant production and is used to assess fetal lung maturity. As gestation advances, lecithin rises relative to sphingomyelin; an L/S ratio around ≥2 is classically associated with decreased risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Therefore, it is a test of fetal maturity rather than kidney development, maternal nutrition, or umbilical cord abnormalities.

Question 35

In which of the following contraceptive method side effects are almost nil?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Coitus interruptus (withdrawal) involves no drugs or devices, so systemic or device-related side effects are essentially absent. By contrast, oral pills can cause hormonal adverse effects, IUDs can cause cramping/bleeding and carry risks such as expulsion or infection, and diaphragms/spermicides can cause local irritation or increase UTI risk. Therefore, among the listed options, withdrawal has side effects that are almost nil, despite being less effective for pregnancy prevention.

Question 36

The most common congenital genitourinary defect in males is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypospadias is the most common congenital anomaly of the male external genitalia, characterized by a ventral displacement of the urethral meatus. Epispadias and bladder exstrophy are much rarer congenital defects. Cryptorchidism is common, but as a congenital genitourinary defect in this option set, hypospadias is classically cited as the most common.

Question 37

Smallest cell in male is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The spermatozoon is considered the smallest cell in the human body and is the male gamete. It is highly specialized for motility and delivering paternal genetic material, with minimal cytoplasm. In contrast, the ovum is the largest human cell, and neurons are typically among the largest by length and cell body size.

Question 38

Low-lying placenta is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A low-lying placenta that implants in the lower uterine segment, potentially covering the cervical os, is termed placenta previa. Placenta accreta refers to abnormal adherence/invasion of the placenta into the uterine wall, not location near the os. Placental abruption (abruptio placentae) is premature separation of a normally implanted placenta. Retained placenta is failure of placental expulsion after delivery.

Question 39

Mullerian agenesis leads to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mullerian agenesis (MRKH syndrome) is failure of development of the paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts, which normally form the uterus, cervix, and upper portion of the vagina. Therefore, affected individuals typically have an absent uterus and absent/shortened upper vagina. The ovaries are usually normal because they arise from the gonadal ridge, not the Müllerian ducts, so ovarian absence is not expected.

Question 40

The average thickness of Wharton’s jelly is important for preventing?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Wharton’s jelly is the gelatinous connective tissue surrounding the umbilical cord vessels and provides cushioning and structural support. Adequate thickness helps resist external pressure, kinking, and torsion, thereby preventing umbilical vessel occlusion. Reduced Wharton’s jelly increases the risk of umbilical cord compression, which can secondarily lead to fetal hypoxia, but the direct protective role is against compression.

Question 41

Which is known as Birth canal?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The birth canal refers to the passage through which the fetus is delivered during vaginal birth, primarily the vagina (with the cervix dilating to allow passage). The cervix is part of the canal during labor but is not typically termed the birth canal itself. The fallopian tubes are for ovum transport and fertilization, and the uterus is the site of fetal development rather than the delivery passage. Therefore, the best answer is the vagina.

Question 42

Placenta closely attached to the embryo by a Tube called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The placenta is connected to the fetus by the umbilical cord, which contains two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein embedded in Wharton’s jelly. This structure provides the conduit for oxygen, nutrients, and waste exchange between maternal and fetal circulations (without direct blood mixing). The neural tube and spinal cord are embryonic nervous system structures, and the fallopian tube connects the ovary to the uterus and is not the fetal-placental attachment.

Question 43

How long after sex can sperm live inside a woman's body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the female reproductive tract, sperm typically remain viable for up to about 3 days, and in optimal cervical mucus around ovulation they can survive as long as 5 days. Among the provided choices, 3 days is the best approximate answer and aligns with standard fertility/physiology teaching. Twelve hours is too short for typical viability in fertile cervical mucus, and 30 days is not physiologically plausible.

Question 44

Which investigation is useful in predicting risk of preterm labour?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fetal fibronectin (fFN) in cervicovaginal secretions is a validated biomarker used to assess risk of spontaneous preterm birth, particularly in symptomatic women between about 22–34 weeks. A negative fFN has a high negative predictive value, making imminent preterm delivery unlikely and helping guide management. Blood sugar and blood group tests do not predict preterm labor risk, and CT scan is not used for this purpose (and involves unnecessary radiation exposure in pregnancy).

Question 45

Concealed hemorrhage is seen in which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Concealed hemorrhage classically occurs with abruptio placentae because blood can collect behind the placenta (retroplacental hemorrhage) without exiting through the cervix. This is contrasted with placenta previa, which typically presents with painless, bright red visible vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture causes acute intraperitoneal bleeding and fetal distress but is not the classic scenario described as “concealed hemorrhage” in obstetrics MCQs. Cervical polyp causes minor contact bleeding and is not associated with significant concealed blood loss.

Question 46

Folic acid is usually prescribed for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Folic acid supplementation is routinely prescribed in pregnancy, ideally starting before conception and continuing through early gestation, to reduce the risk of neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly). Pregnancy increases folate requirements due to rapid fetal growth and expanded maternal erythropoiesis. While folate can be used for folate-deficiency anemia in any age group, the most common routine indication is for pregnant individuals, making this the best answer.

Question 47

The dangerous complication of severe PPH is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Severe postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) can trigger consumptive coagulopathy due to massive bleeding, tissue factor release, and hypoperfusion, leading to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, widespread microthrombi formation consumes platelets and clotting factors, worsening bleeding and causing multiorgan dysfunction. This makes DIC a particularly dangerous complication of severe PPH compared with unrelated conditions like hypertension, diabetes, or pneumonia.

Question 48

Reproductive cells are called ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reproductive cells are called gametes; in males these are sperm and in females these are ova (eggs). An embryo is a developmental stage after fertilization and is not a reproductive cell. Among the provided options, sperm best represents reproductive cells (gametes), whereas embryos do not. Although eggs are also reproductive cells, the question appears to expect a single term and the most commonly cited is sperm in basic MCQs.

Question 49

Average lifespan of sperm cells in female body is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the female reproductive tract, sperm typically survive about 3–5 days, with viability longest in fertile cervical mucus around ovulation. Therefore, the best single option for the average/commonly taught lifespan is 5 days. Shorter durations (e.g., 2 days) may occur with unfavorable vaginal/cervical conditions, while 6–7 days is less typical and not considered the standard average.

Question 50

External fertilisation occurs in ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: External fertilization typically occurs when eggs and sperm are released into the environment, most commonly in aquatic settings where gametes can meet outside the body. Many bony fishes (teleosts) reproduce via spawning with fertilization occurring in water. In contrast, mammals, birds, and most reptiles have internal fertilization, which better supports terrestrial reproduction and protects gametes from desiccation.

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