Question 1

Substances poorly absorbed by activated charcoal includes all, EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It does not bind well to metals/inorganic ions (e.g., lead) and has poor adsorption for small ions like lithium. Cyanide poisoning is typically managed with specific antidotes rather than relying on charcoal because rapid systemic toxicity and limited adsorption make charcoal an unreliable primary therapy. Phenobarbital is a classic example of a toxin that is effectively adsorbed (and may even benefit from multidose charcoal due to enterohepatic/enterogastric cycling), making it the exception to the “poorly absorbed” list.

Question 2

Albendazole is used in the treatment of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism targets multicellular parasites (e.g., nematodes and some cestodes), not viruses or bacteria. Therefore, an infestation due to worms is the correct clinical indication. “All” is incorrect because albendazole has no therapeutic role in routine viral or bacterial infections.

Question 3

Ondansetron is a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This mechanism directly matches serotonin receptor antagonism rather than agonism. It is classically used for chemotherapy-, radiation-, and postoperative-induced nausea/vomiting where 5-HT3 signaling is prominent. A common distractor is confusing it with prokinetic agents (e.g., metoclopramide), which act mainly via dopamine antagonism and 5-HT4 agonism. Clinically, recognizing the 5-HT3 antagonism also cues important safety considerations such as QT prolongation risk in susceptible patients.

Question 4

Squalene epoxidase is inhibited by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This drug specifically blocks squalene epoxidase, an early step in ergosterol biosynthesis, leading to toxic squalene accumulation and impaired membrane formation. By contrast, azoles like fluconazole inhibit 14-α-demethylase (a CYP450 enzyme) later in the pathway, and amphotericin B binds existing ergosterol to form membrane pores rather than inhibiting synthesis. Griseofulvin works by disrupting fungal mitotic spindle function, not sterol production.

Question 5

Monoclonal antibody indicated for HIV infections?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication is a monoclonal antibody that binds CD4 receptors and prevents HIV from entering cells, and it is used (with other antiretrovirals) for heavily treatment-experienced adults with resistant HIV-1. Adalimumab is an anti-TNF agent used for inflammatory autoimmune diseases and carries infection risk rather than treating HIV. Omalizumab is an anti-IgE agent used for allergic asthma and chronic urticaria, not HIV.

Question 6

Which type of insulin can never be mixed with another?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mixing these with other insulins can alter pH/solubility, disrupt the intended time-action profile, and create unpredictable onset/peaks with risk for hypo- or hyperglycemia. Long-acting analogs (e.g., glargine, detemir, degludec) are administered separately for this reason. In contrast, regular insulin can be mixed with intermediate-acting NPH using correct technique (clear to cloudy). The safest testable rule is that long-acting insulins should not be mixed with other insulins.

Question 7

Chemical Use in Vaginal Sponge?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The vaginal sponge is impregnated with a spermicide to provide both a physical barrier and chemical sperm-killing action. Among the options, only one is a classic spermicide used with such products. The hormonal agents listed are used for systemic contraception, and the antiprogestin is used for medical abortion rather than local spermicidal contraception.

Question 8

If furosemide is not in the choices, which drug should you choose as an alternative that has the same mechanism of action?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the options, the only medication in the same class as furosemide is a loop diuretic, making it the best true substitute by mechanism. The other choices represent different diuretic classes or ADH antagonism (potassium-sparing aldosterone antagonist, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, thiazide-like diuretic, and vasopressin receptor antagonist), so they do not match the transport target. Clinically, selecting the same class also predicts similar effects and monitoring needs, such as risk of hypokalemia and volume depletion.

Question 9

In which medicine overdose the Vitamin K is administered as an antidote ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, so excess anticoagulant effect is treated with vitamin K (and, if bleeding is significant, PCC/FFP for rapid factor replacement). Heparin toxicity is instead reversed with protamine sulfate, not vitamin K. Diphenoxylate overdose is treated with naloxone due to its opioid component, and aminocaproic acid is an antifibrinolytic rather than a drug requiring vitamin K reversal.

Question 10

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity are the side effect of following anti-tubercular drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among first-line/older anti-tubercular agents listed, streptomycin is the aminoglycoside used for TB, so it best matches this toxicity pair. Rifampicin is more associated with hepatotoxicity and enzyme induction rather than classic ear toxicity. Ethambutol’s key toxicity is optic neuritis, and isoniazid is known for peripheral neuropathy and hepatitis.

