Pharmacology Practice Test 19
Pharmacology NCLEX Practice Test
Pharmacology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Pharmacology. This section details drug mechanisms, safe administration, and patient education across nursing specialties. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 19th part of the Pharmacology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Pharmacology Practice Test 19
What type of overdose does Acetylcysteine treat?
- Opioid
- Acetaminophen
- Ethylene glycol
- Benzodiazepines
Explanation: Answer reason: N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity; it replenishes glutathione to detoxify NAPQI and prevent hepatic injury.
Bromocriptine drugs are classified as which type of drug?
- Antispasmodic drug
- Antiparkinson drug
- Antipsychotic drug
- Antiprotozoal drug
Explanation: Answer reason: Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson’s disease management; thus it is classified as an antiparkinson drug.
What is the antidote for lead toxicity in a child?
- Vitamin K
- Calcium disodium edetate
- Flumazenil
- Hydroxocobalamin
Explanation: Answer reason: Calcium disodium edetate (CaNa2EDTA) chelates lead and is used to treat pediatric lead poisoning. Vitamin K reverses warfarin, flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, and hydroxocobalamin treats cyanide toxicity.
What is the antidote for Magnesium Sulfate?
- Calcium Disodium
- Calcium Gluconate
- Protamine Sulfate
- Acetylcysteine
Explanation: Answer reason: Calcium gluconate directly antagonizes the neuromuscular and cardiac effects of magnesium, reversing magnesium sulfate toxicity.
Codeine syrup is used for which condition?
- Cholera
- Cough
- Pneumonia
- Headache
Explanation: Answer reason: Codeine is an opioid with antitussive action that suppresses the cough reflex via the medullary cough center; hence used in cough syrups, not for cholera, pneumonia, or simple headaches.
What is the drug of choice for leprosy?
- DEC
- Dapsone
- Streptomycin
- Ivermectin
Explanation: Answer reason: Dapsone is the primary first-line agent used in multidrug therapy for leprosy. DEC treats filariasis, streptomycin is for TB/plague, and ivermectin is for onchocerciasis/strongyloidiasis.
Frusemide drug is used as?
- Antibiotic
- Diuretics
- Analgesic
- Both B & C
Explanation: Answer reason: Frusemide (furosemide) is a loop diuretic used to promote diuresis; it is neither an antibiotic nor an analgesic.
What is the best method of treatment for methyl alcohol poisoning?
- Calcium gluconate
- Ethyl alcohol
- Amphetamines
- 1% Ammonia
Explanation: Answer reason: Ethanol competitively inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing metabolism of methanol to toxic formic acid; it is a standard antidotal therapy when fomepizole is not used.
What is clarithromycin commonly used to treat?
- Diarrhea
- Pylori infection
- Syphilis
- Malaria
Explanation: Answer reason: Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used in combination regimens to eradicate Helicobacter pylori. Syphilis is treated primarily with penicillin, and malaria requires antimalarials.
What is acetaminophen tablet used for?
- Cough
- Pain
- Allergy
- Fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Acetaminophen is an analgesic and antipyretic. It is commonly used to relieve mild to moderate pain; while it also reduces fever, the best single choice here is Pain.
Which of the following is not a side effect of salbutamol?
- Muscle tremors
- Sedation
- Palpitation
- Nervousness
Explanation: Answer reason: Salbutamol (a beta-2 agonist) commonly causes tremor, palpitations, and nervousness due to sympathetic stimulation; sedation is not a typical effect.
What is the main use of Syp Pedicloryl?
- To reduce pain
- To make the child sleep
- To stop cough
- To reduce fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Pedicloryl (triclofos) is a pediatric sedative-hypnotic used to induce sleep/sedation, not for pain, cough, or fever.
Which of the following medicines is used for Typhoid fever?
