Question 1

The most common organism causing septic shock is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Septic shock most commonly arises from severe bacterial infections, and gram-negative organisms have historically been frequent causes due to their endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) triggering a strong inflammatory cascade. Escherichia coli is a common gram-negative pathogen, especially in urinary and intra-abdominal sources, which are frequent origins of sepsis. Streptococcus can also cause septic shock (e.g., toxic shock–like syndromes), but it is not the most common overall in typical exam framing. Mycobacterium and Clostridium are much less common causes of septic shock compared with E. coli.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of which microorganism most commonly causes septic shock, focusing on pathogen prevalence and characteristics rather than nursing interventions, prioritization, or safety actions; this is primarily Microbiology.

Question 2

Who demonstrated that life originated from pre-existing cells?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Louis Pasteur’s swan-neck flask experiments disproved spontaneous generation by showing that sterile broth remained free of microbial growth unless exposed to contamination. This provided strong evidence for biogenesis: living organisms (including microbes) arise from pre-existing living cells. Darwin focused on evolution, de Vries on mutation theory, and Miller on abiotic synthesis of organic molecules, not direct proof of biogenesis.
Category reason: The question tests a foundational microbiology concept (biogenesis vs spontaneous generation) and the classic experimental evidence supporting it, rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 3

Ringworm is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ringworm (tinea) is a superficial dermatophyte infection caused by fungi such as Trichophyton, Microsporum, or Epidermophyton. It produces characteristic annular (ring-shaped) scaly lesions and is treated with antifungal therapy, not antibiotics or antivirals. Protozoa do not cause tinea infections, and bacteria/viruses are incorrect etiologic agents for ringworm.
Category reason: The question tests the causative pathogen type of a common infectious disease (dermatophyte infection), which is core microbiology content rather than nursing intervention/priority decision-making.

Question 4

Measles is used by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Measles is caused by the measles virus (a Morbillivirus in the Paramyxoviridae family). It is therefore a viral illness, not one caused by bacteria, fungi, or algae. This distinction is clinically important because antibiotics do not treat measles; prevention relies primarily on vaccination (MMR) and infection control measures.
Category reason: The question asks for the type of infectious agent that causes measles, which is a foundational microbiology concept about pathogens (virus vs bacteria/fungi/algae), not a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 5

Which childhood disease is also known as rubella?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rubella is classically referred to as “German measles,” which is often shortened in basic MCQs to “measles.” Otitis is an ear infection, meningitis is inflammation of the meninges, and mumps is a viral parotitis—none are alternate names for rubella. Therefore, among the provided options, “Measles” is the best match for rubella’s common synonym.
Category reason: The item tests recognition of an infectious childhood illness name/synonym (rubella = German measles), which is foundational infectious disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario, fitting Microbiology.

Question 6

Widal Test is done in the Diagnosis of..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Widal test is a serologic agglutination test that detects antibodies against Salmonella enterica serotypes Typhi and Paratyphi (O and H antigens). These organisms cause enteric (typhoid) fever, so the test is classically associated with its diagnosis. Although it has limitations (false positives/negatives and need for paired titers or local baseline titers), among the options it best matches enteric fever. It is not used to diagnose dengue, hay fever, or rheumatic fever.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of a laboratory serologic test used for a specific infectious organism (Salmonella), which is primarily studied under Microbiology rather than nursing care planning.

Question 7

Tourniquet test is used in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The tourniquet (Hess/Rumpel-Leede) test is used as a supportive clinical test for dengue, where capillary fragility and thrombocytopenia can cause petechiae after venous occlusion. A positive test (increased petechial count in a defined area) suggests a hemorrhagic tendency seen in dengue infection. It is not a standard diagnostic test for malaria, typhoid, or tuberculosis, which rely on different laboratory and microbiologic methods.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of an infectious disease–related clinical diagnostic test and its association with a specific pathogen (dengue virus), which falls under Microbiology rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.

Question 8

What is the first symptom commonly seen in Rabies infection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early rabies typically begins with nonspecific prodromal symptoms such as fever, malaise, and headache, along with paresthesia, pain, or itching at the bite site. These local neurologic symptoms reflect viral replication in muscle and spread along peripheral nerves. Hydrophobia, convulsions, and paralysis are later manifestations once encephalitis or paralytic rabies develops. Therefore, fever with tingling at the bite site is the most common first symptom among the options.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of the typical clinical progression of a viral zoonotic infection (rabies) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, fitting foundational infectious disease concepts within Microbiology.

