Question 1

Bethanechol chloride is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Urinary strictures. Bethanechol is a direct muscarinic agonist that stimulates detrusor contraction and can increase intravesical pressure. If a patient has a mechanical obstruction such as urinary strictures, stimulating bladder contraction can worsen urinary outflow obstruction and raise the risk of bladder distention and injury. In contrast, neurogenic atony and other nonobstructive causes of urinary retention are typical indications for bethanechol.
Category reason: This question primarily tests a medication contraindication and mechanism-based safety (bethanechol, a cholinergic agonist), which is pharmacology-focused rather than a nursing prioritization/intervention scenario.

Question 2

What is the primary use of Injection Linezolid?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antibiotic for resistant infections Linezolid is an oxazolidinone antibiotic primarily used to treat serious infections caused by resistant gram-positive organisms (e.g., MRSA and VRE). It is indicated for conditions such as pneumonia and complicated skin/soft tissue infections when alternatives are limited. It is not an antifungal, sedative, or analgesic; those options do not match its mechanism or clinical indications.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a medication’s primary therapeutic use (indication) and drug class, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care/prioritization scenario.

Question 3

Heparin is a form of__?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anticoagulant Heparin is an anticoagulant used to prevent and treat thromboembolic disorders by enhancing antithrombin activity, which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa. It reduces clot formation rather than dissolving existing clots. It is not an analgesic (pain reliever), not an antibiotic (antimicrobial), and has no role as an antiabortion drug.
Category reason: This question tests identification of the drug class and pharmacologic action of heparin, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 4

Which of the following drugs is commonly used as first-line therapy in generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sertraline Sertraline is an SSRI, and SSRIs/SNRIs are commonly recommended as first-line pharmacotherapy for generalized anxiety disorder due to efficacy and a safer long-term profile. Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) can reduce anxiety quickly but is generally not first-line for ongoing treatment because of tolerance, dependence, and sedation risks. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used mainly for psychotic disorders, and lithium is a mood stabilizer used primarily in bipolar disorder, not GAD.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of medication classes and appropriate first-line drug therapy for a psychiatric condition, which is primarily pharmacology-focused foundational science rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 5

Which drug is used to manage neonatal respiratory depression caused by maternal opioid use?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Naloxone Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competitively reverses opioid effects at mu receptors, rapidly improving opioid-induced respiratory depression in the neonate. Midazolam and diazepam are benzodiazepines that can worsen respiratory depression rather than treat it. Paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic without any role in reversing opioid toxicity.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the specific antidote used to reverse opioid effects and its pharmacologic role, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than nursing-care prioritization.

Question 6

Zafirlukast is prescribed for a client with bronchial asthma. Which laboratory test does the nurse expect to be prescribed before the administration of this medication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Liver function tests. Zafirlukast (a leukotriene receptor antagonist) carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, including elevated transaminases and rare severe liver injury. Baseline liver function tests help identify pre-existing hepatic impairment and provide a comparison point for monitoring if symptoms of liver dysfunction occur. Routine CBC, platelet count, or neutrophil count are not standard baseline requirements specific to zafirlukast.
Category reason: This question tests medication-specific monitoring and adverse effect risk (hepatotoxicity) for zafirlukast, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than a nursing-prioritization scenario.

Question 7

The clinic nurse is collecting data on a client being admitted. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription the nurse should suspect that the client is being treated that for which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acne. Azelaic acid (Azelex) is a topical dicarboxylic acid used to treat mild-to-moderate acne due to its antimicrobial and comedolytic/anti-inflammatory effects. It is also used for rosacea, but that is not listed among the options. Eczema, hair loss, and bruising are not standard indications for azelaic acid.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a medication’s therapeutic indication (what condition azelaic acid treats), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 8

Beclomethasone used in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: All the above Beclomethasone is a corticosteroid used as an inhaled anti-inflammatory controller medication for asthma. As a topical corticosteroid, it is also used to reduce inflammation and immune activity in inflammatory skin conditions such as dermatitis and psoriasis. Because it has clinically established formulations/uses across these conditions, the best choice is that all listed indications apply.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a drug’s therapeutic uses and indications, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than a nursing-care decision scenario.