Question 11

QT prolongation is more likely to occur with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among commonly used agents in this class, the effect is strongest with this drug, making it the most likely choice when QT prolongation is asked. The risk is clinically amplified in patients with baseline long QT, bradycardia, hypokalemia/hypomagnesemia, or concurrent QT-prolonging medications. Other fluoroquinolones in the list generally have a lower QT-prolonging potential compared with this one.

Question 12

First line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carbamazepine is the standard initial drug because it provides the best-established efficacy for reducing paroxysmal facial pain attacks. Phenytoin is also a sodium-channel blocker but is generally not preferred first because evidence and routine guideline positioning are weaker and adverse effects/monitoring issues can be limiting. Clozapine and phenobarbital are not indicated as primary therapy for this condition and do not specifically address the typical neuropathic firing mechanism.

Question 13

Hyperkalemia is associated with the use of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks epithelial sodium channels in the collecting duct, decreasing potassium secretion. Trimethoprim can act similarly to amiloride at ENaC, especially in higher doses or renal impairment, leading to potassium retention. Telmesartan (an ARB) lowers aldosterone levels and can therefore increase serum potassium, particularly in CKD or when combined with other potassium-raising agents.

Question 14

Adverse effect of atropine is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blocking M3 receptors in salivary glands reduces saliva production, commonly causing xerostomia. Salivation and lacrimation are cholinergic effects that atropine would reduce rather than produce. Atropine also causes mydriasis (not miosis) by inhibiting parasympathetic input to the eye.

Question 15

Vitamin K is used for the reversal of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Administering vitamin K (phytonadione) replenishes functional vitamin K and restores production of these clotting factors, reversing the anticoagulant effect over hours. In contrast, heparin is reversed with protamine sulfate, not vitamin K. Direct oral anticoagulants have specific reversal agents (e.g., idarucizumab for dabigatran; andexanet alfa for factor Xa inhibitors like rivaroxaban) rather than vitamin K.

Question 16

Your client has psoriasis. Her physician has suggested PUVA as an alternative therapy. In addition to ultraviolet A, PUVA includes the use of ______?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key drug component is a psoralen, which intercalates into DNA and, when activated by UVA, forms cross-links that reduce epidermal cell turnover and inflammation. The other options do not function as UVA photosensitizers: allopurinol treats gout, alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and systemic prednisone is generally avoided for psoriasis due to risk of rebound flare/pustular psoriasis when tapered. Therefore, the regimen’s defining adjunct to UVA is a psoralen compound.

Question 17

Anti Hypertensive drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., identify an ACE inhibitor vs ARB, adverse effects, contraindication, or drug of choice in a condition). Several listed medications are antihypertensives but belong to different classes, making multiple options potentially correct depending on the intended question. Without a defined stem and selection criterion, choosing one option would be arbitrary and not evidence-based. A valid MCQ would need a clear task (classification, mechanism, side effect, pregnancy safety, etc.) to determine a single best answer.

Question 18

Miconazole is example of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is commonly used topically for dermatophyte infections (tinea), cutaneous candidiasis, and vaginal yeast infections. Antibiotics primarily target bacteria and do not treat typical superficial fungal infections, which makes that option a common but incorrect distractor. Vitamins and antacids are unrelated to antimicrobial mechanisms and indications.

Question 19

Which anticoagulant drug acts by inhibiting thrombin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dabigatran is a direct thrombin (IIa) inhibitor, preventing conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and reducing clot formation. In contrast, apixaban and rivaroxaban inhibit factor Xa, which is upstream of thrombin generation. Warfarin decreases synthesis of vitamin K–dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X) rather than directly inhibiting thrombin activity.

Question 20

Loratidne is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therefore it is used for allergic rhinitis and other allergic conditions. It is not an antiulcer agent (e.g., PPIs/H2 blockers) and does not treat gout (urate-lowering or anti-inflammatory therapy). It also has no role in controlling bleeding, so haemorrhage is not an indication.

Question 21

What is the mechanism of Omeprazole?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase reduces both basal and stimulated acid output, making it effective for GERD and peptic ulcer disease. By contrast, neutralizing existing acid is the mechanism of antacids, which provide rapid but short-lived symptom relief without blocking secretion. Increasing mucus production is more consistent with cytoprotective agents (e.g., misoprostol) rather than PPIs.

Question 22

The amount of folic acid given in prophylactic therapy for iron deficiency according to MoHFW.......?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: MoHFW prophylaxis regimens commonly pair iron with a standard folic acid supplement consistent with routine prevention rather than treatment-level dosing. Higher doses such as 800–1000 μg are more consistent with specific high-risk indications or therapeutic replacement and increase the chance of masking vitamin B12 deficiency. Therefore the standard prophylactic amount aligns best with the lowest listed dose.