Question 9

The Mantoux test is used for diagnosis of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Mantoux test (tuberculin skin test) assesses delayed-type (type IV) hypersensitivity to purified protein derivative (PPD) from Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A positive reaction indicates prior sensitization due to latent or active TB infection or prior BCG vaccination/exposure, and it is used as a screening/diagnostic aid for tuberculosis infection. It is not a diagnostic test for HIV, syphilis, or leprosy.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of an infectious disease diagnostic test (tuberculin skin test) and its association with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is a core topic in Microbiology.

Question 10

Which disease is called "German measles"?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: German measles refers to rubella, an infection caused by the rubella virus and characterized by mild fever, lymphadenopathy, and a maculopapular rash. Rubeola is measles (caused by measles virus) and is typically more severe with cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots. Smallpox and chickenpox are distinct viral illnesses with different rash patterns and etiologies. Therefore, rubella is the correct term for German measles.
Category reason: The question tests recognition of an infectious disease’s alternate/common name and its causative illness, which is a foundational microbiology/infectious disease knowledge topic rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 11

Leishmaniasis is typically transmitted by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoa of the genus Leishmania and is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female phlebotomine sand flies (Phlebotomus/Lutzomyia). Tsetse flies transmit African trypanosomiasis, not leishmaniasis. Horse flies and house flies are not the typical biological vectors for Leishmania transmission.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of an infectious disease vector and organism transmission, which is a core topic in Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 12

Malaria is transmitted by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species and is transmitted to humans through the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito, which injects sporozoites during feeding. Aedes mosquitoes are classically associated with dengue, Zika, chikungunya, and yellow fever transmission. Culex is associated with diseases such as West Nile virus and lymphatic filariasis, and Mansonia is also linked to filariasis. Therefore, Anopheles is the correct vector for malaria.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of infectious disease transmission vectors (the mosquito genus responsible for malaria), which falls under Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 13

Tuberculosis is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, an acid-fast bacterium transmitted primarily via airborne droplet nuclei. It is not caused by viruses, fungi, or protozoa. Identification as a bacterial pathogen explains why treatment requires prolonged multi-drug antibiotic therapy and why resistance can develop with incomplete treatment.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of the type of microorganism responsible for a specific infectious disease (TB), which is a foundational concept in Microbiology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 14

Which parasite is known for causing lymphatic filariasis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis) is classically caused by the filarial nematode Wuchereria bancrofti, which inhabits lymphatic vessels and leads to lymphatic obstruction and chronic lymphedema. Brugia malayi can also cause lymphatic filariasis, but W. bancrofti is the most common and most characteristically associated worldwide. Loa loa causes loiasis (Calabar swellings), and Onchocerca volvulus causes onchocerciasis (river blindness), not primary lymphatic filariasis.
Category reason: The item tests identification of a helminth parasite responsible for a specific infectious disease, which is a foundational organism-disease association in medical microbiology/parasitology rather than a nursing management decision.

Question 15

DTP is effective against ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DTP is the combined vaccine for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, so it provides active immunization against tetanus toxoid. It does not include polio (covered by OPV/IPV), malaria (no DTP component), or typhoid (separate typhoid vaccines). Therefore, among the listed options, tetanus is the correct disease prevented by DTP.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of what pathogens/diseases are covered by a specific vaccine formulation (DTP), which is foundational infectious disease and immunization content rather than a nursing care decision, fitting Microbiology.