Question 9

Which of the following is /are given as IM injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diclofenac Diclofenac is commonly formulated and administered as an intramuscular (IM) injection for acute pain management (e.g., diclofenac sodium IM). While some of the other listed drugs may also have injectable formulations, diclofenac is the classic, routinely used IM analgesic among these options in standard clinical practice and exam contexts. Therefore, it is the best single answer when one choice is required.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of drug dosage forms and routes of administration, which is a core Pharmacology topic rather than a nursing judgment/prioritization scenario.

Question 10

Q-1. Which drug is used to treat acute asthma attack?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Albuterol Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that rapidly bronchodilates and is the first-line “rescue” medication for an acute asthma exacerbation. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) used for maintenance, not acute relief. Montelokast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for prevention/control rather than immediate symptom relief. Tiotropium is a long-acting anticholinergic primarily used as maintenance therapy (more commonly in COPD, sometimes add-on in asthma), not for acute attacks.
Category reason: This question tests drug selection and pharmacologic roles (rescue vs maintenance) in asthma management, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than a nursing-prioritization scenario.

Question 11

Q.4. Ringer lactate is contraindicated in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lactic acidosis Ringer lactate contains sodium lactate, which is metabolized (primarily in the liver) to bicarbonate; in significant lactic acidosis and/or impaired lactate metabolism (e.g., severe shock or liver failure), giving lactate-containing fluids may worsen hyperlactatemia and does not directly correct the underlying cause. While LR is commonly used for burns and hypovolemia and can be appropriate for volume resuscitation, its lactate component makes it relatively contraindicated when lactic acidosis is present. Diarrhoea is often associated with volume depletion and non–anion gap metabolic acidosis, where balanced crystalloids like LR can be useful.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of an IV crystalloid solution’s composition and contraindications, which is a foundational medication/IV fluid concept within Pharmacology rather than a nursing judgment scenario.

Question 12

Blocking action of serotonin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ondansetron Ondansetron is a selective 5-HT3 (serotonin) receptor antagonist that blocks serotonin-mediated signaling, especially in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vagal afferents in the GI tract, preventing nausea and vomiting. Amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic, paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic, and pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor—none are serotonin receptor blockers. Therefore, ondansetron best matches “blocking action of serotonin” among the options.
Category reason: This is a drug mechanism-of-action question (identifying a serotonin receptor antagonist), which is primarily Pharmacology rather than a nursing care/intervention scenario.

Question 13

Antidote for paracetamol toxicity is..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B, Acetylcysteine N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the specific antidote for acetaminophen/paracetamol overdose because it replenishes hepatic glutathione and enhances detoxification of the toxic metabolite NAPQI, preventing or limiting liver injury. It is most effective when started early (ideally within 8–10 hours) but is still beneficial when given later if toxicity is suspected. Atropine is used for cholinergic/organophosphate poisoning, and deferoxamine is an iron chelator for iron poisoning, so they do not address paracetamol hepatotoxicity.
Category reason: This is testing knowledge of a specific drug antidote and its mechanism/indication in poisoning, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing judgment/prioritization scenario.

Question 14

Which one has better gastrointestinal tolerance? Aceclofenac & Diclofenac?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aceclofenac Aceclofenac is generally associated with better gastrointestinal tolerability than diclofenac in comparative clinical use, with lower rates of dyspepsia and GI adverse effects reported in many studies. Both are NSAIDs and can still cause gastritis, ulceration, and GI bleeding due to COX-1 inhibition, but aceclofenac is considered relatively better tolerated. Therefore, when choosing between these two on GI tolerance alone, aceclofenac is the best answer.
Category reason: This item tests comparative adverse-effect profile of two NSAIDs (GI tolerance), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 15

Digoxin toxicity sign?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Yellow halos vision Digoxin toxicity classically causes visual disturbances such as yellow-green vision and seeing halos around lights (xanthopsia). Other common toxicity findings include GI upset (anorexia, nausea, vomiting) and cardiac dysrhythmias, often with bradycardia rather than tachycardia. Increased appetite and weight gain are not characteristic signs of digoxin toxicity; weight gain more often reflects fluid retention from worsening heart failure.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a classic adverse effect/toxicity manifestation of a specific medication (digoxin), which is primarily pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing process prioritization or intervention scenario.

