Question 1

Common unwanted effects of the dihydropyridines are due to vasodilation. It's?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers primarily cause peripheral arteriolar vasodilation; common adverse effects like flushing, headache, dizziness, edema, and reflex tachycardia result from this vasodilation

Question 2

Digoxin is obtained from which port of Digitalis purpurea?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cardiac glycosides, such as digoxin, are extracted from the dried leaves of Digitalis species.

Question 3

__________ agent mainly causes decrease in sperm count?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cimetidine, an H2 receptor antagonist, has antiandrogenic effects and can cause gynecomastia, decreased libido, and reduced sperm count; the other options are not known to decrease sperm count.

Question 4

Imatinib mesylate is an antineoplastic agent that blocks ________ protein?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Imatinib inhibits the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase, thereby blocking ABL protein activity, particularly in CML.

Question 5

Quinine and quinidines are __________ drugs?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Quinine and quinidine are antimalarial agents used to treat Plasmodium infections. They are not drugs for amebiasis, leishmaniasis, or tuberculosis.

Question 6

A highly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sertraline, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are all selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

Question 7

Restlessness, anxiety, orthostatic hypotension, generalized seizures, severe tremor, vivid hallucinations, and psychosis are possible symptoms of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These findings—anxiety, tremor, hallucinations, psychosis, and seizures—characterize sedative-hypnotic withdrawal. Tolerance does not produce acute symptoms; typical barbiturate-diazepam interactions cause CNS depression rather than this hyperexcitable state.

Question 8

Pick out the sympatholytic drug?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Guanethidine is an adrenergic neuron blocker that prevents norepinephrine release from sympathetic nerve terminals—classically classified as a sympatholytic. The others are receptor agonists or antagonists (alpha- or beta-blockers or a central alpha2 agonist), not neuronal blockers.

Question 9

Mechanism of rifampin action is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rifampin blocks bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, halting RNA synthesis. Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis; fluoroquinolones inhibit topoisomerase II; cAMP synthesis is not a target.

Question 10

Anti-anxiety agents have?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benzodiazepine-class anxiolytics produce sedation/hypnosis, muscle relaxation with anticonvulsant activity, and anterograde amnesia; therefore, all listed effects apply.

Question 11

A limitation of buspirone is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Buspirone’s chief drawback is its delayed anxiolytic effect, often taking 1–2 weeks. It causes minimal sedation, little psychomotor impairment, and has a low risk of dependence.

Question 12

....... describes any agent that allays or reduces fever?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Agents that reduce or relieve a fever are called antipyretics. Antisepsis prevents infection, antitussives suppress cough, and antiserum contains antibodies.

Question 13

What is the amount of hormone released by Progestasert per day?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Progestasert is a progesterone-releasing intrauterine device that delivers approximately 65 micrograms of progesterone per day for about one year.

Question 14

Which carbapenem antibiotic is the only one that requires the addition of cilastatin to protect it from renal dehydropeptidase?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Imipenem is hydrolyzed by renal dehydropeptidase I and must be coadministered with cilastatin to prevent inactivation; other carbapenems are DHP-I resistant.

Question 15

Metabolic transformation and conjugation usually result in an increase in a substance's biological activity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Drug metabolism, especially Phase II conjugation, typically inactivates compounds by making them more polar for excretion; their activity usually decreases, with prodrugs being exceptions.

Question 16

Compared with phentolamine, prazosin has all of the following features except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prazosin is a selective, reversible alpha1 antagonist with less reflex tachycardia and a longer duration than phentolamine. Irreversible alpha blockade is characteristic of phenoxybenzamine, not prazosin.

Question 17

Tick a hypnotic agent — a barbituric acid derivative?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thiopental is a barbituric acid derivative (a barbiturate) used as a hypnotic and anesthetic. The others are benzodiazepines or non-benzodiazepine hypnotics.

Question 18

Indicate the main claim of an ideal antidepressant agent?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Desirable properties of an antidepressant include a faster onset, fewer sedative/autonomic adverse effects, and lower toxicity in overdose, so all listed statements are correct.

Question 19

Which of the following general anesthetics is an inhalant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Desflurane is a volatile inhalational general anesthetic, whereas thiopental and propofol are IV induction agents, and ketamine is a parenteral dissociative anesthetic.