- Clobazam
- Zithromax
- Imodium
- Rifaximin
Explanation: Answer reason: Azithromycin (brand Zithromax) is an effective systemic antibiotic for Salmonella typhi infections. Clobazam is an anticonvulsant, Imodium is an antidiarrheal, and Rifaximin is a non‑absorbed antibiotic used mainly for traveler’s diarrhea, not typhoid.
Hydroxocobalamin is an antidote to treat which condition?
- Iron Toxicity
- Lead Toxicity
- Cyanide Poisoning
- Ethylene Glycol Poisoning
Explanation: Answer reason: Hydroxocobalamin binds cyanide to form cyanocobalamin, detoxifying cyanide. Other options have different antidotes (e.g., deferoxamine for iron, EDTA/DMSA for lead, fomepizole for ethylene glycol).
What is the primary use of the medication Norethisterone?
- Stop bleeding
- Abortion
- Delay menstrual period
- Start labour pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Norethisterone (norethindrone) is a synthetic progestin commonly used to control the menstrual cycle and delay menses; it is not used for abortion or to induce labor.
Vitamin K is used to treat toxicity of which medication?
- Anticholinergic medications
- Magnesium Sulfate
- Warfarin
- Heparin
Explanation: Answer reason: Vitamin K reverses warfarin-induced anticoagulation by restoring synthesis of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X).
Physostigmine is an antidote that can be used to treat what condition?
- Cyanide Poisoning
- Cholinergic Toxicity
- Iron Toxicity
- Anticholinergic Toxicity
Explanation: Answer reason: Physostigmine is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that increases acetylcholine and reverses antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) toxicity; cyanide, cholinergic, and iron toxicities require different antidotes.
Lorazepam injection is used for which condition?
- Hyperlipidemia
- Hypertension
- Cirrhosis
- Anxiety
Explanation: Answer reason: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine with anxiolytic and sedative properties, used to treat anxiety; the other options are unrelated disease conditions.
Which of the following medicines is used for nausea during pregnancy?
- Artemeter
- Naproxen
- Diazepam
- Meclizine
Explanation: Answer reason: Meclizine is an antihistamine antiemetic commonly used for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy (historically category B). Artemeter is an antimalarial, naproxen is an NSAID with pregnancy risks, and diazepam is a benzodiazepine not used for nausea and with teratogenic concerns.
What is the drug of choice for scabies in pregnancy?
- Ivermectin
- Crotamiton
- Benzyl benzoate
- Permethrin
Explanation: Answer reason: Topical permethrin 5% is considered safe and is first-line for scabies in pregnancy; oral ivermectin is generally avoided and other topicals are less preferred.
Which of the following medicines is used to treat heavy bleeding in women?
- Digoxin
- Artemeter
- Zithromax
- Tranexamic acid
Explanation: Answer reason: Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic that reduces menstrual blood loss; other options treat unrelated conditions (heart failure, malaria, bacterial infection).
Which vitamin should be administered with INH (isoniazid) in order to prevent possible nervous system side effects?
- Thiamine
- Niacin
- Pyridoxine
- Riboflavin
Explanation: Answer reason: Isoniazid depletes vitamin B6, leading to peripheral neuropathy; prophylactic pyridoxine prevents these nervous system side effects.
Dicyclofenic sodium is used as an?
- Antibiotic
- Antiepileptic
- Anti-inflammatory
- Antimalarial
Explanation: Answer reason: Diclofenac sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for its anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects, not as an antibiotic, antiepileptic, or antimalarial.
What is the most common side effect of cisapride?
- Abdominal cramps
- Diarrhea
- Headache
- Convulsions
Explanation: Answer reason: Cisapride is a prokinetic that increases gastrointestinal motility; the most common adverse effect from enhanced motility is diarrhea.
Which of the following is the most potent diuretic?
