Question 1

Antidote for mercury poisoning?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mercury toxicity is treated with chelating agents that bind mercury for renal excretion. Dimercaprol (BAL) and succimer are standard chelators for mercury and arsenic. EDTA is primarily used for lead, deferoxamine for iron, and naloxone is an opioid antagonist, not a chelator.

Question 2

Cialis tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cialis (tadalafil) is a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor that increases cGMP levels, enhancing nitric oxide–mediated vasodilation in the corpus cavernosum to facilitate erection. It is indicated for erectile dysfunction and can also be used for BPH and pulmonary arterial hypertension under other brand names. It is not a therapy for epilepsy or meningitis, and it is not used to treat essential systemic hypertension.

Question 3

Duphaston tablets is used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Duphaston contains dydrogesterone, an oral progestin used to treat progesterone deficiency states. It provides luteal phase support in infertility management and is used for conditions such as irregular menses and threatened miscarriage. It does not treat infectious diseases like pneumonia, malaria, or typhoid. Therefore, infertility is the correct choice among the options.

Question 4

Which of the following medicine is used to treat respiratory disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist bronchodilator used for quick relief of bronchospasm in asthma and COPD, classic respiratory diseases. It relaxes airway smooth muscle, improving airflow and relieving wheezing and dyspnea. Chloroquine is an antimalarial, tramadol is an analgesic, and atenolol is a beta-1 blocker for cardiovascular conditions, not primary respiratory therapy.

Question 5

The universal antidote in digoxin toxicity is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Digoxin immune Fab (brand Digibind/DigiFab) is the specific antidote for digoxin toxicity. It binds free digoxin, forming inactive complexes that are renally excreted, rapidly reversing life‑threatening arrhythmias and hyperkalemia due to digoxin. Atropine may temporize bradycardia but does not neutralize digoxin; naloxone is for opioid overdose; adrenaline is not an antidote for digoxin.

Question 6

Paracetamol is commonly used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is an analgesic and antipyretic that lowers fever by inhibiting central prostaglandin synthesis and resetting the hypothalamic thermoregulatory set point. It does not possess antitussive properties, so it does not treat cough. It has no role in increasing appetite or reducing weight. Therefore, reducing fever is the correct common use.

Question 7

Mefenamic acid tablets belongs to which of the following class?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mefenamic acid is a fenamate nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). It inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, reducing prostaglandin synthesis and thereby relieving pain and inflammation, commonly used for dysmenorrhea and mild to moderate pain. It is not a diuretic, cytotoxic agent, or a coagulant; in fact, NSAIDs can increase bleeding risk and affect renal function.

Question 8

Slidenafil tablets used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sildenafil is a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor that increases cGMP in the corpus cavernosum, enhancing nitric oxide–mediated vasodilation and promoting penile erection. Its primary indication is erectile dysfunction (impotence). It is not used for menstruation or dysphasia. Although also used for pulmonary arterial hypertension, it is not a general treatment for dyspnea.

Question 9

Tranexamic Acid injection is used?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent that blocks the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, thereby preventing fibrin clot breakdown. This stabilizes formed clots and reduces bleeding in settings such as trauma, surgery, and heavy menstrual bleeding. It has no therapeutic role in viral measles, malaria, or diarrhea.

Question 10

What is the course time of isoniazid for tb patient?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For drug-susceptible active tuberculosis, standard therapy includes isoniazid throughout a 6‑month course: 2 months of HRZE followed by 4 months of isoniazid plus rifampin. This duration achieves high cure rates and limits relapse. While latent TB regimens may vary (6–9 months of isoniazid monotherapy), for a TB patient on standard treatment the course of isoniazid is 6 months.

Question 11

Paracetamol is mainly used for ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is an analgesic and antipyretic that reduces fever and relieves mild to moderate pain by inhibiting central prostaglandin synthesis. It has no antihypertensive effects and does not treat diabetes. Therefore, it is used primarily for fever and mild pain.

Question 12

A patient on diuretics develops hearing loss. Which diuretic is most likely responsible?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Loop diuretics, particularly furosemide, are associated with dose-related ototoxicity, especially with rapid IV administration or high serum levels. They disrupt electrolyte transport in the stria vascularis of the cochlea, impairing endolymph homeostasis and damaging hair cells. Thiazides and potassium-sparing diuretics (spironolactone, amiloride) rarely cause hearing loss.