Question 23

Dose of BCG vaccine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 0.1 ml BCG is administered as an intradermal immunization with a small, standardized volume to reliably create a local wheal and generate an effective immune response. The commonly tested dose for BCG vaccine in routine immunization contexts is 0.1 mL given intradermally. Volumes like 0.5 mL or 1 mL are far too large for intradermal delivery and would increase local adverse reactions. A very tiny volume like 0.01 mL is below the usual dosing volume and risks inadequate antigen delivery.

Question 24

The most effective parenteral iron preparation in postpartum iron deficiency anaemia is...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option is an IV ferric complex that permits administration of large single doses with good efficacy, leading to faster hemoglobin and iron-store recovery than oral preparations. It has a lower risk of severe hypersensitivity reactions than older high-molecular-weight iron dextran formulations and does not require a test dose in typical use. By contrast, the ferrous options listed are oral preparations rather than true parenteral agents, making them inappropriate for the question’s intent. Overall, it best matches an effective and commonly used IV postpartum iron strategy.

Question 25

Volume of distribution is significantly higher with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among macrolides, this agent is known for very high tissue penetration and intracellular accumulation (e.g., in phagocytes and fibroblasts), producing tissue concentrations far exceeding serum levels. That pharmacokinetic behavior corresponds to a markedly larger apparent distribution volume compared with other macrolides. In contrast, alternatives like erythromycin have comparatively lower tissue accumulation and thus a smaller apparent distribution volume.

Question 26

Phenoxybenzamine is a/an ____ alpha blocker?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This irreversible blockade is clinically useful in catecholamine-secreting tumors (e.g., pheochromocytoma) to prevent severe hypertension from surges in catecholamines. Reversible alpha blockers (e.g., phentolamine, prazosin-class agents) dissociate from the receptor and therefore have a shorter, more titratable effect. Because phenoxybenzamine’s effect cannot be quickly reversed, orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia are important predictable adverse effects to anticipate.

Question 27

Which of the following food products may cause the most medication side effects from buspirone (BuSpar)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Grapefruit juice is a clinically important CYP3A4 inhibitor (especially in the gut), which can significantly increase systemic exposure to susceptible medications. This interaction is stronger and more predictable than typical interactions with foods like bacon or yogurt. Buspirone may be taken with or without food, but the key counseling point is to be consistent and to avoid grapefruit products due to increased side-effect risk.

Question 28

Drug used for Epilepsy is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benzodiazepines provide fast onset anticonvulsant effects and are first-line agents for aborting ongoing seizures and status epilepticus in emergency settings. The other options are not antiepileptic therapies: paracetamol and diclofenac are analgesic/antipyretic/NSAID agents, and amoxicillin is an antibiotic. Therefore the only option consistent with seizure treatment is the benzodiazepine.

Question 29

Atropine injection is used treat ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Therefore it is used as an acute treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, especially when excessive vagal tone or AV nodal block is contributing. Pleural effusion is a fluid problem managed with diuretics or drainage rather than anticholinergics. Hepatotoxicity is not treated with this medication; in toxicology, atropine is instead a key antidote for organophosphate/cholinergic poisoning due to muscarinic overactivity.

Question 30

Antibiotics are effective against?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because viruses replicate using host cell machinery and lack these bacterial targets, antibacterial drugs do not treat viral infections. The correct choice matches the intended definition of “antibiotics” in standard exam usage as antibacterial agents. Options implying activity against viruses or all microorganisms are overly broad and incorrect, and antifungals are a different drug class than antibiotics.

Question 31

A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking alprazolam for several days. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse drug reaction caused by alprazolam?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is an adverse reaction to alprazolam and is important to recognize because it may worsen behavioral symptoms and increase safety risk. Ringing in the ears is not a typical benzodiazepine adverse effect and suggests an alternate etiology (e.g., otologic or salicylate-related). Increased appetite and muscle spasms are not characteristic adverse reactions of alprazolam compared with more expected effects like drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination.

Question 32

Which of the following is a disadvantage of taking medication through an oral route?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oral absorption is generally slower and more variable due to gastric emptying, food interactions, and first-pass metabolism, so “absorbed too rapidly” is not a typical disadvantage. Cost is not inherently higher for oral dosing; in many settings oral formulations are less expensive than parenteral options. Because option (a) is not generally correct, the combined option is also incorrect.

