Reproductive System Practice Test 11
Reproductive System NCLEX Practice Test
Reproductive System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Reproductive System. This section covers anatomy, physiology, and nursing management of reproductive health conditions. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 11th part of the Reproductive System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
Continue Learning
In the Reproductive System Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Reproductive System Practice Test 11
Withdrawal method is also known as _____?
- Coitus interruptus
- Safe period
- IUCD
- Tubectomy
Explanation: Answer reason: The withdrawal method involves removing the penis from the vagina prior to ejaculation to prevent sperm deposition and is termed coitus interruptus. The 'safe period' refers to the rhythm method based on fertility awareness, not withdrawal. IUCD is a device-based contraceptive, and tubectomy is permanent female sterilization. Therefore, the correct term for the withdrawal method is coitus interruptus.
The earliest sign of pre-eclampsia is?
- Hypertension
- Proteinuria
- Edema
- Headache
Explanation: Answer reason: Preeclampsia is defined by new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks’ gestation with proteinuria or signs of end-organ dysfunction. Elevated blood pressure is typically the earliest objective sign detected on prenatal visits. Proteinuria and edema develop later as renal and endothelial involvement progresses. Headache is a severe feature that occurs with more advanced disease.
Placenta accreta means placenta is abnormally adherent to the myometrium?
- Yes
- No
Explanation: Answer reason: Placenta accreta refers to abnormal adherence of the placenta to the uterine wall due to absence or deficiency of the decidua basalis, causing chorionic villi to attach directly to the myometrium. In accreta, villi adhere but do not deeply invade muscle (increta) or penetrate through it (percreta). Thus, describing it as abnormally adherent to the myometrium is correct.
The male sexual response cycle includes all except?
- Excitement
- Plateau
- Orgasm
- Menstruation
Explanation: Answer reason: The male sexual response cycle, as described by Masters and Johnson, consists of excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. Menstruation is a component of the female menstrual cycle, not a phase of the male sexual response. Therefore, menstruation is the exception among the listed options.
The average blood loss during normal vaginal delivery is?
- 100 ml
- 200 ml
- 500 ml
- 1000 ml
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal estimated blood loss for a vaginal delivery is approximately 500 mL. Postpartum hemorrhage after vaginal birth is defined as blood loss greater than 500 mL. About 1000 mL is more typical of cesarean delivery, and 100–200 mL is below the expected average for a vaginal birth.
Succenturiate lobe is an accessory lobe of placenta?
- Yes
- No
Explanation: Answer reason: A succenturiate lobe is a small accessory placental lobe separated from the main placenta. It is connected to the main disk by membranes containing fetal vessels. This variant increases the risk of retained placental tissue and postpartum hemorrhage, and if vessels traverse the cervix, vasa previa can occur.
Ambiguous genitalia in newborn is also called?
- Intersex condition
- Epispadias
- Hernia
- Hydrocele
Explanation: Answer reason: Ambiguous genitalia refers to external genitalia that do not appear clearly male or female at birth, classically termed an intersex condition or disorder of sex development (DSD). Epispadias is a congenital malposition of the urethral opening and does not imply ambiguous sex differentiation. Hernia and hydrocele are scrotal or inguinal conditions unrelated to sexual differentiation. Therefore, the correct term is intersex condition.
Commonest complication of PPH is?
- Anemia
- Diabetes
- Hypertension
- Epilepsy
Explanation: Answer reason: Postpartum hemorrhage results in significant acute blood loss, and the most frequent sequela is anemia due to depletion of red cell mass and iron stores. Clinically this leads to fatigue, pallor, and reduced exercise tolerance in the puerperium. Diabetes and epilepsy are unrelated to hemorrhage, and hypertension is not a typical direct complication of PPH. Therefore, anemia is the commonest complication.
Fertilization occurs in ?
- Uterus
- Fallopian tube
- Pelvis
- Vagina
Explanation: Answer reason: In humans, fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube, where the ovulated oocyte meets capacitated sperm. The resulting zygote then undergoes cleavage as it travels to the uterus for implantation. Fertilization does not occur in the vagina or pelvis, and implantation—not fertilization—occurs in the uterus.