- Acetazolamide (Diamox)
- Furosemide (Lasix)
- Hydrochlorothiazide
- Amiloride (Midamor)
Explanation: Answer reason: Loop diuretics are the most potent diuretics; furosemide acts on the thick ascending limb to markedly increase NaCl excretion. The others (acetazolamide, hydrochlorothiazide, amiloride) are less potent classes.
What is the drug of choice for a VDRL positive patient at 8 weeks of gestation?
- Erythromycin
- Penicillin
- Probenecid
- Azithromycin
Explanation: Answer reason: VDRL positivity indicates syphilis. In pregnancy, penicillin G is the treatment of choice and the only proven therapy to prevent congenital syphilis. Macrolides are unreliable, and probenecid is not monotherapy.
Which drug is used for snake bite?
- Antibiotic
- Antifungal
- Antivenom
- Antivirus
Explanation: Answer reason: Snake envenomation is treated with antivenom, which neutralizes venom toxins. Antibiotics, antifungals, and antivirals target infections, not venom.
What condition is Losanta tablets used to treat?
- Bronchitis
- Encephalitis
- Hypertension
- Spondylosis
Explanation: Answer reason: Losanta is referring to losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker used to treat high blood pressure.
Rifampicin 300 mg is used as which type of medication?
- Anti malarial
- Anti diarrheal
- Anti lipidemic
- Anti TB
Explanation: Answer reason: Rifampicin (rifampin) is a first-line antitubercular medication used to treat tuberculosis, not malaria, diarrhea, or hyperlipidemia.
Ciprofloxacin is classified as which type of medication?
- Antihistamine
- Antiviral
- Antifungal
- Antibiotic
Explanation: Answer reason: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone class antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections.
Which drug is anti-pseudomonal?
- Amoxycillin
- Ampicillin
- Benzathine Penicillin
- Carbenicillin
Explanation: Answer reason: Carbenicillin is a penicillin with activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa; the others listed do not have reliable anti-pseudomonal coverage.
Which of the following diuretics is contraindicated in patients with hyperkalemia?
- Acetazolamide
- Chlorthalidone
- Chlorthiazide
- Spironolactone
Explanation: Answer reason: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause or worsen hyperkalemia, so it is contraindicated. The others tend to cause hypokalemia.
The client taking Glyburide (Diabeta) should be cautioned to?
- Avoid eating sweets
- Report changes in urinary pattern
- Allow 3 hours for onset
- Check the glucose daily
Explanation: Answer reason: Glyburide is a sulfonylurea that increases insulin secretion and can cause hypoglycemia. Clients must avoid concentrated sweets to prevent glucose spikes and subsequent hypoglycemia. Onset is faster than 3 hours, urinary changes are not a typical concern, and glucose monitoring is routine but not the key caution instruction.
Diclofenac is classified as which type of medication?
- Analgesic
- Antipyretic
- Antibiotic
- Antiemetic
Explanation: Answer reason: Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) primarily used to relieve pain, classifying it as an analgesic.
What is the management of rheumatic fever?
- Antibiotics
- Valve replacement
- Corticosteroids
- Cardiac catheterization
Explanation: Answer reason: Acute rheumatic fever is managed by eradicating group A streptococcal infection with antibiotics (e.g., penicillin). Valve surgery is for chronic valvular damage; cardiac catheterization is diagnostic; corticosteroids may be adjunctive but not first-line.
Domperidone is classified as which type of medication?
- Antiemetic
- Analgesic
- Antipyretic
- Antibiotic
Explanation: Answer reason: Domperidone is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist used to treat nausea and vomiting; it is classified as an antiemetic (also prokinetic).
What is albuterol used to treat?
- Asthma
- Ulcer
- Pneumonia
- Anxiety
Explanation: Answer reason: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist bronchodilator used to relieve bronchospasm in asthma (and COPD), not for ulcers, pneumonia, or anxiety.