Question 20

Tick the drug that is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zileuton is the specific 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor that blocks leukotriene synthesis. Budesonide and beclometasone are corticosteroids, and sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabilizer.

Question 21

Vasoconstrictors are less effective at prolonging the anesthetic properties of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Epinephrine prolongs local anesthetics mainly by decreasing systemic absorption; long-acting, highly protein-bound agents like bupivacaine already have a prolonged duration, so vasoconstrictors have little effect.

Question 22

Which of the following agents is used to accelerate recovery from the sedative effects of intravenous benzodiazepines?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that reverses benzodiazepine-induced sedation. Naloxone reverses opioid effects, ketamine is an anesthetic, and fomepizole treats methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning.

Question 23

All of the following drugs stimulate bile production and bile secretion except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chenodiol (chenodeoxycholic acid) is used to dissolve cholesterol gallstones by altering the bile composition, not by stimulating bile production or secretion. Cholenszyme, Oxaphenamide, and Cholosas are choleretic/cholagogue agents that increase bile flow.

Question 24

All of the following statements regarding cardiac glycosides are true except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cardiac glycosides (e.g., digoxin) increase vagal tone, slowing AV nodal conduction. They inhibit Na+/K+-ATPase, leading to increased intracellular Ca2+. Children generally tolerate higher doses than adults, and hypokalemia from K+-depleting diuretics predisposes to toxicity.

Question 25

Hypnotic benzodiazepines can cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Benzodiazepine hypnotics suppress REM and deep slow-wave (N3) sleep in a dose-dependent manner while increasing lighter stage 2 sleep; therefore, they decrease both REM and slow-wave sleep.

Question 26

Characteristics of ephedrine include all of the following except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ephedrine is a mixed-acting sympathomimetic that releases stored norepinephrine and has direct alpha and beta effects, producing increased arterial pressure. It is a mild CNS stimulant and shows tachyphylaxis after repeated doses. Therefore, decreasing arterial pressure is not characteristic.

Question 27

What is amoxicillin used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amoxicillin is a penicillin-class antibiotic active against susceptible bacteria; it is used to treat bacterial infections, not general stomach issues, and the other choices are either nonspecific or not a standard indication.

Question 28

Conjugation of a drug includes the following, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Drug conjugation (phase II metabolism) includes glucuronidation, sulfation, and methylation. Hydrolysis is a phase I reaction and is not a conjugation pathway.

Question 29

Indicate an alpha-receptor antagonist that binds covalently to alpha receptors, causing an irreversible blockade of long duration (14-48 hours or longer)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Phenoxybenzamine is a nonselective alpha-adrenergic antagonist that forms a covalent bond with receptors, producing an irreversible, long-lasting blockade. Phentolamine and prazosin are reversible antagonists; ergotamine is an ergot alkaloid with partial agonist activity.

Question 30

The drug for partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carbamazepine and phenytoin are effective for focal (partial) and generalized tonic–clonic seizures, and valproate is broad-spectrum, covering generalized tonic–clonic and focal seizures; therefore, all the listed drugs apply.

Question 31

The sugar molecules in the structure of glycosides influence?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In cardiac glycosides, the aglycone (steroid and lactone) determines cardiotonic activity and inherent toxicity, while the attached sugar moieties modify solubility, absorption, distribution, and elimination—i.e., pharmacokinetics.

Question 32

Diuresis can prevent the renal toxicity associated with?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cisplatin's dose-limiting adverse effect is nephrotoxicity, which is reduced by vigorous IV hydration and diuresis (e.g., mannitol). The other agents' renal effects are not prevented by diuresis.

Question 33

The most serious toxic reaction to local anesthetics is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Local anesthetic systemic toxicity can present with CNS excitation leading to seizures, followed by respiratory arrest and cardiovascular collapse; all are life-threatening. Thus, all listed reactions are serious toxic effects.

Question 34

Which of the following antiseizure drugs is a prodrug metabolized to phenobarbital?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Primidone is converted into phenobarbital and PEMA; the others are not metabolized into phenobarbital.