Question 16

Ambroxol is used to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loosen phlegm Ambroxol is a mucolytic/expectorant used to decrease the viscosity of respiratory secretions and enhance mucociliary clearance, making sputum easier to cough up. It is therefore used for productive cough with thick mucus rather than for suppressing cough. It is not an antipyretic, so it does not reduce fever, and it is not an antibiotic, so it does not treat bacterial infections.
Category reason: This question tests the therapeutic use/mechanism of a specific medication (ambroxol), which is core Pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.

Question 17

Which of the following antitubercular drugs is associated with the red green colour blindness?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ethambutol Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis with decreased visual acuity and impaired red-green color discrimination. This adverse effect is dose-related and is a classic toxicity that requires baseline and periodic vision testing. The other listed antitubercular agents are more associated with hepatotoxicity (isoniazid, pyrazinamide) rather than red-green color blindness.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of a specific drug adverse effect (ethambutol causing optic neuritis with red-green color blindness), which is primarily Pharmacology rather than nursing-care prioritization.

Question 18

The drug amitriptyline is contraindicated in the following conditions except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Depression Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant and is used therapeutically to treat depression, so depression is not a contraindication. TCAs can worsen angle-closure glaucoma due to anticholinergic mydriasis and can increase intraocular pressure. They can also lower the seizure threshold (caution/avoid in epilepsy) and are generally avoided in the setting of recent myocardial infarction because of cardiotoxic effects (conduction abnormalities and arrhythmias).
Category reason: This item tests drug contraindications and clinical use of a tricyclic antidepressant, which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 19

Q-3. Which drug is used to treat Parkinson's disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Levodopa/Carbidopa Levodopa is the metabolic precursor of dopamine and helps replenish dopamine in the CNS, improving bradykinesia and rigidity in Parkinson’s disease. Carbidopa inhibits peripheral dopa-decarboxylase, increasing levodopa availability to the brain and reducing peripheral adverse effects like nausea and hypotension. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety/seizures, phenytoin is an antiepileptic, and atropine is an anticholinergic mainly used for bradycardia/organophosphate poisoning rather than Parkinson’s primary therapy.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the specific medication used for Parkinson’s disease treatment, which is primarily a drug-therapy identification topic within Pharmacology rather than a nursing-care decision scenario.

Question 20

MIST MAGNESIUM TRISISILICATE IS A GROUP OF WHAT DRUG??

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Antacid Magnesium trisilicate is an inorganic antacid used to neutralize gastric hydrochloric acid and relieve symptoms of dyspepsia/heartburn. It acts locally in the stomach by increasing gastric pH rather than treating infections (e.g., malaria) or hematologic deficiencies. It has no role as a uterine stimulant.
Category reason: This question tests identification of a drug’s class (magnesium trisilicate), which is a foundational pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 21

Which of the following types of analgesics should be avoided by a patient taking prednisone?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: NSAIDs Prednisone (a corticosteroid) increases the risk of gastrointestinal irritation, ulceration, and bleeding; combining it with NSAIDs further increases this risk due to additive GI mucosal injury and impaired protective prostaglandins. This combination is a common and clinically important drug interaction/contraindication consideration. Acetaminophen, opiates, and topical lidocaine do not share the same synergistic GI ulcer/bleed risk with prednisone.
Category reason: This item tests medication interaction/contraindication knowledge (prednisone with NSAIDs) rather than nursing care prioritization, placing it in Pharmacology.

Question 22

What is the primary use of Heparin Sodium Injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blood thinning/prevent clot Heparin sodium is an anticoagulant used to prevent formation and extension of blood clots by enhancing the activity of antithrombin, thereby inhibiting thrombin and factor Xa. Clinically it is used for venous thromboembolism (DVT/PE) treatment and prophylaxis and in situations such as acute coronary syndromes and maintaining line patency (in specific protocols). It is not an analgesic, antibiotic, or vitamin supplement.
Category reason: This question tests the medication’s primary therapeutic action/indication (anticoagulation), which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care priority scenario.