Question 16

The virus responsible for causing “shingles” in adults is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Shingles (herpes zoster) is caused by reactivation of latent varicella-zoster virus (VZV) that remains dormant in dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia after primary infection (chickenpox). When immunity wanes (e.g., older age, immunosuppression), VZV reactivates and travels along sensory nerves causing a painful, unilateral dermatomal vesicular rash. Epstein-Barr virus and cytomegalovirus cause different herpesvirus syndromes, and HSV-2 primarily causes genital herpes rather than shingles.
Category reason: The question tests identification of the causative virus of a specific infectious disease (shingles), which is core microbiology/virology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 17

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in infants?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rotavirus has historically been the leading cause of acute gastroenteritis with diarrhea in infants and young children worldwide, especially prior to widespread vaccination. It spreads easily via the fecal-oral route and commonly causes watery diarrhea with vomiting, creating a high risk of dehydration in infants. While E. coli, Shigella, and Salmonella can also cause pediatric diarrhea, they are less commonly the overall leading cause compared with rotavirus in this age group.
Category reason: The question tests identification of an infectious etiologic agent responsible for infant diarrhea, which is primarily microbiology (viral vs bacterial causes) rather than a nursing intervention or care-priority decision.

Question 18

Which of these is not classified as a Category A biologic agent?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CDC Category A biologic agents include Bacillus anthracis (anthrax), botulinum toxin (botulism), Francisella tularensis (tularemia), smallpox, plague, and viral hemorrhagic fevers due to their high lethality and potential for major public health impact. Staphylococcus enterotoxin B is generally classified among Category B agents (biotoxins/food safety-related threats) rather than Category A. Therefore, SEB is the option that is not Category A.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of bioterrorism agent classification (Category A vs B), which is a foundational microbiology/public health preparedness concept rather than a nursing intervention or clinical prioritization scenario.

Question 19

What are the hepatitis viruses screened in donor blood?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Routine donor blood screening focuses on transfusion-transmissible hepatitis viruses, particularly hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV). HBV is screened via markers such as HBsAg and/or HBV NAT, and HCV via anti-HCV and/or HCV NAT to reduce window-period transmission. Hepatitis A is typically fecal-oral and not routinely a target for standard blood donor hepatitis screening compared with HBV/HCV.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of infectious agents (hepatitis viruses) and standard laboratory screening of blood donations, which is primarily microbiology/infectious disease content rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 20

What is the name of the long, whip-like structure that some bacteria use for locomotion and steering?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bacterial flagella are long, whip-like appendages that rotate to propel the cell, enabling motility and directional movement (steering/chemotaxis). The cell wall provides structural support, and a capsule mainly aids in protection and immune evasion rather than movement. Pili (fimbriae) primarily function in adhesion and conjugation, not locomotion.
Category reason: This tests identification of a bacterial cell structure and its function in motility, which is a core concept in Microbiology.

Question 21

Which disease is also called "Breakbone fever"?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: “Breakbone fever” is a classic nickname for dengue fever due to its prominent severe myalgias and arthralgias that can feel like bones are breaking. Dengue is caused by a Flavivirus transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes and often presents with high fever, headache/retro-orbital pain, and body aches. Malaria classically causes periodic fevers and chills, cholera causes profuse watery diarrhea, and typhoid causes sustained fever with abdominal symptoms—none are termed breakbone fever.
Category reason: The question tests identification of a disease by its common nickname and clinical syndrome, which is infectious-disease knowledge (pathogen-associated illness) under Microbiology rather than a nursing intervention/priority scenario.

Question 22

Which of the following pathogens causes cholera in humans?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, which produces cholera toxin leading to profuse watery diarrhea and dehydration. Therefore, the pathogen category responsible is bacteria, not fungi, viruses, or protozoa. The key distinguishing feature is a toxin-mediated secretory diarrhea typical of bacterial enterotoxins.
Category reason: This question tests identification of the microorganism type responsible for a specific infectious disease (cholera), which is a core Microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 23

Tuberculosis test is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The standard screening test classically referred to as the “TB test” is the Mantoux test (tuberculin skin test using purified protein derivative, PPD). It assesses a delayed-type (type IV) hypersensitivity reaction measured by induration after 48–72 hours. VDRL is for syphilis screening, and ELISA/PCR are laboratory methods that can be used for various infections but are not the classic named TB skin test.
Category reason: This question tests identification of a diagnostic test name for an infectious disease (tuberculosis), which is core microbiology/diagnostics knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 24

What is the window period in HIV infection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The HIV window period refers to the interval after infection during which laboratory tests may still be negative because markers of infection (e.g., antibodies and/or p24 antigen) have not yet reached detectable levels. This is why a person can be infected and infectious despite an initially negative test. Therefore, the best definition is the time between exposure and test detectability. Options describing death, recovery, or symptoms do not define the diagnostic window period.
Category reason: This question tests a core concept about infectious disease testing and detectability of HIV biomarkers rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, which aligns best with Microbiology.

