Microbiology Practice Test 1
Microbiology NCLEX Practice Test
Microbiology, within the NCLEX test plan under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations, reflects the core knowledge domains and conceptual competencies directly related to what the exam evaluates. The targeted number of questions is 50; designed with realistic clinical scenarios and conceptual variety to help you identify both your strengths and improvement areas.
This test is the 1st part of the Microbiology section. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
Continue Learning
In the Microbiology Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Microbiology Practice Test 1
Which of the following is NOT a sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
- Hepatitis A
- AIDS
- Syphilis
- Gonorrhea
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis A is not a sexually transmitted disease. It spreads primarily through the fecal–oral route, usually via contaminated food or water. In contrast, AIDS (HIV), syphilis, and gonorrhea are true sexually transmitted infections.
What term best describes the widespread global outbreak of COVID-19?
- Endemic disease
- Hyperendemic diseases
- Epidemic
- Pandemic
Explanation: Answer reason: A pandemic refers to an outbreak of an infectious disease that spreads across multiple countries or continents, affecting a large proportion of the global population. COVID-19 met this definition due to its rapid worldwide transmission.
Which of the following bacteria is not a source of restriction endnuclease?
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Escherichia coli
- Agrobacterium tumefaciens
- Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
Explanation: Answer reason: Classical restriction endonucleases are sourced from bacteria such as Haemophilus influenzae (Hind), Escherichia coli (EcoRI), and Bacillus amyloliquefaciens (BamHI). Agrobacterium tumefaciens is primarily used as a gene-transfer vector, not as a standard source of restriction enzymes.
Area of the cytoplasm that contains the single bacterial DNA molecule?
- Plasma
- Nucleoid region
- Cytoplasm
- Ribosomes
- Vacuole
Explanation: Answer reason: In prokaryotes, the single circular chromosome is located in the nucleoid region of the cytoplasm.
Streptomycin is produced by?
- S. griseus
- S. griseoflavus
- S. aerofaciens
- S. ramosus
Explanation: Answer reason: Streptomycin was originally isolated from the actinomycete Streptomyces griseus; the other listed species produce different antibiotics.
Which hepatitis has the maximum mortality in pregnancy?
- B
- D
- E
- A
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis E virus is associated with the highest maternal mortality, particularly in the third trimester, due to the risk of fulminant hepatic failure.
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by ticks?
- Lyme disease
- Malaria
- Dengue fever
- Typhoid fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Lyme disease is transmitted by Ixodes ticks. Malaria and dengue are mosquito-borne, and typhoid fever is spread via contaminated food or water.
Which parasitic infestation can cause anemia?
- Ascaris
- Hookworm
- Pinworm
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: Hookworms attach to the intestinal mucosa and feed on blood, causing chronic blood loss and iron-deficiency anemia.
The causative organism for roundworm infestation is?
- Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- Pediculus
- Ascaris lumbricoides
- Liver fluke
Explanation: Answer reason: Human roundworm infection (ascariasis) is caused by the nematode Ascaris lumbricoides. The other options are unrelated organisms: Neisseria is a bacterium, Pediculus is a louse, and the liver fluke is a trematode, not a roundworm.
Which of the following causes endocarditis in patients with underlying colorectal carcinoma?
- Staphylococcus epidermidis
- Enterococcus species
- Streptococcus bovis
- Streptococcus viridans
Explanation: Answer reason: Streptococcus bovis (S. gallolyticus) bacteremia or endocarditis is classically associated with colorectal malignancy; its detection should prompt evaluation for colon cancer.
What is poliomyelitis otherwise known as?
- Infantile paralysis
- Zika fever
- Blackwater fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Poliomyelitis, a viral infection affecting motor neurons, has historically been called infantile paralysis. Zika fever and blackwater fever are distinct diseases.
In which of the following do lactic acid bacteria grow?
- Milk
- Curd
- Water
- Juice
Explanation: Answer reason: Lactic acid bacteria, such as Lactobacillus, proliferate in curd (yogurt), where they ferment lactose to lactic acid; water or juice are not their typical growth environments.
What is the term for bacteria that have a single flagellum at each end?
- Monotrichous
- Lophotrichous
- Amphitrichous
- Peritrichous
Explanation: Answer reason: Amphitrichous bacteria have a single flagellum at each pole. Monotrichous bacteria have one at one pole, lophotrichous bacteria have a tuft at one pole, and peritrichous bacteria have flagella distributed all around.
Media used for the production of chlortetracycline consist of?
- Sugar, corn steep liquor, CaCO3, (NH4)2SO4, and NH4Cl
- Corn steep liquor, CaCO3, and (NH4)2SO4
- Sugar, CaCO3, and (NH4)2SO4
- Corn steep liquor, CaCO3, (NH4)2SO4, and NH4Cl
Explanation: Answer reason: Chlortetracycline fermentation requires a carbon source (sugar), complex nutrients from corn steep liquor, buffering with CaCO3, and ammonium salts as nitrogen sources; only option A contains all of these components.
The prokaryotic genetic system has?
- Both DNA and histones.
- Neither DNA nor histones.
- Either DNA or histones.