Question 23

Which medication can cause irreversible hearing Loss?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gentamicin Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity due to damage to cochlear and vestibular hair cells, leading to sensorineural hearing loss that may be irreversible. Risk increases with high trough levels, prolonged therapy, renal impairment, and concurrent ototoxic drugs (e.g., loop diuretics, vancomycin). Ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone, and metronidazole are not classic causes of irreversible ototoxicity; their adverse effects more commonly involve GI upset, CNS effects, tendinopathy (fluoroquinolones), or biliary sludging (ceftriaxone).
Category reason: This is a medication adverse-effect recognition question (aminoglycoside ototoxicity), which is primarily pharmacology rather than a nursing prioritization/intervention scenario.

Question 24

Anti-Emetics Safe in Pregnancy

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: M- Metochlopramide The image lists multiple anti-emetics (metoclopramide, ondansetron, doxylamine, dimenhydrinate) as “safe in pregnancy,” but it does not pose a single-best-answer question or provide criteria to choose one over the others. Clinically, several of these agents can be used during pregnancy depending on trimester, severity of symptoms, comorbidities, and risk–benefit assessment. Because more than one option could be correct, selecting a single definitive answer from the image alone would be unreliable. A well-formed MCQ would specify a scenario (e.g., first-line therapy for NVP) or ask which are safe (SATA).
Category reason: This content tests knowledge of medication use/safety in pregnancy, which is primarily pharmacology (drug indications and safety considerations) rather than nursing process or prioritization.

Question 25

Which One Of The Dosage from is used to Treat Throat Infection..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gargle Gargles are a topical liquid dosage form intended to be swished in the throat and then spat out, delivering local antiseptic/anti-inflammatory action directly to the oropharyngeal mucosa. This makes them commonly used for symptomatic relief and local treatment in throat infections (e.g., sore throat/pharyngitis). By contrast, linctus and elixir are oral liquids meant to be swallowed, and emulsions are dispersion systems not specifically designed for localized throat application.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of pharmaceutical dosage forms and their appropriate therapeutic use, which falls under Pharmacology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 26

Nasogastric method of Durg administration under........?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Enteral Nasogastric drug administration delivers medication through a tube into the stomach, which is part of the gastrointestinal tract. Routes that use the GI tract (oral, gastric tube, NG/PEG) are classified as enteral. Parenteral routes bypass the GI tract (e.g., IV/IM/SC), and topical refers to application on skin or mucous membranes for local effect.
Category reason: This question tests classification of a medication administration route (nasogastric) into enteral vs parenteral/topical, which is a foundational pharmacology concept rather than a nursing prioritization/intervention scenario.

Question 27

Antihypertensive drugs are used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: High blood pressure Antihypertensive drugs are medications specifically designed to lower elevated arterial blood pressure. They achieve this through mechanisms such as reducing cardiac output, decreasing systemic vascular resistance, or lowering intravascular volume (e.g., via diuresis). They do not treat hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or infections, which require glucose administration and antimicrobials, respectively.
Category reason: This question tests the therapeutic use/indication of a drug class (antihypertensives), which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing care priority scenario.

Question 28

Salbutamol is used for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Asthma Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short-acting beta-2 agonist bronchodilator used for rapid relief of bronchospasm, a key problem in asthma. It relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, improving airflow and relieving wheeze and shortness of breath. It is not used to treat leukemia, chickenpox, or tuberculosis, which require entirely different therapies.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of a specific medication and its clinical indication, which is primarily pharmacology rather than nursing judgment or care prioritization.

Question 29

When is it appropriate to recommend triple therapy as first line treatment of H. pylori infection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: If the clarithromycin resistance in that local area is less than 15% Clarithromycin-based triple therapy (PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin/metronidazole) is recommended as empiric first-line therapy only when local clarithromycin resistance is low (commonly

Question 30

Beta - blockers primarily work by :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Reducing heart rate Beta-blockers antagonize beta-adrenergic receptors (especially β1 in the heart), leading to decreased sympathetic effects on the SA/AV nodes. This produces negative chronotropy (lower heart rate) and negative inotropy (reduced contractility), reducing myocardial oxygen demand. While some beta-blockers can also lower blood pressure via reduced cardiac output and decreased renin release, the primary direct effect among the options is reduction of heart rate. They do not directly dissolve clots or act primarily as diuretics.
Category reason: This question tests the mechanism of action of a drug class (beta-blockers), which is a core pharmacology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 31

