Endocrine System Practice Test 15
Endocrine System NCLEX Practice Test
Endocrine System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Endocrine System. This section reviews hormonal regulation and nursing priorities in metabolic and endocrine disorders. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 15th part of the Endocrine System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
Continue Learning
In the Endocrine System Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Endocrine System Practice Test 15
Patient: 55-year-old male. Presentation: Difficulty walking + numbness in feet x6 months, history of poorly controlled diabetes. Possible Dx:
- Diabetic neuropathy
- Spinal cord compression
- Peripheral artery disease
- Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic distal numbness in the feet with gait difficulty in a patient with long-standing, poorly controlled diabetes is most consistent with a length-dependent symmetric peripheral polyneuropathy. This typically presents in a “stocking” distribution and can impair proprioception and balance, contributing to difficulty walking. Spinal cord compression would more often produce upper motor neuron signs and/or bowel/bladder involvement, while peripheral artery disease primarily causes exertional leg pain and diminished pulses rather than sensory loss. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause neuropathy and gait issues, but the strong risk factor and classic symptom pattern here favors diabetic neuropathy. Category reason: This item tests recognition of a diabetes-related complication and its clinical presentation rather than a nursing intervention, aligning best with foundational disease mechanisms in the Endocrine System.
Which finding is most common in hyperthyroidism?
- Cold intolerance
- Weight gain
- Heat intolerance
- Bradycardia
Explanation: Answer reason: C. Heat intolerance Hyperthyroidism increases basal metabolic rate and sympathetic activity, raising heat production and leading to excessive sweating and difficulty tolerating warm environments. In contrast, cold intolerance and weight gain are more typical of hypothyroidism due to reduced metabolic rate. Bradycardia is also more consistent with hypothyroidism; hyperthyroidism more often causes tachycardia and palpitations. Category reason: This item tests expected physiologic manifestations of excess thyroid hormone and metabolic upregulation, which is core Endocrine System knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.
The following is NOT a common symptom of diabetes?
- Frequent urination
- Blurred vision
- Increased appetite
- Slow wound healing
Explanation: Answer reason: Diabetes commonly presents with polyuria from osmotic diuresis due to hyperglycemia, along with blurred vision from lens fluid shifts and slow wound healing from impaired perfusion and immune function. Although increased hunger (polyphagia) can occur—especially in untreated type 1 diabetes—it is less consistently seen as a “common” symptom compared with the classic triad of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia and other frequent manifestations like blurred vision. Among the listed choices, the others are broadly recognized as common across many patients with diabetes. Category reason: This item tests recognition of typical manifestations of diabetes mellitus, which is primarily an endocrine disease process rather than a nursing intervention/priority decision.
MILK PRODUCTION BY WHICH HORMONE?
- PROLACTIN
- OXYTOTIN
- ESTROGEN
- CORTISOL
Explanation: Answer reason: It is the primary hormone that stimulates lactogenesis by promoting milk synthesis in the mammary alveolar cells after childbirth. In contrast, oxytocin mainly triggers milk ejection (let-down) by causing myoepithelial cell contraction, not production. Estrogen supports breast ductal development during pregnancy but high levels inhibit established lactation until postpartum levels fall. Cortisol is permissive for metabolism and stress responses and is not the primary driver of milk production. Category reason: This tests identification of the hormone responsible for lactation, which is a core concept in endocrine physiology.
_____ is the smallest gland in the human body (size of rice grain).?
- Adrenal gland
- Peneal gland
- Pituitary gland
- Thyroid gland
Explanation: Answer reason: The pineal gland is a very small endocrine gland located near the center of the brain and is often described as being about the size of a rice grain. It primarily secretes melatonin, which helps regulate circadian rhythms (sleep–wake cycles). The adrenal, pituitary, and thyroid glands are substantially larger structures compared with this small midline brain gland. Category reason: This item tests factual knowledge about endocrine gland anatomy (relative size and identification), which is foundational biomedical science rather than nursing care decision-making, fitting the Endocrine System subject area.
A pregnant client asks the nurse about the hormone that stimulates postpartum contractions. The nurse tells the client that which primary hormone stimulates postpartum contractions?
- Prolactin
- Oxytocin
- Progesterone
- Testosterone
Explanation: Answer reason: It is released from the posterior pituitary and causes uterine smooth muscle contraction, which is essential for uterine involution after delivery. It also mediates the “let-down” reflex during breastfeeding, and nipple stimulation increases its release. Progesterone primarily maintains uterine quiescence during pregnancy, and prolactin mainly drives milk production rather than uterine contraction. Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a specific hormone’s physiologic role in the postpartum period, which is primarily endocrine physiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.