The period of pregnancy is called?
- Gestation
- Ovulation
- Lactation
- Fertilization
Explanation: Answer reason: Gestation is the term for the duration of pregnancy from conception to birth. Ovulation refers to the release of an ovum from the ovary, which precedes pregnancy. Lactation is milk production after delivery. Fertilization is the union of sperm and egg, the event that initiates but is not the duration of pregnancy.
Vasectomy involves cutting of _____?
- Fallopian tube
- Vas deferens
- Urethra
- Penis
Explanation: Answer reason: A vasectomy is a male sterilization procedure in which each vas deferens is cut and sealed to prevent sperm from entering the ejaculate. This blocks sperm transport from the testes to the urethra while ejaculation and testosterone production remain unaffected. The fallopian tube is a female structure, the urethra is not cut in vasectomy, and the penis is not surgically divided.
When is a woman's cervix fully dilated?
- 2cm
- 4cm
- 8cm
- 10cm
Explanation: Answer reason: Full cervical dilation in labor is 10 cm, which allows the fetal head to pass through the cervix. Dilation from 0–10 cm marks the progress of the first stage of labor, with 8–10 cm representing the transition phase but not yet fully dilated. Values such as 2 cm and 4 cm are early labor, and 8 cm is near-complete but not complete. Therefore, full dilation is 10 cm.
What is the most common site for Ectopic pregnancy?
- Fallopian tube
- Ovary
- Cervix
- Uterus
Explanation: Answer reason: The fallopian tube is the most common implantation site for ectopic pregnancy, accounting for the large majority of cases. Tubal implantation most often occurs in the ampullary portion where fertilization typically happens, and impaired tubal transport (e.g., scarring or dysfunction) predisposes to implantation before reaching the uterus. Ovarian and cervical ectopic pregnancies occur much less frequently, and a uterine implantation is not considered ectopic.
At how many weeks of gestation, uterus reaches the level of umbilicus?
- 32 weeks
- 20 weeks
- 22 weeks
- 12 weeks
Explanation: Answer reason: Fundal height landmarks are used to estimate gestational age: around 12 weeks the uterus is just above the symphysis pubis, and by about 20 weeks the uterine fundus typically reaches the level of the umbilicus. After 20 weeks, fundal height in centimeters roughly correlates with gestational weeks (±2 cm). Therefore, 20 weeks is the best answer among the options provided.
A doctor treating a woman during her pregnancy period is known as ---?
- Cardiologist
- Pediatrician
- Obstetrician
- Onchologist
Explanation: Answer reason: An obstetrician is a physician who specializes in the care of pregnant people, including prenatal care, management of labor and delivery, and postpartum care. A cardiologist focuses on heart disease, and a pediatrician treats infants and children rather than managing pregnancy. An oncologist treats cancer and is not the primary specialist for routine pregnancy care.
Normal Age range for Menarche?
- 8-13 years
- 10-16 years
- 12-15 years
- 14-17 years
Explanation: Answer reason: Menarche (first menstruation) most commonly occurs around age 12–13, but the normal physiologic range is broader, typically about 10–16 years. Ages earlier than 10 or later than 16 raise concern for precocious or delayed puberty and warrant evaluation based on clinical context. Among the choices, 10–16 years best captures the accepted normal range.
In which organ Sertoli cells are found?
- Ovary
- Kidney
- Liver
- Testis
Explanation: Answer reason: Sertoli cells are supporting ("nurse") cells located within the seminiferous tubules of the testes, where they aid spermatogenesis. They provide structural and nutritional support to developing germ cells and form the blood-testis barrier via tight junctions. Sertoli cells also secrete inhibin and androgen-binding protein in response to FSH and testosterone, respectively, reinforcing their testicular location.
Caput succedaneum is?