Question 33

The nurse monitoring a patient for methylphenidate withdrawal should observe the patient for which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes generalized weakness and marked tiredness expected findings during methylphenidate withdrawal monitoring. In contrast, tremors and tachycardia are more consistent with stimulant intoxication or sympathetic overactivity rather than withdrawal. Sleep tends to increase rather than decrease in withdrawal, making insomnia less typical than hypersomnia or fatigue.

Question 34

The nurse is teaching a patient to self-administer medications. The nurse knows that which drug is used to treat narcolepsy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option is a first-line medication commonly used for daytime sleepiness in narcolepsy because it promotes alertness with generally lower abuse potential than classic amphetamines. Atomoxetine is primarily indicated for ADHD as a non-stimulant norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and is not a standard narcolepsy therapy. While some stimulants (e.g., methylphenidate/amphetamines) can be used in narcolepsy, this choice is the most directly associated and commonly tested agent for narcolepsy.

Question 35

A newborn patient is in respiratory distress. The nurse anticipates preparation for which medication to be given?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This medication increases central respiratory drive (largely via adenosine receptor antagonism) and can reduce apnea episodes in premature/newborn patients. The other choices are wake-promoting agents or CNS stimulants used for narcolepsy/ADHD and are not standard neonatal therapy for respiratory distress or apnea. Nursing preparation also commonly includes monitoring for methylxanthine toxicity (e.g., tachycardia, feeding intolerance, irritability) and serum levels when indicated.

Question 36

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for methotrexate. Which the following drugs would likely be prescribed in conjunction during the initial treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An NSAID like ibuprofen is routinely used as adjunct therapy to improve function and comfort during this period. Sulfonylureas are antidiabetic agents and do not treat inflammatory arthritis. While aspirin/salicylates are NSAIDs, ibuprofen is a standard, commonly preferred choice due to predictable dosing and tolerability compared with high-dose salicylate therapy.

Question 37

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has a new prescription for betaxolol eye drops. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This can slow SA/AV node conduction and decrease heart rate, making a low pulse a key adverse effect to teach and monitor for. A common way to reduce this risk is punctal occlusion after instillation, which limits systemic absorption. In contrast, iris discoloration is associated with prostaglandin analogs (e.g., latanoprost), not beta-blocker drops, and hypertension is not an expected beta-blocker effect.

Question 38

A patient is receiving bethanechol (Urecholine). The nurse realizes that the action of this drug is to treat which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is used for nonobstructive urinary retention, such as postoperative or postpartum bladder atony and neurogenic bladder. The expected therapeutic effect is improved bladder emptying rather than ocular pressure control or acid reflux management. A common distractor is delayed gastric emptying because the drug can increase GI motility, but its classic clinical indication tested is restoring voiding in urinary retention.

Question 39

The nurse teaches the patient receiving atropine (Atreza) to expect which side effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blocking muscarinic receptors in the eye causes mydriasis and cycloplegia, which commonly leads to difficulty focusing and visual blurring. The other choices reflect effects opposite to anticholinergic action: atropine tends to reduce GI motility (not cause diarrhea), increase heart rate (not bradycardia), and cause urinary retention (not frequent urination). Teaching should also include reporting severe eye pain or halos, which can indicate precipitated angle-closure glaucoma in susceptible patients.

Question 40

A client being discharged from the cardiac step-down unit following a myocardial infarction (MI), is given a prescription for beta-blocking drug. A nursing student asks the charge nurse why this drug would be used by the client with MI. Appropriate response by the charge nurse following an MI?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ” The key principle is that beta-blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand after MI by decreasing heart rate, contractility, and blood pressure, which lowers cardiac workload and helps prevent ischemia and recurrent events. This directly addresses the pathophysiology of post-MI management, where limiting oxygen consumption is cardioprotective. They do not “prevent ventricular hypoxemia” as a primary mechanism; oxygenation issues are managed by improving perfusion and treating respiratory contributors. They also commonly can cause orthostatic hypotension rather than prevent it, and they decrease (not increase) contractility via negative inotropy.

Question 41

A nurses teaching a client about the use of an expectorant treated cough. The nurse should include that an expectorant has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lowering mucus cohesiveness is commonly described as reducing surface tension, allowing secretions to be expelled more effectively. In contrast, suppressing the cough stimulus describes antitussives, which are used for nonproductive cough and can hinder secretion clearance. Drying mucous membranes is characteristic of many first-generation antihistamines and can thicken secretions, working against expectoration.