Diabetes during pregnancy requires tight metabolic control of glucose levels to prevent perinatal mortality. When educating a pregnant client, the nurse knows the recommended serum glucose range during pregnancy is?
- 70 mg/dL and 120 mg/dL.
- 100 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL.
- 40 mg/dL and 130 mg/dL.
- 90 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL.
Explanation: Answer reason: Tight glycemic control in pregnancy targets near-normal glucose to reduce risks such as fetal hyperinsulinemia, macrosomia, neonatal hypoglycemia, and stillbirth. Typical goals keep fasting glucose near the low-normal range and postprandial values generally below about 120 mg/dL (2-hour) to minimize fetal exposure to hyperglycemia. The other ranges allow significant hyperglycemia (e.g., up to 200 mg/dL), which is inconsistent with recommended pregnancy targets and increases adverse perinatal outcomes. Category reason: This question tests recommended physiologic/clinical target ranges for maternal blood glucose in pregnancy, which is primarily endocrine metabolic regulation rather than a nursing-prioritization or intervention scenario.
At change-of-shift report, the nurse learns the medical diagnoses for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess MOST carefully for development of hyponatremia? Select one?
- Vomiting all day and not replacing any fluid
- Tumor that secretes excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- Tumor that secretes excessive aldosterone
- Tumor that destroyed the posterior pituitary gland
Explanation: Answer reason: Excess ADH causes increased free-water reabsorption in the kidney collecting ducts, leading to dilutional lowering of serum sodium concentration. This mechanism is typical of SIADH, where total body water rises disproportionately relative to sodium, producing hyponatremia and low serum osmolality. In contrast, vomiting without fluid replacement more commonly contributes to volume depletion and may cause hypernatremia if water loss exceeds sodium loss. Excess aldosterone tends to increase sodium retention (often causing hypokalemia), and posterior pituitary destruction causes low ADH (diabetes insipidus) with risk for hypernatremia. Category reason: This question tests the physiologic effect of altered ADH secretion on water balance and serum sodium, which is a core endocrine regulation concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.
What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
- Insulin resistance
- Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
- Excessive glucagon secretion
- Impaired glucose uptake by cells
Explanation: Answer reason: Type 1 diabetes results from immune-mediated beta-cell loss, leading to an absolute insulin deficiency. With little to no endogenous insulin, glucose cannot be effectively utilized, promoting hyperglycemia and lipolysis with ketone production. Insulin resistance is characteristic of type 2 diabetes, while impaired cellular glucose uptake is a downstream consequence rather than the initiating mechanism. Excess glucagon can worsen hyperglycemia but is not the primary cause. Category reason: This question tests the underlying disease mechanism of diabetes mellitus, focusing on endocrine pancreas function and immune-mediated beta-cell loss, which is foundational Endocrine System science rather than a nursing intervention decision.
A client with type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus has just learned she's pregnant. The nurse is teaching her about insulin requirements during pregnancy. Which guideline should the nurse provide?
- "Insulin requirements don't change during pregnancy."
- "Continue current regimen."
- "Insulin requirements usually decrease during the last two trimesters."
- "Insulin requirements usually decrease during the first trimester."
- "Insulin requirements increase greatly during labor."
Explanation: Answer reason: r." Early pregnancy increases insulin sensitivity and is often accompanied by nausea/vomiting and reduced caloric intake, which lowers exogenous insulin needs and raises hypoglycemia risk in type 1 diabetes. As pregnancy progresses (especially 2nd and 3rd trimesters), placental hormones (e.g., human placental lactogen, cortisol, progesterone) drive insulin resistance, so insulin requirements typically rise rather than fall. During labor and immediately postpartum, insulin needs often decrease because placental hormone levels drop and energy intake/output patterns change, so a large increase is not expected as a general guideline. Category reason: The primary intent is understanding how pregnancy physiology alters insulin sensitivity and requirements across trimesters, which is foundational endocrine regulation rather than a nursing safety/intervention judgment.
A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client?