Cocaine acts as an indirect-acting sympathomimetic drug by inhibiting the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
- Norepinephrine
- Acetylcholine
Explanation: Answer reason: Cocaine blocks the norepinephrine transporter (NET), increasing synaptic NE and producing sympathomimetic effects. Although it also inhibits dopamine and serotonin reuptake, the sympathetic actions are mediated primarily by norepinephrine.
Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors are primarily located in which organ?
- Heart
- Lungs
- Brain
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: Alpha-1 receptors are most abundant on vascular smooth muscle and in the liver, where they mediate vasoconstriction and glycogenolysis. Among the listed organs, liver is the best match.
Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of organophosphorus poisoning?
- Hyperventilation
- Salivation
- Pinpoint pupil
- Bronchospasm
Explanation: Answer reason: Organophosphate poisoning causes cholinergic excess with muscarinic findings such as salivation, miosis (pinpoint pupils), and bronchospasm/bronchorrhea. Hyperventilation is not characteristic; respiratory failure is due to bronchospasm/secretions and muscle weakness.
What is amoxicillin used for?
- Infection
- Nausea
- Allergic reaction
- Vomiting
Explanation: Answer reason: Amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections; the other options are symptoms, not indications.
Which condition is ibuprofen commonly used to treat?
- Mineraches
- Asthma
- Anxiety
- Pneumonia
Explanation: Answer reason: Ibuprofen is an NSAID used for pain and fever relief, treating minor aches; it is not used to treat asthma, anxiety, or pneumonia.
What is the primary therapeutic use of Azathioprine?
- Organ transplant rejection prevention
- Osteoporosis
- Migraine
- Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation: Answer reason: Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant (prodrug of 6-mercaptopurine) primarily used to prevent organ transplant rejection; it is not indicated for osteoporosis, migraine, or peptic ulcer disease.
Which drug is a prototype beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist used in the treatment of asthma?
- Salbutamol
- Montelukast
- Theophylline
- Ipratroprium bromide
Explanation: Answer reason: Salbutamol (albuterol) is the prototype short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonist used for bronchodilation in asthma. The others are not beta-2 agonists.
What is etomidate injection used for?
- Trauma
- Anesthesia
- Epilepsy
- Inflammation
Explanation: Answer reason: Etomidate is an intravenous hypnotic agent primarily used for induction of general anesthesia and procedural sedation, not for trauma, epilepsy, or inflammation.
Levofloxacin is classified as which type of medication?
- Analgesic
- Antibiotic
- Anti-allergy
- Antiemetic
Explanation: Answer reason: Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections.
What is the primary use of dextromethorphan?
- Antiallergic
- Antitussive
- Antiemetic
- Antipyretic
Explanation: Answer reason: Dextromethorphan is a cough suppressant that acts on the medullary cough center; its primary use is as an antitussive.
Which of the following is a prototype drug that selectively blocks histamine receptors?
- Ranitidine
- Cimetidine
- Diphenhydramine
- Omeprazole
Explanation: Answer reason: Cimetidine is the prototype H2-receptor antagonist; it selectively blocks histamine H2 receptors on gastric parietal cells to reduce acid secretion. Ranitidine is an H2 blocker but not the prototype; diphenhydramine blocks H1 receptors; omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor.
Which medication is the odd one out among the following: Cimetidine, Fexofenadine, Ranitidine, Famotidine?
- Cimetidine
- Fexofenadine
- Ranitidine
- Famotidine
Explanation: Answer reason: Cimetidine, ranitidine, and famotidine are H2-receptor antagonists for acid suppression; fexofenadine is an H1 antihistamine for allergies, making it the odd one out.
What electrolyte imbalance is a known adverse effect of trimethoprim, a potent inhibitor of bacterial dihydrofolate reductase?
- Hypokalemia
- Hyperkalemia
- Hyponatremia
- Hypocalcemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Trimethoprim blocks epithelial Na+ channels in the distal nephron, acting like a potassium-sparing diuretic and decreasing K+ excretion, leading to hyperkalemia.
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