Question 42

A nurses teaching a client about the use of beclomethasone to treat asthma. The nurse explained that the drug has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Beclomethasone acts locally in the airways to prevent and reduce chronic inflammation, leading to fewer exacerbations and improved baseline control over time. Immediate bronchodilation is produced by beta-2 agonists, not inhaled steroids, so smooth muscle relaxation is not its primary therapeutic effect. Mucus thinning is more consistent with expectorants/mucolytics, and increasing the cough threshold is an antitussive effect rather than a core asthma controller mechanism.

Question 43

A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the adverse effects of drug therapy. The nurse should include that orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse reaction of which of the following drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tricyclic antidepressants commonly cause orthostatic hypotension due to peripheral alpha-1 adrenergic blockade, leading to impaired vasoconstriction on standing. This makes lightheadedness, dizziness, and falls a notable risk, especially early in therapy or with dose increases. Venlafaxine (an SNRI) more often raises blood pressure at higher doses rather than causing prominent postural drops. Bupropion has minimal alpha-blocking effects and is more associated with insomnia, agitation, and seizure risk, while valproic acid is more associated with hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, weight gain, and teratogenicity than orthostasis.

Question 44

When benztropine (Cogentin) is ordered for a patient, the nurse acknowledges that this drug is an effective treatment for which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it useful for tremor and rigidity in Parkinson disease and for antipsychotic-induced extrapyramidal symptoms (drug-induced parkinsonism). In contrast, paralytic ileus and urinary retention are conditions that anticholinergic medications can worsen by decreasing GI and bladder smooth muscle tone. Motion sickness is more classically treated with antimuscarinics like scopolamine or antihistamines rather than benztropine in routine practice.

Question 45

Dicyclomine (Bentyl) is an anticholinergic, which the nurse realizes is given to treat which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dicyclomine is used as an antispasmodic to relieve abdominal cramping and pain associated with IBS. Constipation and urinary retention are common anticholinergic adverse effects, not treatment indications. Mydriasis is also an anticholinergic effect and would represent an expected physiologic response or side effect rather than a condition being treated.

Question 46

The nurse realizes that cholinergic agonists mimic which parasympathetic neurotransmitter?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These drugs either directly activate muscarinic/nicotinic receptors or indirectly increase acetylcholine signaling, producing classic “rest-and-digest” effects (e.g., bradycardia, increased secretions, miosis, increased GI motility). Dopamine is a catecholamine neurotransmitter primarily involved in CNS pathways and sympathetic-related functions, not the core parasympathetic transmitter. Cholinesterase and monoamine oxidase are enzymes that metabolize neurotransmitters rather than neurotransmitters that are mimicked by agonists.

Question 47

The nurse is administering bethanechol (Urecholine), a cholinergic agonist, and should know that the expected cholinergic effects include which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Muscarinic activation in the eye contracts the sphincter pupillae muscle, causing miosis. In contrast, parasympathetic stimulation typically decreases heart rate, increases GI motility/peristalsis, and increases glandular secretions like saliva, making the other options inconsistent with a cholinergic profile. Therefore the option describing miosis best matches the expected effect of bethanechol.

Question 48

When a patient has a cholinergic overdose from excessive dosing of bethanechol (Urecholine), the nurse anticipates administration of which drug as the antidote?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The antidote should competitively block muscarinic receptors to reverse these dangerous parasympathetic manifestations. Atropine is a fast-acting antimuscarinic used clinically for symptomatic cholinergic toxicity, especially when bradycardia and secretions are prominent. Tolterodine and benztropine are antimuscarinics but are not the standard emergency antidote choice for acute cholinergic poisoning scenarios. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic dopamine antagonist and would not counter muscarinic overstimulation.

Question 49

A nurse is preparing to administer sumatriptan to a client for the 1st time period the nurse should instruct the client that sumatriptan is indicated for which the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Sumatriptan is a selective 5-HT1B/1D receptor agonist used as an abortive therapy for acute migraine attacks (and cluster headaches) by causing cranial vasoconstriction and inhibiting trigeminal neuropeptide release. The stem asks for the condition it is indicated for, which aligns directly with treating an active migraine headache rather than preventing future episodes. It is not an anticonvulsant and therefore does not treat tonic-clonic seizures. It also has no role in treating multiple sclerosis exacerbations or neurodegenerative conditions like Alzheimer’s disease.

Question 50

A nurse is preparing to administer a memantine to a client who has alzheimers disease. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history indicates a need to withhold the drug and notify the provider?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A history of cirrhosis signals potentially reduced metabolic capacity and higher susceptibility to confusion, dizziness, and other neurotoxicity-like effects. In contrast, hypertension and osteoporosis are not typical contraindications for memantine use. Pancreatic cancer does not specifically predict memantine toxicity or require routine withholding in the way advanced liver dysfunction can.

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