- Calcium chloride
- Calcium gluconate
- Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
- Large doses of vitamin D
Explanation: Answer reason: A calcium level of 13 mg/dL indicates significant hypercalcemia, which is a key complication of hyperparathyroidism. This medication lowers serum calcium by inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption and increasing renal calcium excretion. In contrast, calcium salts and high-dose vitamin D would increase calcium and worsen the condition. This aligns with standard acute management of hypercalcemia while definitive treatment addresses the underlying parathyroid disorder. Category reason: This tests endocrine hormone effects and pharmacologic management of hypercalcemia related to parathyroid hormone dysregulation, which best fits the Endocrine System.
A clinic nurse is planning a teaching session about childhood obesity prevention for parents of school-age children. The nurse should include which associated risk of obesity in the teaching plan?
- Type I diabetes
- Respiratory disease
- Celiac disease
- Type II diabetes
Explanation: Answer reason: d. Type II diabetes Childhood obesity strongly increases insulin resistance, which can progress to impaired glucose tolerance and ultimately type 2 diabetes. This risk is well established and is a key long-term metabolic complication emphasized in pediatric obesity prevention counseling. Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune and not caused by obesity, and celiac disease is immune-mediated and unrelated. While obesity can contribute to some respiratory problems, the most classically tested associated risk among these choices is type 2 diabetes. Category reason: The question tests biomedical knowledge about obesity-related metabolic complications (insulin resistance leading to diabetes), which is primarily an endocrine system concept rather than a nursing process decision.
While caring for a patient with a history of hypothyroidism, the nurse expects which of the following medications to be included in the patient's medication list?
- Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid)
- Estrogen (Estradial)
- Iodine 131
- Carbimazole (Methimazole)
Explanation: Answer reason: A. Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) Hypothyroidism is treated with thyroid hormone replacement to restore normal metabolic activity and normalize TSH/free T4 levels. Levothyroxine is synthetic T4 and is the standard long-term therapy for primary hypothyroidism. Iodine-131 is used to ablate thyroid tissue in hyperthyroidism or thyroid cancer, and methimazole/carbimazole are antithyroid drugs used for hyperthyroidism. Estrogen is not a treatment for hypothyroidism. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of treatment for thyroid hormone deficiency and which medication corresponds to hypothyroidism, which fits the Endocrine System.
Which vitamin prevents neural tube defects?
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin C
- Folic acid
- Niacin
Explanation: Answer reason: Adequate periconceptional supplementation reduces the risk of neural tube defects by supporting DNA synthesis and methylation required for rapid cell division and neural tube closure early in embryogenesis (around weeks 3–4). Deficiency increases risk of spina bifida and anencephaly. Other listed vitamins do not have the primary evidence-based preventive effect on neural tube defects in pregnancy. Category reason: This tests foundational knowledge about a nutrient’s role in embryologic development and congenital defect prevention, which is biomedical science rather than a nursing intervention scenario.
Which one is the iodine deficiency disorder.?
- Goiter
- Anemia
- Hypertension
- Hypotension
Explanation: Answer reason: Iodine is required for thyroid hormone synthesis; deficiency leads to reduced T3/T4, which triggers increased TSH stimulation. Chronic TSH stimulation causes thyroid hypertrophy and hyperplasia, producing an enlarged thyroid gland. This enlargement is clinically termed a goiter and is a classic manifestation of iodine deficiency. Category reason: This item tests the physiologic consequence of iodine deficiency on thyroid hormone production and gland enlargement, which is part of endocrine system function and disorders.
Which one is mixed gland-?
- Pituitary gland
- Pancreas
- Thyroid gland
- Parotid gland
Explanation: Answer reason: A mixed gland has both endocrine and exocrine functions. The pancreas secretes hormones (e.g., insulin and glucagon) into the bloodstream via the islets of Langerhans and also secretes digestive enzymes into the duodenum through ducts (exocrine function). Pituitary and thyroid are purely endocrine glands, while the parotid is an exocrine salivary gland. Category reason: This tests identification of an organ with both endocrine and exocrine secretions, which is a core concept of the Endocrine System in foundational nursing science.
Rickets is caused by deficiency of?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin B1
Explanation: Answer reason: Vitamin D is necessary for intestinal calcium and phosphate absorption and for normal bone mineralization. In deficiency, inadequate mineralization of the growth plate leads to bone softening and deformities in children, which is rickets. Other listed vitamin deficiencies cause different syndromes (e.g., scurvy with vitamin C, vision/epithelial issues with vitamin A, neuropathy with thiamine). Category reason: This question tests foundational disease etiology related to vitamin/hormone-regulated calcium–phosphate balance and bone mineralization, which fits best under Endocrine System concepts rather than nursing care decisions.
Which hormone regulates the amount of glucose in the blood?