Question 13

What is the mechanism of action of cetirizine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cetirizine is a second-generation antihistamine that selectively antagonizes peripheral H1 histamine receptors, reducing histamine-mediated allergic symptoms such as itching, sneezing, and rhinorrhea. It does not inhibit cyclooxygenase, which is the mechanism of NSAIDs. It has no dopaminergic agonist activity and does not inhibit serotonin reuptake, which is characteristic of SSRIs.

Question 14

Ibuprofen is act as a...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits cyclooxygenase enzymes, decreasing prostaglandin synthesis. This produces analgesic and antipyretic effects, making it a pain reliever. It has no antibacterial, antifungal, or antiviral activity and does not treat infections.

Question 15

Heparin prevents?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Heparin is an anticoagulant that enhances antithrombin III, inhibiting thrombin and factor Xa. This prevents conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and thus prevents formation and propagation of blood clots. It does not affect digestion, treat infection, or reduce inflammation directly.

Question 16

The common antibiotic used in UTI treatment is _____?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Urinary tract infections are commonly caused by gram-negative organisms such as E. coli. Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, achieves high urinary concentrations and has activity against many UTI pathogens. The other options are not antibiotics—paracetamol is an analgesic, insulin is a hormone, and vitamin C is a supplement. Therefore, ciprofloxacin is the correct choice among the listed options.

Question 17

Child with yellow teeth after taking antibiotics?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tetracyclines chelate calcium and deposit in developing teeth and bones, causing permanent yellow-brown discoloration when given during tooth formation. For this reason, they are contraindicated in pregnancy and in children under 8 years. Amoxicillin, ciprofloxacin, and azithromycin do not typically cause this characteristic tooth staining.

Question 18

Zyrtec tablets is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Zyrtec (cetirizine) is a second-generation H1 antihistamine indicated for allergic conditions such as allergic rhinitis and chronic urticaria. It blocks histamine receptors, reducing symptoms like sneezing, rhinorrhea, itching, and hives. It has no role in treating infectious diarrheal illnesses like cholera, nonspecific diarrhea, or inflammatory bowel diseases such as colitis.

Question 19

SSRIs act by inhibiting reabsorption of which neurotransmitter?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors block the presynaptic serotonin transporter (SERT), reducing serotonin reuptake into neurons. This increases serotonin availability in the synaptic cleft, enhancing serotonergic neurotransmission. They do not primarily inhibit norepinephrine or dopamine reuptake, and cortisol is a hormone, not a neurotransmitter.

Question 20

Which medicine is used to lower blood pressure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amlodipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that relaxes vascular smooth muscle, reducing systemic vascular resistance and lowering blood pressure. Cetirizine is an antihistamine for allergies, paracetamol is an analgesic/antipyretic, and omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor for acid-related disorders. Therefore, amlodipine is the only antihypertensive listed.

Question 21

Which medicine can cause dry cough as a side effect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough due to accumulation of bradykinin in the respiratory tract. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, so cough is a well-known adverse effect. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, which may cause edema and flushing but not cough. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and aspirin is an NSAID; neither typically causes dry cough.

Question 22

Which one is drug of choice in BPH (Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tamsulosin is a selective alpha-1A adrenergic antagonist that targets receptors in the prostate and bladder neck, relaxing smooth muscle and improving urinary flow in BPH. Its selectivity minimizes systemic vasodilation and orthostatic hypotension compared with nonselective agents like prazosin. Labetalol and yohimbine are not indicated for BPH, and 'Medraxolol' is not a standard therapy. Therefore, tamsulosin is the preferred drug of choice.

Question 23

Which of the following is FALSE about benzylpenicillin (Penicillin G)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Penicillin G has narrow activity mainly against Gram-positive organisms and some Gram-negative cocci (e.g., Neisseria), but it is not effective against most Gram-negative bacilli due to the outer membrane barrier and beta-lactamases. It is commonly combined with aminoglycosides for synergistic killing in enterococcal endocarditis. Resistance to penicillin G is common via penicillinase production and altered PBPs. Hepatotoxicity is not a typical adverse effect of benzylpenicillin.

Question 24

Salbutamol is used in __?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is a short‑acting β2-adrenergic agonist that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, rapidly relieving bronchospasm. It is used as a rescue medication in asthma and COPD exacerbations. It does not treat anxiety or confusion and is not indicated for hypertension; in fact, it may cause tachycardia and tremor as side effects.