Question 25

Tooth decay is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dental caries (tooth decay) are primarily caused by acid-producing bacteria in dental plaque, especially Streptococcus mutans and Lactobacillus species. These organisms metabolize dietary sugars into acids that demineralize enamel and dentin over time. Viruses and fungi are not the usual primary cause of caries, and dust is not a biologic etiology. Therefore, bacteria is the single best answer.
Category reason: The question tests the infectious etiology of dental caries (which microorganism causes decay), a foundational microbiology concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 26

What are the three main evolutionary branches of organisms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Modern phylogenetics recognizes three domains of life: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya, based on fundamental differences in ribosomal RNA and cellular/molecular features. Animals and plants are not separate primary branches; they are subsets within Eukarya. Viruses are not classified within the three-domain system because they are acellular and require host cells for replication. Therefore, the best answer is the option listing Bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes.
Category reason: The question tests the three-domain classification system and evolutionary relationships among microorganisms and other life forms, which is core content of Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 27

Ringworm is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ringworm (tinea) is a superficial fungal infection of keratinized tissues (skin, hair, nails) caused by dermatophytes such as Trichophyton, Microsporum, or Epidermophyton. Despite the name, it is not caused by a worm, virus, or bacteria. The characteristic annular, scaly lesions reflect fungal growth in the stratum corneum and respond to antifungal therapy rather than antibiotics or antivirals.
Category reason: The question tests identification of the causative microorganism (etiology) of a common skin infection, which is a core topic in Microbiology.

Question 28

Cholera is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cholera is an acute secretory diarrheal illness caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae, typically acquired via contaminated water or food. Its cholera toxin increases intestinal chloride secretion (via cAMP), leading to profuse “rice-water” stools and rapid dehydration. Salmonella and Shigella more commonly cause inflammatory diarrhea, and Clostridium species are associated with conditions like tetanus, botulism, and C. difficile colitis rather than classic cholera.
Category reason: This item tests identification of the infectious organism responsible for a disease, which is a core Microbiology concept rather than a nursing care/intervention decision.

Question 29

Which of these below is a spore-forming bacteria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clostridium species are gram-positive bacilli that characteristically form endospores, allowing survival in harsh environments (e.g., heat, disinfectants, and desiccation). This spore-forming capability is a key distinguishing microbiology feature of genera like Clostridium (and Bacillus). Streptococcus and Staphylococcus are gram-positive cocci that do not form spores, and Listeria is a non–spore-forming gram-positive rod.
Category reason: The question tests foundational identification of bacterial characteristics (endospore formation) and genus-level microbiology, not a nursing intervention or clinical judgment scenario.

Question 30

Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: BCG (Bacillus Calmette–Guérin) is a live attenuated vaccine derived from an attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis. In contrast, tetanus toxoid is an inactivated toxin (toxoid) vaccine, and hepatitis B vaccine is a recombinant subunit vaccine (HBsAg). Standard rabies vaccines used clinically are inactivated (killed) vaccines, not live attenuated.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of vaccine types (live attenuated vs toxoid vs recombinant/inactivated), which is a foundational concept in immunization microbiology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 31

Which virus causes gastroenteritis and is commonly detected in stool samples?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Norovirus is a leading cause of acute viral gastroenteritis and is shed in large quantities in feces and vomitus, making stool testing a common diagnostic approach (e.g., PCR panels). Influenza primarily causes respiratory illness rather than gastroenteritis. Cytomegalovirus can cause colitis mainly in immunocompromised patients but is not the typical common cause of acute community gastroenteritis. Epstein-Barr virus is classically associated with infectious mononucleosis, not acute viral diarrhea.
Category reason: The item tests knowledge of an etiologic infectious agent and its detection in stool, which is core content in Microbiology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.