Drugs ending in –sartan are used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Managing high blood pressure Drugs ending in “-sartan” are angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) such as losartan and valsartan. They lower blood pressure by blocking angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor, reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone-mediated sodium/water retention. They are commonly used in hypertension and may also benefit patients with diabetic nephropathy or heart failure. They are not used for cholesterol lowering, antifungal treatment, or as hypnotics.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a drug class suffix (-sartan) and its therapeutic use, which is core medication knowledge in Pharmacology rather than a nursing care/priority scenario.

Question 32

Which of the following is an interoperative medication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Succinylcholine Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent used intraoperatively to facilitate rapid sequence intubation and provide skeletal muscle relaxation during anesthesia. Diazepam and midazolam are benzodiazepines typically used preoperatively for anxiolysis/sedation and amnesia rather than as primary intraoperative paralytics. Atropine is an anticholinergic often used to treat intraoperative bradycardia or reduce secretions, but it is not the classic agent for intraoperative muscle relaxation.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of medication classes and typical perioperative uses (neuromuscular blocker vs sedative/anxiolytic vs anticholinergic), which is primarily pharmacology content rather than a nursing prioritization/intervention scenario.

Question 33

Which TB drug causes orange discoloration of body fluids?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rifampin Rifampin commonly causes orange-red discoloration of body fluids such as urine, sweat, tears, and saliva due to the drug’s pigmentation. This is a benign and expected effect but patients should be counseled because it can stain contact lenses and clothing. The other first-line TB drugs have different notable adverse effects (e.g., isoniazid—peripheral neuropathy/hepatotoxicity; ethambutol—optic neuritis; pyrazinamide—hyperuricemia/hepatotoxicity).
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a characteristic adverse effect of a specific anti-tuberculosis medication, which is a core Pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-priority/action scenario.

Question 34

Heparin prevents:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blood clotting Heparin is an anticoagulant that enhances the activity of antithrombin, thereby inhibiting thrombin (factor IIa) and factor Xa. This action prevents formation and extension of blood clots (thrombi) and is used for prophylaxis and treatment of thromboembolic disorders. It does not treat diabetes, infections, or fever.
Category reason: This question tests the mechanism/therapeutic effect of a medication (heparin), which is primarily Pharmacology rather than a nursing-intervention judgment item.

Question 35

Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder should be a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Urinary strictures. Bethanechol is a direct cholinergic (muscarinic) agonist that stimulates detrusor contraction to promote urination. In the presence of urinary outflow obstruction such as urethral/urinary strictures, increasing bladder contractions can worsen urinary retention and precipitate painful bladder distention or potential injury. Therefore, urinary strictures are a contraindication, whereas gastric/neurogenic atony are therapeutic uses and GERD is not a primary contraindication.
Category reason: This question tests medication contraindications and mechanism-based safety for bethanechol, which is primarily Pharmacology knowledge rather than nursing process prioritization.

Question 36

Which of following drugs is recognized as teratogenic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C) Warfarin Warfarin is a known teratogen and is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially during the first trimester, due to risk of fetal malformations (e.g., nasal hypoplasia and stippled epiphyses) and fetal bleeding. In contrast, enoxaparin (LMWH) does not cross the placenta and is commonly used for anticoagulation in pregnancy when indicated. Regular insulin is considered safe in pregnancy because it does not cross the placenta in clinically significant amounts.
Category reason: This item tests medication safety based on drug effects in pregnancy (teratogenicity), which is core pharmacology knowledge rather than nursing process or prioritization.

Question 37

Red colour of urine cab be seen when taking?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rifampicin Rifampicin commonly causes orange-red discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, tears, and saliva, due to the drug’s pigmented metabolites. This is a benign and expected effect that patients should be counseled about to reduce anxiety and improve adherence. Tetracycline may darken teeth and affect bone growth, isoniazid is more associated with peripheral neuropathy/hepatotoxicity, and chloroquine is linked to retinal toxicity rather than red urine.
Category reason: This question tests an adverse/expected drug effect (urine discoloration) associated with a specific medication, which is a core Pharmacology concept.