Question 25

Citrizine hydrochloride is used for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cetirizine hydrochloride is a second‑generation H1 antihistamine used to relieve symptoms of allergic rhinitis and urticaria by blocking peripheral histamine receptors. It reduces sneezing, rhinorrhea, itching, and hives. It is not an antiemetic, analgesic, or antipyretic; therefore it is not used for vomiting, pain, or fever.

Question 26

Which of the following drugs is an anti-platelet?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent that irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 in platelets, decreasing thromboxane A2 production and thus platelet aggregation. Propranolol is a beta-blocker, lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker; none have primary antiplatelet effects. Therefore, aspirin is the correct choice.

Question 27

Citalopram is a tablets that used to treat ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat major depressive disorder and related depressive symptoms. It works by increasing serotonin levels in the CNS. It is not indicated for vomiting, allergies, or typhoid. Therefore, the best choice is depression (listed as 'Depressants').

Question 28

Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Combined oral contraceptive pills suppress the hypothalamic–pituitary–ovarian axis, inhibiting the LH surge and thereby preventing ovulation. The progestin component also thickens cervical mucus and thins the endometrium, reducing fertilization and implantation. They do not kill ova or sperm and do not create a physical barrier. Thus, the primary mechanism is prevention of ovulation.

Question 29

Azithromycin is use for..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, notably community-acquired pneumonia caused by organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Mycoplasma, and Chlamydophila. It does not treat asthma, which requires bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory therapy. It has no role in treating diabetes. Therefore, pneumonia is the correct indication among the options.

Question 30

Hepa-Merz injection is used for the treatment of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepa‑Merz (L‑ornithine L‑aspartate) lowers serum ammonia by enhancing the urea cycle and glutamine synthesis. It is indicated for hyperammonemia and hepatic encephalopathy commonly associated with chronic liver disease such as cirrhosis. It has no role in treating myocardial infarction, AIDS, or irritable bowel syndrome.

Question 31

Valsartan tablet is used for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that inhibits the effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor, leading to vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion. This lowers systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure, making it a first-line therapy for hypertension. It may also be used in heart failure and post–myocardial infarction, but it is not indicated for pain, measles, or paralysis.

Question 32

Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acetaminophen is recommended as a first-line analgesic for mild to moderate pain due to good efficacy and a favorable safety profile when used appropriately. Opioids like morphine are not first-line because of risks such as respiratory depression, dependence, and adverse effects. Clonidine is an adjuvant primarily for neuropathic pain or as part of regional anesthesia. Ketamine is reserved for severe, refractory pain or procedural anesthesia.

Question 33

Insulin is used for...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Insulin is a pancreatic hormone used to control hyperglycemia in diabetes mellitus. It is essential therapy for type 1 diabetes and is also used in type 2 diabetes when glycemic targets are not met or during acute hyperglycemic crises. Insulin lowers blood glucose by promoting cellular uptake of glucose and inhibiting hepatic glucose production. It is not indicated for vomiting or pain.

Question 34

The chemical name of Aspirin is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aspirin is the acetylated derivative of salicylic acid, known chemically as acetylsalicylic acid (ASA). Sodium salicylate is a different salicylate salt, not aspirin. Methyl salicylate is oil of wintergreen, and ethyl salicylate is another ester used mainly for flavor or fragrance. Therefore, the correct chemical name for aspirin is acetylsalicylic acid.

Question 35

_____ is the drug of choice in the treatment of hypertension in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Methyldopa has a long record of safety and efficacy for managing chronic hypertension during pregnancy. ACE inhibitors (captopril) and ARBs (losartan) are contraindicated due to fetotoxic effects such as renal dysgenesis and skull abnormalities. Doxazosin is not first-line for pregnancy hypertension. While labetalol and nifedipine are also preferred agents, they are not options here; thus methyldopa is the best choice among the listed drugs.

Question 36

Danazol tablets is used for the treatment of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Danazol is a synthetic androgen that suppresses pituitary gonadotropins (LH/FSH), creating a hypoestrogenic environment that causes endometrial atrophy and relieves symptoms of endometriosis. It is also used for fibrocystic breast disease and hereditary angioedema prophylaxis. It has no role in treating gout, amyloidosis, or bilharzia (schistosomiasis).

Question 37

Fentyl injection is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fentanyl is a potent synthetic opioid used as an analgesic and as an adjunct to anesthesia for induction and maintenance due to its rapid onset and strong analgesic effect. It blunts sympathetic responses during surgery and provides perioperative pain control. It is not a treatment for hepatitis or fever. While it may be used to relieve pain in trauma, its primary labeled use in this context is as an anesthetic adjunct rather than a disease-specific therapy.