- Adrenaline
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
- Estrogen
Explanation: Answer reason: It is secreted by pancreatic beta cells and lowers blood glucose by promoting cellular uptake of glucose and stimulating glycogen synthesis in liver and muscle. It also suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, preventing excessive glucose release into the bloodstream. Deficiency or resistance leads to persistent hyperglycemia, as seen in diabetes mellitus. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of hormonal regulation of blood glucose, which is a core concept within the Endocrine System.
Which organ produces insulin?
- Liver
- Stomach
- Pancreas
- Gallbladder
Explanation: Answer reason: Insulin is synthesized and secreted by beta cells in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans). It is the key hormone for lowering blood glucose by promoting cellular glucose uptake and glycogen synthesis. The liver primarily stores/metabolizes glucose but does not produce insulin, while the stomach and gallbladder are not endocrine organs for glucose regulation. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of which endocrine organ secretes insulin, which falls under the Endocrine System.
The hormone responsible for uterine contraction during labor is?
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Prolactin
- Oxytocin
Explanation: Answer reason: It is released from the posterior pituitary and directly stimulates uterine smooth muscle to produce rhythmic contractions during labor. Its secretion increases via a positive feedback loop (Ferguson reflex) as cervical stretch intensifies, strengthening contractions and promoting progression of labor. Estrogen increases uterine sensitivity to contractile stimuli, progesterone maintains uterine quiescence during pregnancy, and prolactin primarily supports lactation rather than labor contractions. Category reason: This question tests hormonal control of a reproductive physiologic process (labor), which is best categorized under endocrine regulation of body functions.
Enlargement of Thyroid gland occurs in :
- Hypothyroidism
- Hyperthyroidism
- Tumors of thyroid
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Goiter (thyroid enlargement) can be seen with hypothyroidism (e.g., iodine deficiency or autoimmune thyroiditis causing TSH-driven hypertrophy), hyperthyroidism (e.g., Graves disease with diffuse gland hyperplasia), and structural thyroid disease such as benign nodules or malignant tumors. The common pathway is increased cellular growth, inflammation, or mass effect within the gland. Therefore, each listed condition can present with an enlarged thyroid. Category reason: This question tests causes of thyroid enlargement, a core topic in endocrine gland function and disorders, which fits the Endocrine System subject area.
Addison’s disease is caused by insufficiency of?
- Thyroid Hormone
- Parathyroid Hormone
- Insulin
- Corticosteroid Hormone
Explanation: Answer reason: Addison’s disease is primary adrenal insufficiency due to inadequate production of adrenal cortex hormones, especially cortisol (a glucocorticoid) and often aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid). This deficiency leads to symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and possible hyperpigmentation due to elevated ACTH. The other listed hormones (thyroid, parathyroid, insulin) are not produced by the adrenal cortex and do not define Addison’s disease. Category reason: This question tests the hormonal deficiency underlying a classic endocrine disorder (primary adrenal insufficiency), which is core Endocrine System physiology/pathophysiology knowledge rather than nursing care prioritization.
Which cells synthesis and secrete testicular hormones (androgens) in a man?
- Sertoli Cells
- Mucus cells
- Spermatogonia
- Leydig cells
Explanation: Answer reason: D) Leydig cells Leydig (interstitial) cells in the testes produce and secrete testosterone and other androgens in response to luteinizing hormone (LH). Sertoli cells primarily support spermatogenesis and secrete inhibin and androgen-binding protein rather than being the main androgen-producing cells. Spermatogonia are germ cells that develop into sperm and do not secrete testicular hormones. Mucus cells are not a relevant testicular endocrine cell type for androgen production. Category reason: This is a foundational question about which testicular cell type produces androgens, which is endocrine/reproductive physiology rather than nursing care decision-making.
Which pancreatic hormone raises blood glucose levels?
- Aldosterone
- Glucagon
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
Explanation: Answer reason: It is secreted by pancreatic alpha cells and increases serum glucose by stimulating hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. This counter-regulatory hormone is released during fasting and hypoglycemia to maintain adequate blood glucose for vital organs. In contrast, insulin lowers glucose, while aldosterone and thyroxine are not pancreatic hormones primarily responsible for acute glucose elevation. Category reason: This tests endocrine hormone function and glucose regulation physiology, which best fits the Endocrine System.
Which hormone from the pancreas lowers blood glucose?