Question 32

HIV is detected by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HIV screening is commonly done by ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay), which detects antibodies to HIV (and in newer 4th-generation assays, p24 antigen as well). Widal test is used for typhoid fever, Mantoux test screens for tuberculosis exposure, and ESR is a nonspecific marker of inflammation. Therefore, ELISA is the best test among the options for detecting HIV infection.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of laboratory methods used to detect an infectious agent (HIV) and distinguishes it from other infectious/inflammatory tests, which fits Microbiology/diagnostic microbiologic testing rather than nursing interventions.

Question 33

Commonest cause of nosocomial infection:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Staphylococci (especially Staphylococcus aureus and coagulase-negative staphylococci) are among the most common causes of hospital-acquired infections, largely because they colonize skin and can be transmitted via hands and contaminated devices. They frequently cause catheter-related bloodstream infections, surgical site infections, and device-associated infections. While gram-negative organisms like Pseudomonas, Klebsiella, and other Enterobacteriaceae are important nosocomial pathogens, staphylococci are classically cited as the most common overall cause in many settings.
Category reason: The question asks for the most common microbial cause of nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infection, which is a foundational identification of pathogens and epidemiology—core content in Microbiology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 34

An example of a flatworm is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Flatworms are helminths in the phylum Platyhelminthes, which includes cestodes (tapeworms) and trematodes (flukes). Tapeworms are classic flatworms with dorsoventrally flattened, segmented bodies. Hookworm and filarial worm are nematodes (roundworms), not flatworms. Although liver fluke is also a flatworm, the single best example commonly tested is tapeworm (cestode).
Category reason: The item tests classification of helminths (flatworms vs roundworms), which is a foundational parasitology/microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or patient-care decision.

Question 35

The window period in HIV refers to:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The HIV window period is the interval after infection during which the person may be infected but standard tests can still be negative because detectable markers (classically antibodies, and depending on the assay p24 antigen/viral RNA) have not yet reached the test’s detection threshold. Therefore it is defined as the time from infection to a positive test result. It is not defined by symptom onset, recovery after treatment, or time to death. This concept is central to interpreting HIV screening results and counseling about retesting after recent exposure.
Category reason: This item tests a foundational concept about HIV infection and diagnostic test detectability (seroconversion/window period), which is primarily microbiology/diagnostics knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 36

Vaccine given after dog bite is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After a dog bite, the key vaccine-related prophylaxis is rabies post-exposure prophylaxis because rabies is transmitted through saliva and is nearly universally fatal once symptoms start. PEP includes immediate wound cleansing and administration of rabies vaccine (and rabies immunoglobulin for indicated exposures). Polio and cholera vaccines are not relevant to dog-bite exposure. Tetanus prophylaxis may be needed based on immunization status and wound type, but the classic specific vaccine asked for after dog bite is rabies.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of infectious disease prevention and post-exposure vaccination related to animal bites, which aligns with microbiology and communicable disease concepts rather than nursing care prioritization.

Question 37

Mumps is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mumps is an acute infectious disease caused by the mumps virus, a paramyxovirus (genus Rubulavirus). It spreads primarily via respiratory droplets and can cause parotitis and complications such as orchitis and aseptic meningitis. Because the etiologic agent is viral, antibiotics are not effective; prevention is mainly through MMR vaccination.
Category reason: The question asks for the causative organism type of mumps, which is a foundational infectious-disease/etiology concept studied in Microbiology rather than a nursing intervention or care-management decision.

Question 38

Filariasis is caused by...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Filariasis is caused by filarial nematodes (roundworms), most commonly Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi, transmitted by mosquitoes. These are helminths (worms), not bacteria, protozoa, or viruses. Among the listed options, the only worm category provided is “Tapeworm,” so it is the best available choice even though the precise organism is a roundworm rather than a tapeworm (cestode).
Category reason: This is a question about the causative infectious agent of a parasitic disease (organism type and classification), which is primarily studied in Microbiology rather than nursing interventions or care decisions.

Question 39

One of the major symptoms of onchocerciasis is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Onchocerciasis (river blindness) is caused by the filarial nematode Onchocerca volvulus transmitted by blackflies. Adult worms form subcutaneous nodules (onchocercomas), which are a characteristic major clinical feature along with pruritic dermatitis and eye involvement. Convulsions and anemia are not typical hallmark manifestations of this infection. Therefore, “nodules on the skin” is the best answer.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of an infectious parasitic disease and its characteristic clinical manifestations, which falls under Microbiology (parasitology) rather than nursing care decisions.