- DNA with no histones.
Explanation: Answer reason: Prokaryotic cells contain DNA but lack histone proteins that package DNA in eukaryotes. Their genetic material is typically a single circular chromosome without histone association.
What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children?
- Adenovirus
- Rotavirus
- Giardiasis
Explanation: Answer reason: Rotavirus is the leading cause of acute gastroenteritis and severe diarrhea in young children worldwide; Adenovirus and Giardia are less common.
Who described the tetanus bacillus?
- Frankel
- Klebs
- Nicolaier
- Ivanovsky
Explanation: Answer reason: Arthur Nicolaier first described the tetanus bacillus (later isolated by Kitasato).
Which disease is caused by a dog bite?
- Scurvy
- Madness
- Rabies
- Color blindness
Explanation: Answer reason: Rabies is transmitted via the saliva of infected animals, commonly through dog bites; the other options are unrelated (vitamin C deficiency, a nonspecific term, and a genetic condition).
A 16-year-old girl presents with fever (39°C), pelvic pain, generalized malaise, and nausea a few days after unprotected intercourse. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Trichomoniasis
- Primary herpes simplex infection
- Syphilis
- Bartholin gland abscess
- Lymphogranuloma venereum
Explanation: Answer reason: Primary HSV infection typically presents 2–12 days after exposure with systemic, flu-like symptoms such as fever, malaise, and nausea, along with pelvic or genital pain; other options do not match this acute timing and symptom pattern.
Which of the following diseases are related to coronavirus?
- MERS
- SARS
- Both A and B.
- Neither A nor B
Explanation: Answer reason: MERS and SARS are both caused by coronaviruses (MERS-CoV and SARS-CoV), so both options A and B are correct.
What is the causative agent of tetanus?
- Bacteria
- Virus
- Protozoa
- Fungi
Explanation: Answer reason: Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani, a spore-forming anaerobic bacterium that produces the tetanospasmin neurotoxin.
The yield of the antibiotic depends upon?
- pH of the medium
- Age of the inoculum
- Composition of the medium
- All of these
Explanation: Answer reason: Antibiotic production during fermentation is affected by culture pH, inoculum age, and medium composition; all influence yield.
Penicillin is recovered after fermentation as?
- Potassium penicillin
- Calcium penicillin
- Sodium penicillin
- Penicillin only.
Explanation: Answer reason: In industrial recovery, penicillin from the fermentation broth is commonly converted to the stable, water-soluble potassium salt for extraction and crystallization.
A high yield of chlorotetracycline requires?
- No aeration
- Continuous aeration
- Aeration that does not affect the yield
- Controlled aeration
Explanation: Answer reason: Chlortetracycline is produced by aerobic fermentation; optimal oxygen levels must be maintained to maximize secondary metabolite production. Controlled aeration yields the highest output.
A worm infestation transmitted through meat is?
- Hookworm
- Tapeworm
- Roundworm
- Pinworm
Explanation: Answer reason: Tapeworms (Taenia saginata/solium) are acquired by eating undercooked beef or pork containing cysticerci. Hookworm, pinworm, and Ascaris have other transmission routes.
Pneumonia is most commonly caused by ____.?
- Bacteria
- Viruses
- Fungi
- Chemicals
Explanation: Answer reason: Community-acquired pneumonia is most often caused by bacterial pathogens, classically Streptococcus pneumoniae; viruses, fungi, and chemical pneumonitis are less common overall.
Measles is caused by?
- Nipah virus
- Rubeola virus
- Hendra virus
- Pneumovirus
Explanation: Answer reason: Measles is caused by the rubeola (measles) virus, a Morbillivirus in the Paramyxoviridae family. Nipah and Hendra are Henipaviruses, and Pneumovirus refers to RSV, not to measles.
On 11 February 2020, the World Health Organization announced an official name for the disease that is causing the 2019 novel coronavirus outbreak. What is the new name of the disease?
- COVID‑19
- COVID-19
- COnV-20
- COVID-19
Explanation: Answer reason: WHO officially named the disease caused by the 2019 novel coronavirus COVID-19 on Feb 11, 2020.
The first case of the novel coronavirus was identified in...?
- Beijing
- Shanghai
- Wuhan, Hubei
- Tianjin
Explanation: Answer reason: COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2) was first identified in Wuhan, Hubei Province, China, in late 2019.
What is the incubation period of scabies?
- 1–2 weeks
- 2–6 weeks
- 7–8 weeks
- More than 9 weeks
Explanation: Answer reason: Primary scabies has an incubation period of about 2–6 weeks before symptoms appear; reinfestation presents sooner.
Which of the following is true of Haemophilus influenzae?
- Invasive infections are most commonly associated with encapsulated strains.
- Most invasive infections occur in infants during the neonatal period.
- Most human infections are acquired from domestic pets.
- The organism can be readily cultured on sheep blood agar in an environment of elevated CO2.
- Older adults are rarely at risk of infection with this organism because they typically have a high level of immunity.
Explanation: Answer reason: Encapsulated H. influenzae, especially type b with a PRP capsule, causes invasive disease (e.g., meningitis, epiglottitis). Nonencapsulated strains cause mucosal infections. Other statements are false regarding epidemiology and culture requirements.