- Intracranial hemorrhage
- Scalp edema crossing sutures
- Cephalhematoma
- Skull fracture
Explanation: Answer reason: Caput succedaneum is a diffuse, pitting edema of the newborn scalp caused by pressure during labor (often over the presenting part). Because it is superficial (above the periosteum), it is not limited by cranial suture lines and therefore crosses sutures and midline. This contrasts with cephalhematoma, which is a subperiosteal bleed that does not cross suture lines. It is generally benign and resolves spontaneously over days.
The usual insertion of the umbilical cord on the placenta is?
- Marginal
- Central
- Velamentous
- Eccentric
Explanation: Answer reason: The most common (usual) placental cord insertion is slightly off-center, termed eccentric insertion. Central insertion can occur but is less common than eccentric. Marginal (battledore) and velamentous insertions are abnormal variants associated with higher risk of complications such as vessel compression or vasa previa (velamentous). Therefore, eccentric is the best answer.
The full form of NFP is _______?
- National Family Planning
- Natural Family Planning
- National Fertility Program
- New Family Plan
Explanation: Answer reason: NFP most commonly stands for Natural Family Planning, a group of fertility awareness-based methods used to avoid or achieve pregnancy by identifying the fertile window. It relies on observing physiologic signs such as cervical mucus changes, basal body temperature shifts, and/or cycle tracking. The other options are not standard, widely accepted expansions of the acronym in reproductive health education.
The fertilization of ovum in Female take place in the ?
- Vagina
- Oviduct
- Uterus
- Cervix
Explanation: Answer reason: In humans, fertilization most commonly occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube (oviduct), where the ovulated oocyte meets sperm. The uterus is primarily the site of implantation and fetal development after fertilization. The vagina and cervix function mainly as passageways for sperm entry and are not the typical sites of fertilization.
The major risk of untreated cryptorchidism is?
- Infertility
- Heart defect
- Liver cirrhosis
- Diabetes
Explanation: Answer reason: Cryptorchidism (undescended testis) exposes the testicular tissue to higher-than-scrotal temperatures, which damages germ cells and impairs spermatogenesis, increasing the risk of infertility if untreated. It also increases the risk of testicular malignancy and torsion, but among the listed options infertility is the key major long-term complication. The other options (heart defect, liver cirrhosis, diabetes) are not typical direct risks of cryptorchidism.
The average blood loss in normal delivery?
- 250 ml
- 500 ml
- 750 ml
- 1000 ml
Explanation: Answer reason: In an uncomplicated vaginal (normal) delivery, average estimated blood loss is about 500 mL. This value is also used as the threshold for defining postpartum hemorrhage after vaginal birth (>500 mL). Lower amounts like 250 mL are more typical of minimal bleeding, whereas 1000 mL aligns more with cesarean delivery thresholds or significant hemorrhage. Therefore, 500 mL is the best answer.
A short umbilical cord is associated with?
- Preterm labor
- Placental abruption
- Cord prolapse
- Post-term pregnancy
Explanation: Answer reason: A short umbilical cord can limit fetal movement and create excessive traction on the placenta during labor and delivery. This traction increases the risk of premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, i.e., placental abruption. Cord prolapse is more classically associated with a long cord and malpresentation rather than a short cord. Preterm labor and post-term pregnancy are not the typical direct associations of a short cord.
Vernix caseosa is secreted by?
- Amniotic fluid
- Sebaceous glands of fetus
- Sweat glands of fetus
- Placenta
Explanation: Answer reason: Vernix caseosa is a white, greasy protective coating on the fetal skin that is produced primarily by fetal sebaceous gland secretions mixed with desquamated epithelial cells. It helps protect fetal skin from maceration in amniotic fluid and provides a barrier against irritants and microbes. Amniotic fluid may contain vernix, but it is not the source. Sweat glands and the placenta are not responsible for producing vernix caseosa.
True conjugate can be measured by?