Question 38

Which of the following medications is used to treat hypertension?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor indicated for the treatment of hypertension by blocking conversion of angiotensin I to II, leading to vasodilation and reduced aldosterone effects. Ibuprofen and aspirin are NSAIDs used for pain/inflammation and can raise blood pressure or blunt antihypertensive effects. Acetaminophen is an analgesic/antipyretic with no antihypertensive action.

Question 39

Sucralfate is used in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sucralfate is a mucosal protectant that polymerizes in acidic environments to form a viscous barrier adhering to ulcer craters, shielding them from acid and pepsin. It promotes healing of duodenal ulcers and is used for stress-ulcer prophylaxis. It does not treat angina, cough, or hemorrhage.

Question 40

Toradol injection is used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Toradol (ketorolac) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug indicated for the short‑term management of moderate to severe acute pain, often postoperative. It provides analgesia by inhibiting cyclooxygenase and reducing prostaglandin synthesis. It does not treat asthma, typhoid, or diarrhea, which require different therapeutic approaches.

Question 41

Which of the following medicine is used for induction of labour?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cervidil is dinoprostone (prostaglandin E2), used for cervical ripening and induction of labor by softening the cervix and promoting uterine contractions. Atenolol is a beta-blocker for hypertension, Metformin is an antidiabetic agent, and Gabapentin is used for seizures/neuropathic pain. These agents have no role in labor induction.

Question 42

Amoxycillin is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Amoxicillin is a beta-lactam penicillin-class antibiotic that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding penicillin-binding proteins. It provides broad coverage against many gram-positive and some gram-negative organisms and is used for infections such as otitis media, sinusitis, and urinary tract infections. It is not an antipyretic or anti-inflammatory agent, and it is not an antibody.

Question 43

Losanta tablets is used to treat?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Losanta refers to losartan potassium, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB). ARBs lower blood pressure by blocking AT1 receptors, reducing vasoconstriction and aldosterone effects. They are indicated for hypertension and also help protect kidneys in diabetic nephropathy. They are not treatments for bronchitis, encephalitis, or spondylosis.

Question 44

Carbamazepine, primarily used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant that stabilizes inactivated sodium channels, reducing repetitive neuronal firing, and is a first-line agent for focal (partial) seizures and useful in generalized tonic-clonic seizures. It is not indicated for hypertension, type 1 diabetes, or general inflammation. Additional common uses include trigeminal neuralgia and as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder.

Question 45

Which drug can be used as a patch?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clonidine is available as a transdermal therapeutic system (Catapres-TTS) that delivers the drug through the skin for sustained control of blood pressure. Vitamin C and amoxicillin are not administered as transdermal patches. An ointment formulation is topical, not a patch delivery system. Therefore, clonidine is the correct choice.

Question 46

Erythropoietin injection is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Erythropoietin (epoetin alfa) is a hematopoietic growth factor that stimulates erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow to increase red blood cell production. It is indicated for anemia, particularly anemia of chronic kidney disease and chemotherapy-associated anemia. It does not treat infection, pain, or vomiting. Key risks include hypertension and thromboembolic events.

Question 47

Which of the following is an NSAID (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that inhibits COX-1 and COX-2, decreasing prostaglandin synthesis to reduce pain, fever, and inflammation. Codeine and morphine are opioid analgesics, not NSAIDs. Acetaminophen is an analgesic/antipyretic with minimal anti-inflammatory activity, so it is not classified as an NSAID.

Question 48

Another name of Paracetamol is called what?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paracetamol is known as acetaminophen in the U.S.; both names refer to the same compound (APAP). It is an analgesic and antipyretic with minimal anti-inflammatory activity. Ibuprofen is a different NSAID, and aspirin is acetylsalicylic acid. M&B Para is a brand formulation, not the generic synonym.

Question 49

Which vitamin is given to reduce severity in measles?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: High-dose vitamin A supplementation is recommended for children with measles and has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality. It supports immune function and restores epithelial integrity, decreasing complications such as pneumonia, diarrhea, and corneal ulceration/blindness. Thus, vitamin A reduces the severity and duration of measles illness.

Question 50

First-line drug used in malaria treatment is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chloroquine is a classic first-line antimalarial for chloroquine-sensitive Plasmodium infections, inhibiting heme detoxification in the parasite. The other choices are antibacterial agents: penicillin and streptomycin target bacteria, and rifampicin is primarily used for tuberculosis. They are not effective treatments for malaria.

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