- Glucagon
- Cortisol
- Insulin
- Epinephrine
Explanation: Answer reason: It is secreted by pancreatic beta cells and decreases blood glucose by increasing cellular uptake of glucose (especially in muscle and adipose) and promoting glycogen synthesis in the liver. It also suppresses hepatic glucose production (gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis). In contrast, glucagon, cortisol, and epinephrine are counter-regulatory hormones that raise blood glucose. Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of pancreatic hormone function and glucose homeostasis, which is primarily an Endocrine System topic.
Which is not a symptom of diabetes mellitus?
- Polyphagia
- Polydipsia
- Polyuria
- Weight gain
Explanation: Answer reason: D. Weight gain Diabetes mellitus classically presents with the “3 Ps” (polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia) due to hyperglycemia causing osmotic diuresis and dehydration with increased hunger from impaired glucose utilization. Unintentional weight loss is more typical, especially in uncontrolled type 1 diabetes, because the body breaks down fat and muscle for energy when insulin is insufficient. While some individuals with type 2 diabetes may be overweight, weight gain is not a classic symptom used to identify diabetes mellitus. Category reason: This question tests recognition of classic clinical features of diabetes mellitus and their hormonal/metabolic basis, which is primarily an Endocrine System topic rather than a nursing intervention scenario.
The main function of insulin is to?
- Increase blood sugar
- Decrease blood sugar
- Digest proteins
- Stimulate appetite
Explanation: Answer reason: Insulin lowers plasma glucose by promoting cellular uptake of glucose (especially in muscle and adipose tissue) and stimulating glycogen synthesis in the liver and muscle while inhibiting hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis. It also supports storage pathways such as lipogenesis and protein synthesis, which further reduces circulating glucose availability. In contrast, hormones like glucagon and epinephrine raise blood glucose, making the other options incorrect. Category reason: This item tests the physiological role of the pancreatic hormone insulin in regulating blood glucose, which is a core concept of endocrine regulation rather than a nursing intervention scenario.
Common complication of diabetes mellitus is?
- Hypotension
- Neuropathy
- Blindness only
- Anemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic hyperglycemia causes metabolic and microvascular injury to peripheral nerves, leading to distal symmetric neuropathy that commonly presents with numbness, burning pain, and loss of protective sensation in the feet. This complication increases risk of foot ulcers, infections, and amputations due to impaired sensation and wound healing. Hypotension and anemia are not typical direct chronic complications, and “blindness only” is too narrow because diabetic retinopathy can cause vision loss but is not limited to complete blindness and is not the sole common complication. Category reason: This question tests a well-known long-term complication of diabetes mellitus (a hormonal/metabolic disorder) and its systemic effects, which fits best under the Endocrine System rather than nursing care decision-making.
Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection (let-down reflex)?
- Prolactin
- Estrogen
- Oxytocin
- Progesterone
Explanation: Answer reason: Suckling stimulates sensory nerves in the nipple, triggering posterior pituitary release that causes myoepithelial cell contraction around the alveoli and ducts. This contraction forces milk from the alveoli into the ducts and out through the nipple, producing the let-down reflex. In contrast, prolactin primarily drives milk production, while estrogen and progesterone modulate breast development and can inhibit lactation during pregnancy. Category reason: This question tests foundational hormone physiology of lactation and reflex control, which is best categorized under the Endocrine System rather than nursing decision-making.
Which hormone regulates blood calcium levels?
- Thyroxine
- Parathyroid hormone
- Insulin
- Estrogen
Explanation: Answer reason: B. Parathyroid hormone It is the primary acute regulator of serum calcium, raising calcium by increasing bone resorption, enhancing renal calcium reabsorption, and stimulating activation of vitamin D to increase intestinal calcium absorption. Thyroxine mainly regulates metabolic rate, insulin regulates glucose, and estrogen influences bone density over time but is not the chief moment-to-moment calcium homeostasis hormone. Therefore, the most direct regulator among the options is parathyroid hormone. Category reason: This question tests foundational hormone function and mineral homeostasis, which is core endocrine physiology rather than a nursing care decision.
Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?
- Dry skin
- Bradycardia
- Sweating
- Flushed face
Explanation: Answer reason: C. Sweating Hypoglycemia triggers a sympathetic (adrenergic) response with catecholamine release, producing diaphoresis, tremor, anxiety, and palpitations. These early warning signs occur before neuroglycopenic symptoms such as confusion or seizures. Dry skin and flushing are more consistent with vasodilation or dehydration, and bradycardia is not a typical adrenergic manifestation of low blood glucose. Category reason: This item tests recognition of physiologic signs caused by low blood glucose and counter-regulatory hormone responses, which is core Endocrine System knowledge rather than a nursing management decision.