Question 38

Case: A 63-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis presents with black stools and abdominal discomfort. She takes ibuprofen regularly. Question: Which medication would prevent recurrence of her symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Misoprostol Her black stools (melena) and regular ibuprofen use suggest NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease from impaired gastric mucosal protection. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 analog that increases mucus and bicarbonate secretion and helps maintain mucosal blood flow, reducing the risk of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers and recurrence when NSAIDs must be continued. H2 blockers (ranitidine) and sucralfate are less effective for preventing NSAID-related gastric ulcers, and while PPIs (esomeprazole) treat and can prevent ulcers, the classic prophylactic agent specifically for NSAID-induced ulcer prevention is misoprostol.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of medication selection and mechanism for preventing NSAID-induced peptic ulcer recurrence, which is primarily pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 39

Which of the following factors increases the likelihood of a drug passing into breast milk?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: High lipid solubility Drugs that are more lipid soluble cross biological membranes more readily and can partition into the fat content of breast milk. In contrast, high molecular weight generally reduces transfer into milk. Lower maternal dose and shorter half-life typically decrease the amount and duration of drug exposure available for passage into breast milk.
Category reason: This question tests pharmacokinetic properties (e.g., lipid solubility, molecular weight, half-life) that influence drug transfer into breast milk, which is primarily Pharmacology content rather than a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 40

Dose of the T.T Injection ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 0.5ml The standard dose for tetanus toxoid (TT) vaccine is 0.5 mL per injection, typically given intramuscularly (e.g., deltoid). This volume is consistent across common toxoid-containing vaccines (TT/Td/Tdap) in routine immunization schedules. The larger volumes listed (1.5–2.5 mL) are not standard vaccine doses and would be inappropriate for TT administration.
Category reason: This item tests factual knowledge of a vaccine dosage (tetanus toxoid), which is medication/vaccine administration content rather than nursing prioritization or care planning; therefore it fits Pharmacology within NursingScience.

Question 41

All these are Antihistamine except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: cefixime Loratadine and cetrizine (cetirizine) are H1-antihistamines commonly used for allergic rhinitis and urticaria. Cefixime is not an antihistamine; it is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. Therefore, cefixime is the exception among the listed drugs.
Category reason: This question tests identification of drug classes (antihistamines vs antibiotic), which is a foundational pharmacology concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 42

Drug of choice in pregnancy to treat hypertension..

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Methyldopa Methyldopa is a centrally acting alpha-2 agonist with a long history of use and established safety in pregnancy for chronic hypertension. It lowers blood pressure by reducing sympathetic outflow without compromising uteroplacental blood flow as significantly as many alternatives. Metolazone is a thiazide-like diuretic not considered first-line in pregnancy; methylcobalamine is vitamin B12, and metyrapone is used in endocrine testing/management (e.g., Cushing syndrome), not hypertension.
Category reason: This item tests selection of an antihypertensive that is considered safe and preferred in pregnancy, which is primarily medication knowledge and thus belongs to Pharmacology.

Question 43

A pregnant woman with newly diagnosed HIV is starting antiretroviral therapy. Which drug should be avoided due to its teratogenic potential?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Efavirenz Efavirenz has been associated with teratogenic risk (notably neural tube defects) when exposure occurs in early pregnancy, so it has historically been avoided in the first trimester when alternatives are available. Zidovudine and lamivudine (NRTIs) are commonly used in pregnancy to reduce maternal viral load and vertical transmission. Lopinavir/ritonavir has also been used in pregnancy and is not classically singled out for teratogenicity like efavirenz.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of antiretroviral drug safety/teratogenicity in pregnancy, which is primarily a pharmacology concept rather than a nursing-care prioritization scenario.

Question 44

Co-administration of which drug with statins increases the risk of myopathy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amiodarone Amiodarone can increase statin serum concentrations (notably simvastatin and atorvastatin) by inhibiting drug metabolism/transport (e.g., CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein), raising the risk of statin-associated myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. This interaction is clinically significant and often requires using a lower statin dose or selecting a statin with less CYP3A4 dependence (e.g., pravastatin, rosuvastatin). Amlodipine has a weaker interaction (primarily dose limits with simvastatin), while metformin and ranitidine are not typical causes of increased statin myopathy risk.
Category reason: This item tests drug–drug interaction knowledge and adverse effect risk with statins, which is primarily Pharmacology rather than nursing care prioritization or safety procedures.