- X-ray
- MRI
- Clinically per vaginum
- Direct measurement is not possible
Explanation: Answer reason: The true (anatomical/obstetric) conjugate is the anteroposterior diameter from the sacral promontory to the upper border of the symphysis pubis and cannot be directly reached and measured on vaginal examination. Clinically, the diagonal conjugate is measured per vaginum and the obstetric conjugate is estimated from it by subtraction. Imaging may allow pelvic measurements, but the standard teaching is that direct measurement of the true conjugate is not possible, so the best answer is D.
Polyhydramnios is commonly associated with?
- Renal agenesis
- Anencephaly
- Intrauterine growth restriction
- Oliguria
Explanation: Answer reason: Polyhydramnios is most commonly linked to conditions that impair fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid or increase fluid production. Anencephaly is associated with absent/ineffective fetal swallowing, leading to accumulation of amniotic fluid and polyhydramnios. In contrast, renal agenesis and oliguria decrease fetal urine output and are classically associated with oligohydramnios. Intrauterine growth restriction is not a typical primary association with polyhydramnios.
Fertilization occurs in ?
- Uterus
- Fallopian tube
- Pelvis
- Vagina
Explanation: Answer reason: In humans, fertilization most commonly occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian (uterine) tube, where sperm meet the ovulated oocyte. The zygote then begins cleavage as it travels toward the uterus for implantation. The uterus is primarily the site of implantation and fetal development, not initial fertilization, and fertilization does not occur in the vagina or the pelvis as a general location.
IUCD insertion is best done during?
- Menstrual phase
- Ovulatory phase
- Secretory phase
- Postmenstrual phase
Explanation: Answer reason: IUCD insertion is commonly preferred during the menstrual phase because the cervix is slightly dilated and softer, making insertion easier and reducing the chance of cervical trauma. Menstruation also provides reassurance that the client is not pregnant at the time of insertion. In addition, the uterine cavity and cervical canal may be more accessible, which can reduce insertion difficulty and discomfort compared with other cycle phases.
Fertilization Occurs In?
- Uterus
- Fallopian Tube
- Pelvis
- Vagina
Explanation: Answer reason: In humans, fertilization most commonly occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube, where the ovulated oocyte meets capacitated sperm. After fertilization, the resulting zygote undergoes early cell divisions as it travels toward the uterus. Implantation occurs later in the uterine endometrium, not in the vagina or general pelvic cavity.
The safest period for induced abortion (MTP) is?
- Up to 6 weeks
- Up to 12 weeks
- Up to 20 weeks
- After 20 weeks
Explanation: Answer reason: Induced abortion is generally safest in the first trimester because the pregnancy is smaller and the cervix requires less dilation, leading to lower risks of hemorrhage, uterine perforation, and infection. As gestational age advances, both procedural complexity and complication rates increase. Therefore, the safest period among the options is up to 12 weeks.
Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?
- Fetal movement felt by mother.
- (+) pregnancy test.
- Enlargement of the uterus.
- Fetus visualized on ultrasound.
Explanation: Answer reason: Positive (diagnostic) signs of pregnancy are those that directly confirm the presence of a fetus, such as visualization of the fetus on ultrasound (or fetal heart tones by Doppler). Fetal movement felt by the mother (quickening) is a presumptive sign because it is subjective and can be mistaken for gas. A positive pregnancy test and uterine enlargement are probable signs because they suggest pregnancy but can occur with other conditions (e.g., hCG-producing tumors, fibroids). Therefore, ultrasound visualization is the single best answer.
The normal umbilical cord contains?
- 2 veins and 2 arteries
- 1 vein and 1 artery
- 1 vein and 2 arteries
- 2 veins and 1 artery
Explanation: Answer reason: A normal umbilical cord has three vessels: two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus, while the two arteries return deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta. A single umbilical artery is an abnormal finding and can be associated with congenital anomalies, which is why the normal configuration is emphasized.
The best time to insert Copper-T is _____?