What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
- Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
- Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
- Restlessness, increased appetite, and menorrhagia
- Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypothyroidism causes a generalized slowing of metabolic processes, leading to fatigue and lethargy. Decreased gastrointestinal motility commonly produces constipation. Reduced thermogenesis results in cold intolerance and low body temperature, matching the decreased heat rate described, whereas heat intolerance, tachycardia, restlessness, and increased appetite are more consistent with hyperthyroidism. Category reason: This question tests recognition of signs and symptoms resulting from altered thyroid hormone levels, which is core content of endocrine physiology/pathophysiology rather than a nursing management decision.
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of?
- Positive feedback
- Neural regulation
- Negative feedback
- Physiologic regulation
Explanation: Answer reason: TSH stimulates the thyroid to increase circulating thyroid hormones, and when thyroid hormone levels rise to an adequate range, they suppress further TSH release via the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. This self-limiting loop maintains hormone levels near a set point and prevents excessive secretion. Such a response that counteracts the initial change is the defining feature of negative feedback. Category reason: This question tests endocrine homeostatic control of the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis, which is a core concept of the Endocrine System.
Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located?
- Inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm
- On the outer surface of the plasma membrane
- Inside the mitochondria on the plasma membrane
- On the inner surface of the plasma membrane
Explanation: Answer reason: Lipid-soluble hormones (e.g., steroid and thyroid hormones) diffuse through the cell membrane and bind to intracellular receptors located in the cytoplasm and/or nucleus. The hormone–receptor complex then alters gene transcription, producing longer-lasting effects. In contrast, water-soluble hormones typically bind to receptors on the cell surface and signal via second messengers, making the membrane-surface options incorrect. Category reason: This tests the mechanism and receptor location of endocrine hormones, a foundational concept in hormone signaling within the Endocrine System.
The releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary via the?
- Vessels of the zona fasciculata
- Hypophyseal stalk
- Infundibular stem
- Portal hypophyseal blood vessels
Explanation: Answer reason: Hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting hormones are secreted into the primary capillary plexus at the median eminence and then carried directly to the anterior pituitary through the hypophyseal portal circulation. This portal system ensures high local concentrations reach adenohypophyseal cells without dilution in systemic blood. The hypophyseal stalk/infundibulum is an anatomic connection, but the key transport route to the anterior pituitary is the portal venous vessels (distinct from the axonal transport to the posterior pituitary). Category reason: This tests how hypothalamic hormones regulate the anterior pituitary via the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system, a core concept in endocrine physiology.
A nurse is reviewing lab results of a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which finding is expected?
- Hypocalcemia
- Hypercalcemia
- Hyponatremia
- Hypoglycemia
Explanation: Answer reason: B. Hypercalcemia Excess parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium by stimulating bone resorption, increasing renal calcium reabsorption, and enhancing intestinal calcium absorption via activation of vitamin D. Therefore elevated calcium is the classic expected laboratory abnormality. The distractors involve sodium or glucose regulation, which are not primary effects of parathyroid hormone. Low calcium is more consistent with hypoparathyroidism rather than hyperparathyroidism. Category reason: This question tests the physiologic effect of parathyroid hormone on serum electrolytes, which is core endocrine regulation knowledge rather than a nursing intervention/priority decision.
A client is admitted with Cushing’s syndrome. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
- Weight loss
- Truncal obesity and moon face
- Low blood pressure
- Excessive hair loss
Explanation: Answer reason: Cushing’s syndrome reflects chronic excess glucocorticoids, which causes characteristic fat redistribution to the trunk, face, and posterior neck. Hypercortisolism is also associated with weight gain, hypertension, hyperglycemia, thin skin, easy bruising, and proximal muscle weakness. Low blood pressure and weight loss are more consistent with adrenal insufficiency, while hair changes may occur but are not the hallmark finding tested here. Category reason: This question tests the classic clinical manifestations of hypercortisolism and related endocrine physiology, which best fits the Endocrine System.
A client with Graves' disease is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. What preoperative drug is most likely?