The Widal test is a test for...?
- Malaria
- Typhoid
- Urine
- Blood group
Explanation: Answer reason: The Widal test detects agglutinating antibodies (O and H) against Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi and is used to diagnose typhoid fever.
HIV is a?
- RNA virus
- DNA virus
- Both of the above.
- None of the above.
Explanation: Answer reason: HIV is a retrovirus with a single-stranded RNA genome; it uses reverse transcriptase to make DNA during replication and is classified as an RNA virus.
Culture media sterilized by?
- Autoclave
- Hot-air oven
- Ethylene oxide
- Glutaraldehyde
Explanation: Answer reason: The standard method to sterilize culture media is moist heat in an autoclave (121°C for ~15 min). Dry heat (hot-air oven) is used for glassware, and ethylene oxide or glutaraldehyde are used for heat-sensitive equipment, not media.
Malaria is caused by?
- Fungi
- Bacteria
- Parasite
- None of the above.
Explanation: Answer reason: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species, which are protozoan parasites—not fungi or bacteria.
Which of the following has "periodic fever (72 hours)" as its pathology?
- Plasmodium ovale
- Plasmodium falciparum
- Pentatrichomonas hominis
- Plasmodium malariae
Explanation: Answer reason: Plasmodium malariae causes quartan malaria with fever spikes every 72 hours; P. vivax and P. ovale are tertian (48 hours), and P. falciparum is often irregular.
Tuberculosis is the disease caused by ___?
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- Mycobacterium leprae
- Variola virus
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis; Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, and the variola virus causes smallpox.
The world's smallest organism is?
- Bacteria
- Virus
- Mycoplasma
- Fungi
Explanation: Answer reason: Mycoplasmas are the smallest free-living organisms (cells); viruses are acellular and often not classified as organisms. Hence, option C.
Trichomoniasis is caused by?
- Fungi
- Bacteria
- Virus
- Parasite
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, a protozoan parasite, not a fungus, bacterium, or virus.
Whooping cough is an infection?
- Bacterial
- Viral
- Parasitic
- Fungal
Explanation: Answer reason: Whooping cough (pertussis) is caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis; therefore, it is a bacterial infection.
Media of transmission of the bovine type of the tuberculosis bacillus?
- Milk
- Water
- Air
- Food
Explanation: Answer reason: Bovine tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis) is commonly transmitted to humans through the ingestion of unpasteurized milk and dairy products from infected cattle.
Which disease does a dog bite cause?
- Cancer
- Ringworms
- Rabies
- Heart attack
Explanation: Answer reason: Dog bites can transmit the rabies virus, causing rabies. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection, and cancer or a heart attack is not caused by dog bites.
Which hepatitis virus is associated with the highest mortality in pregnancy?
- Hepatitis A
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis E
Explanation: Answer reason: Hepatitis E infection has the highest maternal mortality, especially in the third trimester, due to fulminant hepatic failure.
From where did coronavirus get its name?
- Because of their crown-like projections.
- Because of their leaf-like projections.
- Due to the surface structure of bricks.
- None of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: Coronaviruses are named for their characteristic halo or crown-like spikes on the viral envelope visible under electron microscopy (“corona” means crown in Latin).
A Scotch tape swab is used to identify?
- Tapeworm
- Pinworm
- Ancylostoma
- Hookworm
Explanation: Answer reason: The Scotch tape swab (perianal cellulose tape test) detects Enterobius vermicularis eggs around the anus, diagnosing pinworm infection.
Koplik's spot is a typical sign of which disease?
- Measles
- Diphtheria
- Mumps
- Pertussis
Explanation: Answer reason: Koplik spots—tiny bluish-white lesions on the buccal mucosa—are pathognomonic for measles (rubeola).
Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
- Syphilis
- Gonorrhea
- AIDS
- Anthrax
Explanation: Answer reason: Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) is not transmitted sexually, whereas syphilis, gonorrhea, and HIV/AIDS are sexually transmitted infections.
Which of the following has "stool examination" as its diagnosis?
- Plasmodium ovale
- Babesia microti
- Cryptosporidium parvum
- Plasmodium vivax
Explanation: Answer reason: Cryptosporidium parvum is an intestinal protozoan identified by oocysts in stool (acid-fast stain or antigen tests). Plasmodium spp. and Babesia are blood parasites diagnosed with blood smears, not stool.
The percentage of formaldehyde in concentrated formalin?
- 33%
- 60%
- 40%
- 90%
Explanation: Answer reason: Concentrated formalin is a commercial aqueous solution of formaldehyde containing about 37–40% formaldehyde by weight; commonly rounded to 40%.
The Widal test is a test for ______?
- Pregnancy
- Malaria
- Pcv
- Typhoid.
Explanation: Answer reason: The Widal test detects agglutinating antibodies (O and H) against Salmonella typhi/paratyphi, used to diagnose typhoid fever.
Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?
Run through a full 150-question exam just like the real thing. You’ll hit the 85-question checkpoint and get a clear report showing where you stand.