Question 35

Which of the following agents is a known teratogen in humans?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Excess vitamin A and retinoids are proven human teratogens, causing craniofacial, cardiac, and CNS defects. The other listed agents are not established human teratogens when used appropriately.

Question 36

Ticarcillin + clavulanic acid is available on the market by brand?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Timentin is the brand name for ticarcillin with clavulanic acid. Zosyn is piperacillin/tazobactam and Augmentin is amoxicillin/clavulanate.

Question 37

The dominant initial signs of acute cholinesterase inhibitor intoxication include all of the following except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor toxicity causes cholinergic excess with muscarinic signs: salivation, sweating, bronchoconstriction, vomiting and diarrhea, and miosis. Mydriasis is not expected; therefore, it is the exception.

Question 38

Atropine is highly selective for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine is a nonselective competitive antagonist at muscarinic receptors and therefore binds the M1, M2, and M3 subtypes with similar affinity. Among the given choices, "All of the above" best reflects this.

Question 39

Patients complain of dry or "sandy" eyes when receiving large doses of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine is an antimuscarinic that inhibits lacrimal gland secretion, leading to dry, "sandy" eyes. Pilocarpine and carbachol are muscarinic agonists that increase tearing. Hexamethonium is a ganglionic blocker, but this effect is classically associated with atropine.

Question 40

Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of uterine spasms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine is an antimuscarinic that relaxes smooth muscle and relieves spasms. Carbachol and edrophonium increase cholinergic activity and can worsen spasms; vecuronium acts at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle, not uterine smooth muscle.

Question 41

Ephedrine causes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ephedrine is a mixed-acting sympathomimetic that stimulates beta-adrenergic receptors, including beta-2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, causing bronchodilation. It typically produces mydriasis, hypertension, and tachycardia rather than miosis, hypotension, or bradycardia.

Question 42

Which of the following hypnotic agents is a positive allosteric modulator of GABAA receptor function?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zaleplon and Zolpidem (Z-drugs) and the benzodiazepine flurazepam all act as positive allosteric modulators at the GABAA receptor benzodiazepine site, enhancing GABA-mediated chloride influx and producing hypnosis.

Question 43

For digitalis-induced arrhythmias, the following drug is favored?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lidocaine is effective for ventricular arrhythmias caused by digoxin toxicity; verapamil and beta blockers can worsen AV block, and amiodarone can increase digoxin levels.

Question 44

All of the following drugs demonstrate a fungicidal effect, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amphotericin B and terbinafine are fungicidal, whereas azoles such as ketoconazole are primarily fungistatic. Therefore, ketoconazole is the exception.

Question 45

All of the aminoglycosides are given parenterally except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neomycin is used orally and topically and is not systemically absorbed; other aminoglycosides, like amikacin, tobramycin, and gentamicin, are administered parenterally due to poor GI absorption and toxicity.

Question 46

Glycosides are found in many?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Glycosides are sugar-linked compounds that commonly occur as active constituents of many plant-derived drugs, such as cardiac glycosides.

Question 47

Characteristics of alpha-receptor antagonists include all of the following except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alpha-receptor antagonists cause vasodilation with decreased peripheral resistance and blood pressure, can produce epinephrine reversal, and may lead to postural hypotension with reflex tachycardia. Bronchospasm is associated with beta-2 blockade, not alpha blockade.

Question 48

Indicate a tricyclic or a heterocyclic antidepressant having the greatest antimuscarinic effects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Among the antidepressants listed, amitriptyline (a tertiary amine TCA) exhibits the strongest antimuscarinic/anticholinergic effects; desipramine has less, and trazodone and mirtazapine have minimal anticholinergic activity.

Question 49

Indicate the inhaled anesthetic that causes airway irritation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Desflurane is pungent and irritates the airway, leading to coughing, breath-holding, and laryngospasm; nitrous oxide, sevoflurane, and halothane are nonpungent and better tolerated for mask induction.

Question 50

All of the following groups of drugs are used for the treatment of thrombosis EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antifibrinolytics inhibit fibrin breakdown and stabilize clots; they are used to control bleeding rather than to treat thrombosis. Anticoagulants, antiplatelets, and fibrinolytics are used in thrombosis management.

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