- Propylthiouracil (PTU)
- Prednisone
- Levothyroxine
- Insulin
Explanation: Answer reason: Thionamides are used preoperatively in Graves’ disease to reduce thyroid hormone synthesis and achieve a euthyroid state, lowering the risk of thyroid storm during surgery. PTU inhibits thyroid peroxidase and also decreases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, providing an added benefit when rapid control is needed. Prednisone is not a routine standard pre-op medication for thyroidectomy in Graves’ unless treating specific complications (e.g., severe ophthalmopathy). Levothyroxine would worsen hyperthyroidism, and insulin is unrelated unless the client has diabetes. Category reason: This question tests foundational management of hyperthyroidism related to thyroid hormone synthesis and endocrine pharmacology rather than nursing prioritization or bedside interventions, so it fits the Endocrine System nursing science domain.
A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes insipidus. Which lab value is expected?
- Serum sodium 128 mEq/L
- Urine specific gravity 1.001
- Blood glucose 300 mg/dL
- Urine output <30 mL/hr
Explanation: Answer reason: Diabetes insipidus involves deficient ADH effect, causing inability to concentrate urine and resulting in very dilute urine. This produces a low urine specific gravity, often near 1.001–1.005. Serum sodium is typically normal to high (not low), blood glucose elevation suggests diabetes mellitus, and urine output is usually markedly increased rather than decreased. Category reason: This question tests expected laboratory findings from an endocrine disorder (ADH-related water balance), which is foundational biomedical knowledge within the Endocrine System.
A client has type 1 diabetes and presents with Kussmaul respirations. What is the most likely cause?
- Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
- Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
- Respiratory acidosis
- Renal failure
Explanation: Answer reason: A. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breathing that occur as a compensatory response to metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, absolute insulin deficiency leads to lipolysis and ketone production, generating an anion-gap metabolic acidosis that triggers this respiratory compensation. HHS typically occurs in type 2 diabetes and is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and hyperosmolarity with minimal ketosis, making Kussmaul breathing less typical. Respiratory acidosis would cause hypoventilation rather than deep hyperventilation, and renal failure is not the most characteristic cause in this presentation compared with acute ketoacidosis. Category reason: The item tests pathophysiology of acid–base compensation and diabetes-related metabolic derangements, which is foundational endocrine science rather than a nursing care decision.
A patient with SIADH is receiving treatment. What electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most concerned about?
- Hyponatremia
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypercalcemia
- Hypernatremia
Explanation: Answer reason: A. Hyponatremia SIADH causes excess antidiuretic hormone activity, leading to increased free water reabsorption and dilution of serum sodium. This dilutional effect lowers plasma osmolality and can produce neurologic symptoms such as headache, confusion, seizures, and coma. During treatment (e.g., fluid restriction, hypertonic saline, vasopressin antagonists), sodium must be monitored closely to prevent severe hyponatremia and related complications. Category reason: This question tests the physiologic consequence of SIADH on serum sodium and water balance, which is a core endocrine regulation concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.
What is an expected finding in a client with hyperaldosteronism?
- Hypertension and hypokalemia
- Hypotension and hyperkalemia
- Dehydration and acidosis
- Hypercalcemia and polyuria
Explanation: Answer reason: A. Hypertension and hypokalemia Excess aldosterone increases sodium and water reabsorption in the distal nephron, expanding intravascular volume and raising blood pressure. At the same time, it promotes potassium secretion, leading to low serum potassium. It also increases hydrogen ion excretion, tending toward metabolic alkalosis rather than acidosis. Therefore the combination of elevated blood pressure with hypokalemia is the classic expected finding. Category reason: This question tests the physiologic effects of the hormone aldosterone on electrolytes and blood pressure regulation, which is core content of the Endocrine System.
A nurse is teaching a client about using an insulin pump. What is the main advantage?
- No need for glucose monitoring
- Delivers basal and bolus insulin as needed
- Eliminates dietary restrictions
- Reduces need for insulin entirely
Explanation: Answer reason: B. Delivers basal and bolus insulin as needed It provides continuous background insulin to cover baseline metabolic needs while allowing user-initiated bolus doses for meals and correction of hyperglycemia, better approximating normal physiologic insulin secretion. This flexibility can improve glycemic control and reduce glucose variability when paired with frequent monitoring/CGM. The other choices are incorrect because pump therapy still requires glucose monitoring, does not remove the need for dietary planning, and does not eliminate the need for insulin. Category reason: This question tests the physiologic and therapeutic principle of insulin delivery patterns (basal versus bolus) used to manage diabetes, which is core endocrine system content rather than a nursing-priority or safety judgment scenario.
...... are a substance produced by specialized cells of the body and carried by blood stream where it affect other specialized cells?