- During menstruation
- Immediately after menstruation
- During ovulation
- After delivery
Explanation: Answer reason: Copper-T (a copper IUD) is commonly inserted during menstruation because the cervix is naturally slightly dilated, which facilitates easier insertion and reduces discomfort. Menstrual bleeding also increases confidence that the client is not pregnant at the time of insertion. Inserting during ovulation is avoided due to higher chance of an unrecognized early pregnancy and greater cervical mucus-related discomfort. “After delivery” can be appropriate in specific postpartum timing (e.g., post-placental or postpartum), but the question asks the single best general time, which is during menses.
Which of the following is a complication of septic abortion?
- Shock
- Sepsis
- Infertility
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Septic abortion is an infected abortion that can progress to systemic infection (sepsis) and hemodynamic collapse (septic shock) due to bacterial toxins and inflammatory response. Infection can ascend to cause endometritis/salpingitis and lead to tubal scarring or intrauterine adhesions, increasing risk of subsequent infertility. Because shock, sepsis, and infertility are all recognized complications, the best answer is "All of the above.
Absence of one umbilical artery is called?
- Short cord
- Single umbilical artery
- Cord prolapse
- Cord entanglement
Explanation: Answer reason: A normal umbilical cord contains two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. When one of the umbilical arteries is absent, the condition is termed a single umbilical artery (SUA). The other options describe different cord abnormalities (short cord length, cord prolapse, or cord entanglement) rather than absence of an artery. SUA is clinically relevant because it can be associated with fetal structural anomalies and growth restriction.
What is the full form of DUB?
- Direct Uterine Bleeding
- Direct Uterine Blood Vessels
- Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding
- Dysfunctional Uterine Blood Vessels
Explanation: Answer reason: DUB is the standard medical abbreviation for dysfunctional uterine bleeding, referring to abnormal uterine bleeding without an identifiable structural or systemic cause (historically often due to ovulatory dysfunction). The other options are not recognized expansions of the abbreviation in gynecology terminology. Therefore, "Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding" is the single best answer.
Painful menstruation is called?
- Dysmenorrhea
- Amenorrhea
- Menopause
- Ovulation
Explanation: Answer reason: Dysmenorrhea is the medical term for painful menstruation, typically due to uterine contractions mediated by prostaglandins. Amenorrhea refers to absence of menses, not pain. Menopause is permanent cessation of menstruation, and ovulation is the release of an egg; neither term specifically denotes painful periods.
Engagement of head means?
- Head is delivered
- Head has entered the pelvic brim
- Head is flexed
- Head is rotated
Explanation: Answer reason: Engagement refers to the fetal biparietal diameter passing through the maternal pelvic inlet (pelvic brim), meaning the presenting part has descended to the level of the ischial spines or lower. This indicates the head has entered the pelvic brim, not that it has already been delivered. Flexion and rotation are separate cardinal movements of labor and do not define engagement.
Formation of corpus luteum takes place under the influence of?
- LH
- Oestrogen
- FSH
- Progesterone
Explanation: Answer reason: After ovulation, the LH surge causes luteinization of the ruptured Graafian follicle, converting granulosa and theca cells into the corpus luteum. LH also supports early corpus luteum function and stimulates progesterone secretion. FSH primarily drives follicular growth, while estrogen and progesterone are ovarian hormones produced during the cycle rather than the main trigger for corpus luteum formation.
In vertex presentation, the ideal position is?
- Right occipito-posterior
- Left occipito-anterior
- Transverse
- Face presentation
Explanation: Answer reason: In a vertex (cephalic) presentation, the most favorable fetal position for vaginal birth is occipito-anterior, especially left occipito-anterior (LOA). LOA aligns the fetal head for optimal flexion and rotation through the maternal pelvis, typically resulting in easier descent and labor progress. Occipito-posterior and transverse positions are associated with more difficult rotation and prolonged labor, and face presentation is not a vertex presentation.
Inflammation Of Testes Is Known As?
- Cystitis
- Orechitis
- Otitis
- Oophoritis
Explanation: Answer reason: Inflammation of the testes is termed orchitis (commonly spelled “orchitis”; the option provided is a misspelling as “Orechitis”). Cystitis refers to inflammation of the urinary bladder, otitis refers to inflammation of the ear, and oophoritis refers to inflammation of the ovaries. Therefore, the best match for inflammation of testes is orchitis.