Question 40

What is the incubation period of chickenpox?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chickenpox (varicella-zoster virus) has a typical incubation period of about 10–21 days, most commonly around 14–16 days after exposure. This timeframe reflects the period of viral replication and dissemination before the characteristic vesicular rash appears. The other options are either too short to match VZV pathogenesis (2–4 days) or far too long for varicella infection.
Category reason: The question tests a factual infectious-disease parameter (incubation period of varicella), which is core content of microbiology/communicable diseases rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 41

Needle stick injury except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Needlestick injuries classically transmit bloodborne pathogens, especially hepatitis B (HBV), hepatitis C (HCV), and HIV via exposure to infected blood or body fluids. Malaria is primarily transmitted by the bite of an infected Anopheles mosquito and is not a typical occupational bloodborne pathogen listed in standard needlestick exposure risk guidance. While transfusion-associated malaria can occur, it is rare and not the expected answer compared with HBV/HCV/HIV. Therefore, the exception is malaria.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of infectious disease transmission related to blood exposure (bloodborne pathogens vs vector-borne infection), which fits Microbiology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization task.

Question 42

The characteristic early symptom of tetanus is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early tetanus classically presents with trismus (lockjaw) and generalized muscle stiffness due to tetanospasmin blocking inhibitory neurotransmitters (GABA and glycine) in the CNS, producing sustained muscle contraction. Flaccid paralysis is more characteristic of botulism or lower motor neuron pathology, not tetanus. Fever may occur but is not the characteristic early symptom, and rash is not typical of tetanus.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of an infectious disease presentation caused by Clostridium tetani toxin and its characteristic early clinical manifestation, which fits best under Microbiology rather than nursing care prioritization or interventions.

Question 43

The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on presence of specific antigen. The following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigen?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Serologic identification relies on detecting antigens that are typically surface-exposed and strain-specific, such as capsular polysaccharides (K antigen), cell wall components (e.g., O antigen of LPS), and flagellar proteins (H antigen). Ribosomes are internal cellular structures and are not usually accessible targets for routine bacterial serotyping/serologic typing in intact organisms. Therefore, ribosomes are least likely to contain useful antigens for standard serologic identification of bacteria.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of bacterial structures and which components serve as antigens in serologic identification, which is a core concept in Microbiology rather than nursing interventions or clinical prioritization.

Question 44

Dengue fever is transmitted by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dengue is an arboviral infection transmitted primarily by Aedes mosquitoes, especially Aedes aegypti (and also Aedes albopictus). Culex is classically associated with infections like West Nile and Japanese encephalitis, while Anopheles transmits malaria. Sand flies transmit leishmaniasis, not dengue, making Aedes aegypti the single best answer.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the vector responsible for transmission of an infectious disease, which is a microbiology/parasitology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 45

Which of the following is absent in virus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Viruses are acellular and consist mainly of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein capsid, sometimes with a lipid envelope derived from the host. They do not have cellular structures such as a cell wall, true cell membrane, or cytoplasm with organelles/metabolic machinery. Therefore, all listed cellular components (cell wall, cell membrane, cytoplasm) are absent in viruses as cellular structures.
Category reason: This item tests foundational properties of viruses versus cells (presence/absence of cellular components), which is a core concept in Microbiology.

Question 46

Q. Diseases is caused by dog bites?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rabies is a viral zoonotic infection transmitted through saliva, most commonly via bites from infected mammals such as dogs. After inoculation, the virus travels via peripheral nerves to the central nervous system, causing fatal encephalitis if untreated. Scurvy is due to vitamin C deficiency, colorblindness is typically genetic/ocular, and “madness” is not a specific infectious disease diagnosis.
Category reason: The question tests knowledge of an infectious disease transmitted by an animal bite, focusing on pathogen transmission rather than nursing interventions, which fits Microbiology.