- Vitamins
- Enzymes
- Isoenzyme
- Hormones
Explanation: Answer reason: d- hormones Hormones are chemical messengers synthesized by specialized endocrine cells and secreted into the bloodstream to act on distant target cells with specific receptors. This endocrine signaling regulates body functions such as metabolism, growth, reproduction, and stress responses. Enzymes primarily catalyze reactions locally, vitamins are dietary cofactors rather than signaling molecules, and isoenzymes are enzyme variants, not blood-borne messengers. Category reason: This is a foundational question about blood-borne chemical messengers and their action on target cells, which is core endocrine physiology rather than nursing intervention or clinical judgment.
A patient with hypothyroidism is started on levothyroxine. Which assessment finding shows improvement?
- Pulse increases from 50 to 70 bpm
- Temperature decreases
- Weight increases by 2 kg
- Constipation worsens
Explanation: Answer reason: Levothyroxine replaces deficient thyroid hormone, increasing basal metabolic rate and sympathetic activity, which typically raises heart rate from hypothyroid-associated bradycardia toward normal. Improvement would also be reflected by increased energy, improved thermogenesis, and normalization of bowel habits. The other options reflect persistent or worsening hypothyroidism (lower temperature, weight gain, and worsening constipation). Category reason: This question tests the physiologic effects of thyroid hormone replacement and expected systemic changes in hypothyroidism, which is primarily endocrine function rather than nursing prioritization or a specific care intervention.
_____ is the main glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal glands.?
- Fluticasone
- Hydrocortisone
- Fludrocortisone
- Dexamethasone
- Prednisone
- Hydrocortisone
Explanation: Answer reason: b. Hydrocortisone The adrenal cortex’s primary endogenous glucocorticoid in humans is cortisol, and hydrocortisone is the pharmaceutical name for cortisol. Therefore it is the correct choice when asked which glucocorticoid is mainly produced by the adrenal glands. Fludrocortisone is predominantly a mineralocorticoid (aldosterone-like) rather than the main glucocorticoid. Dexamethasone, prednisone, and fluticasone are primarily synthetic glucocorticoids and are not the principal hormone produced by the adrenal cortex.
Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin K
Explanation: Answer reason: Rickets results from defective mineralization of growing bone due to inadequate calcium and phosphate availability at the growth plates. Vitamin D is essential for intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate and for normal bone mineralization, so deficiency leads to widened, weakened growth plates and skeletal deformities in children. This mechanism directly explains the classic rickets findings (bowing of legs, rachitic rosary, delayed closure of fontanelles). A common distractor is vitamin C deficiency, which causes scurvy from impaired collagen synthesis rather than impaired mineralization.
Which hormone is secreted by adrenal medulla?
- Cortisol
- Adrenaline
- Aldosterone
- Thyroxine
Explanation: Answer reason: The adrenal medulla is composed of chromaffin cells that function like a sympathetic ganglion and release catecholamines during the fight-or-flight response. Its primary secretions are epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine into the bloodstream for rapid cardiovascular and metabolic effects. Cortisol and aldosterone are produced by the adrenal cortex (zona fasciculata and zona glomerulosa, respectively), not the medulla. Thyroxine is produced by the thyroid gland, making it anatomically and functionally unrelated to adrenal medullary secretion.
Which is the largest endocrine gland?
- Pituitary
- Thyroid
- Adrenal
- Pancreas
Explanation: Answer reason: Core principle: the thyroid is the largest purely endocrine gland in the body by mass and has extensive vascularity and hormone output. It fits because the pituitary is the “master gland” functionally but is much smaller anatomically. The adrenal glands are paired but each is relatively small, and the endocrine portion is only part of the gland (with a distinct cortex and medulla). The pancreas is a large organ, but most of it is exocrine tissue, so it is not considered the largest endocrine gland.
Commonest complication of diabetes is —?
- Retinopathy
- Nephropathy
- Neuropathy
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic hyperglycemia causes microvascular injury and metabolic/ischemic damage to nerves, making diabetic complications classically include retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy. Each of these is highly prevalent in long-standing or poorly controlled diabetes and represents a major cause of morbidity. Because the stem asks broadly about the common complications of diabetes (without specifying a single organ system), the option that encompasses the major recognized complications best fits. Selecting only one organ-specific complication would be incomplete when all listed are established common complications.
Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?
Run through a full 150-question exam just like the real thing. You’ll hit the 85-question checkpoint and get a clear report showing where you stand.