Surgical correction of hypospadias is usually done at age?
- At birth
- 6–18 months
- 5 years
- After puberty
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypospadias repair is typically scheduled in infancy, most commonly between 6 and 18 months of age. This timing allows adequate penile growth and tissue size for reconstruction while minimizing psychological impact and facilitating normal development of voiding and later sexual function. Surgery is not done immediately at birth in routine cases, and delaying until after puberty is generally avoided due to higher complication rates and psychosocial considerations.
Where does fertilization occur in human females?
- Uterus
- Cervix
- Oviduct
- None of these
Explanation: Answer reason: In humans, fertilization most commonly occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube (oviduct), where the ovulated oocyte meets sperm. The uterus is primarily the site of implantation and fetal development after the fertilized embryo travels from the tube. The cervix functions mainly as the lower uterine opening and mucus barrier/transport pathway, not the typical site of fertilization.
The hormone responsible for ovulation is?
- Progesterone
- LH surge
- FSH
- Estrogen
Explanation: Answer reason: Ovulation is triggered by a mid-cycle surge of luteinizing hormone (LH), which induces rupture of the dominant ovarian follicle and release of the oocyte. FSH primarily supports follicular growth earlier in the follicular phase rather than directly causing ovulation. Estrogen rises pre-ovulation and helps create the positive feedback that precipitates the LH surge. Progesterone predominates after ovulation from the corpus luteum to prepare and maintain the endometrium.
Four T’s of PPH are?
- Tone, Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin
- Tone, Tenderness, Tear, Time
- Trauma, Tear, Tone, Test
- Tissue, Tone, Tear, Tumor
Explanation: Answer reason: The classic etiologies of postpartum hemorrhage are summarized as the “4 T’s”: uterine atony (Tone), genital tract laceration/uterine rupture (Trauma), retained products of conception (Tissue), and coagulation disorders (Thrombin). This mnemonic guides rapid assessment because these categories cover the most common and dangerous causes of PPH. The other options include nonstandard terms (e.g., tenderness, time, test, tumor) and omit key causes like coagulopathy or retained tissue.
The safest analgesia during labour is?
- General anesthesia
- Epidural analgesia
- Spinal anesthesia
- Heavy sedation
Explanation: Answer reason: Epidural analgesia is generally considered the safest and most effective method for pain relief during labor because it provides excellent analgesia with the mother remaining awake and able to participate in delivery. Compared with general anesthesia and heavy sedation, it causes far less maternal airway/aspiration risk and less neonatal respiratory depression. Spinal anesthesia produces a denser, faster block and is more commonly used for cesarean delivery rather than routine labor analgesia due to higher risk of sudden hypotension and limited duration.
Anti-partum haemorrhage is caused by the following EXCEPT;?
- Placenta previa
- Uterine trauma
- Placenta abruption
- Abnormal presentation
Explanation: Answer reason: Antepartum hemorrhage is classically caused by placenta previa, placental abruption, or trauma to the genital tract/uterus. Abnormal fetal presentation (e.g., breech, transverse lie) is associated with labor complications such as obstructed labor or cord prolapse rather than being a primary cause of bleeding before delivery. Therefore it is the exception among the listed options. The other options are established etiologies of bleeding in late pregnancy.
The surgical procedure done for cryptorchidism is called?
- Orchidopexy
- Nephrectomy
- Cystectomy
- Herniorrhaphy
Explanation: Answer reason: Cryptorchidism is an undescended testis, and the definitive surgical management is orchidopexy, which mobilizes and fixes the testis into the scrotum. This reduces future risks such as subfertility and testicular malignancy compared with leaving the testis undescended. The other options refer to removal of a kidney (nephrectomy), removal of the bladder (cystectomy), or repair of a hernia (herniorrhaphy), none of which directly treat cryptorchidism.
Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?
Run through a full 150-question exam just like the real thing. You’ll hit the 85-question checkpoint and get a clear report showing where you stand.