Question 47

A 25-year-old man presents with persistent low-grade fever and weight loss. Lymph node biopsy shows epithelioid granulomas with caseous necrosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate stain to confirm the diagnosis and also predicts the most effective first-line therapy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Caseating (caseous) granulomas in a lymph node with constitutional symptoms strongly suggest tuberculosis. Ziehl–Neelsen staining detects acid-fast bacilli (mycolic acid–rich cell walls) and is the classic confirmatory stain for Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The most effective first-line regimen includes isoniazid (along with other first-line agents), making the Ziehl–Neelsen/isoniazid pairing the best match among the options. PAS and silver stains are used for fungi, and Congo red is for amyloid, not TB.
Category reason: The item tests identification of an infectious organism using histologic staining and matching it to first-line antimicrobial therapy, which is core Microbiology knowledge rather than nursing process or patient-care prioritization.

Question 48

In E. coli, which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer for Okazaki fragments?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DnaG is the bacterial primase that synthesizes short RNA primers needed to initiate DNA synthesis on the lagging strand, creating primers for each Okazaki fragment. DnaA primarily initiates replication by binding oriC and helping unwind DNA, not primer synthesis. DnaC is involved in loading the helicase (DnaB) onto DNA. Therefore, only DnaG directly performs RNA primer synthesis for Okazaki fragments.
Category reason: The question tests bacterial DNA replication proteins (DnaA, DnaC, DnaG) and primase function in E. coli, which is a core topic in Microbiology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 49

Measles is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Measles (rubeola) is caused by the measles virus, a Morbillivirus in the family Paramyxoviridae. Orthomyxoviruses cause influenza, retroviruses include HIV, and rhabdoviruses include rabies virus. Therefore, Paramyxovirus is the correct option.
Category reason: The question tests identification of the viral family responsible for a specific infectious disease, which is a core Microbiology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 50

Dysentery is caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dysentery refers to inflammatory diarrhea with blood and mucus, most classically caused by Shigella species (bacillary dysentery). Although protozoa (e.g., Entamoeba histolytica) can also cause dysentery, standard exam usage often points to Shigella as the single best cause among broad categories. Viruses typically cause non-bloody, watery gastroenteritis rather than dysentery, and fungi are not a typical cause. Therefore, bacteria is the best answer.
Category reason: The question tests the infectious etiology of a gastrointestinal condition (dysentery) and differentiates pathogen types (bacteria vs virus vs protozoa vs fungi), which is primarily Microbiology.

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The most common organism causing septic shock is?

Who demonstrated that life originated from pre-existing cells?

Ringworm is caused by?

Measles is used by?

Which childhood disease is also known as rubella?

Widal Test is done in the Diagnosis of..?

Tourniquet test is used in?

What is the first symptom commonly seen in Rabies infection?

The Mantoux test is used for diagnosis of?

Which disease is called "German measles"?

Leishmaniasis is typically transmitted by?

Malaria is transmitted by?

Tuberculosis is caused by?

Which parasite is known for causing lymphatic filariasis?

DTP is effective against ?

The virus responsible for causing “shingles” in adults is?

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in infants?

Which of these is not classified as a Category A biologic agent?

What are the hepatitis viruses screened in donor blood?

What is the name of the long, whip-like structure that some bacteria use for locomotion and steering?

Which disease is also called "Breakbone fever"?

Which of the following pathogens causes cholera in humans?

Tuberculosis test is called?

What is the window period in HIV infection?

Tooth decay is caused by?

What are the three main evolutionary branches of organisms?

Ringworm is caused by?

Cholera is caused by?

Which of these below is a spore-forming bacteria?

Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

Which virus causes gastroenteritis and is commonly detected in stool samples?

HIV is detected by?

Commonest cause of nosocomial infection:

An example of a flatworm is?

The window period in HIV refers to:

Vaccine given after dog bite is?

Mumps is caused by?

Filariasis is caused by...?

One of the major symptoms of onchocerciasis is?

What is the incubation period of chickenpox?

Needle stick injury except?

The characteristic early symptom of tetanus is?

The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on presence of specific antigen. The following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigen?

Dengue fever is transmitted by?

Which of the following is absent in virus?

Q. Diseases is caused by dog bites?

A 25-year-old man presents with persistent low-grade fever and weight loss. Lymph node biopsy shows epithelioid granulomas with caseous necrosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate stain to confirm the diagnosis and also predicts the most effective first-line therapy?

In E. coli, which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer for Okazaki fragments?

Measles is caused by?

Dysentery is caused by?

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