Question 45

Chloroquine is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Malaria Chloroquine is an antimalarial drug effective against chloroquine-sensitive Plasmodium species, particularly for treatment and prophylaxis in susceptible regions. It works by inhibiting heme polymerization in the parasite’s food vacuole, leading to toxic heme accumulation and parasite death. It is not used as standard therapy for tuberculosis, diabetes, or typhoid fever.
Category reason: This is a drug-indication question focused on what condition chloroquine treats, which is core Pharmacology knowledge rather than a nursing care/intervention decision.

Question 46

A patient came with a twisted neck after prochlorperazine (stemetil). What will you give for this side effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Promethazine A twisted neck after prochlorperazine is an acute dystonic reaction (extrapyramidal side effect) due to dopamine D2 blockade. First-line treatment is an anticholinergic (e.g., benztropine) or an antihistamine with anticholinergic properties (e.g., diphenhydramine/promethazine) given promptly. Among the options, promethazine best addresses the dystonia, whereas ketorolac, morphine, and paracetamol are analgesics that do not reverse EPS.
Category reason: This question tests recognition and pharmacologic management of an adverse drug reaction (acute dystonia) caused by a dopamine-blocking antiemetic, which is a Pharmacology concept.

Question 47

Which FDA pregnancy category includes drugs with controlled human studies showing no fetal risk in the first trimester?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Category A FDA Pregnancy Category A is defined by adequate, well-controlled studies in pregnant women that have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus in the first trimester (and no evidence of risk in later trimesters). This is the only category that explicitly requires controlled human data showing no fetal risk. Category B relies on animal data or limited human data, while Categories C and D involve increasing evidence of risk.
Category reason: This tests knowledge of FDA pregnancy drug risk categories, which is a core pharmacology classification rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 48

A farmer develops salivation, sweating, and miosis after exposure to insecticide. The most appropriate antidote is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Atropine + Pralidoxime Salivation, sweating, and miosis after insecticide exposure strongly suggests organophosphate poisoning causing acetylcholinesterase inhibition and excess acetylcholine (cholinergic toxidrome). Atropine competitively blocks muscarinic receptors to reverse bronchorrhea/bradycardia/secretions, while pralidoxime (2-PAM) regenerates acetylcholinesterase (especially at nicotinic sites) if given early before “aging.” The other options are cholinergic agents or acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, which would worsen symptoms rather than treat them.
Category reason: This is a pharmacology/toxicology question testing the specific antidote for organophosphate (insecticide) poisoning rather than a nursing care decision-making scenario.

Question 49

Which among the following is a complication of spinal anesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C.Hypotension Spinal anesthesia commonly causes sympathetic blockade, leading to vasodilation, decreased systemic vascular resistance, and reduced venous return, which results in hypotension. This is a classic and frequent complication, especially in patients with reduced intravascular volume or high spinal levels. Tachycardia and hypertension are not typical; bradycardia is more characteristic due to unopposed vagal tone. Dyspnea can occur with high/total spinal from respiratory muscle/intercostal involvement, but hypotension is the hallmark and most common hemodynamic complication.
Category reason: This question tests a foundational adverse effect/complication of a specific anesthetic technique (neuraxial/spinal anesthesia), which is primarily pharmacology/anesthesia knowledge rather than a nursing prioritization or intervention scenario.

Question 50

ORS is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diarrhoea Oral rehydration salts (ORS) are used to treat and prevent dehydration due to acute watery diarrhoea by replacing lost water and electrolytes. The glucose in ORS promotes sodium (and therefore water) absorption via the sodium-glucose co-transport mechanism in the intestine. ORS does not treat the infectious cause itself but is a cornerstone of supportive management to reduce morbidity and mortality from diarrhoeal illness.
Category reason: This is primarily a medication/therapy use question about what ORS (an oral electrolyte-glucose solution) is indicated for, which fits Pharmacology rather than nursing judgment or prioritization.

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