Question 1

Which of the following is a gas component of the ABG measurement?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carbon dioxide is a gas measured as PaCO2 and reflects the respiratory component of acid–base balance (ventilation). Bicarbonate is not a gas; it is a calculated/derived metabolic parameter based on pH and PaCO2. Hydrogen concentration is represented indirectly by pH rather than reported as a “gas component.”.

Question 2

What are the signs and symptoms of HYPOCALCEMIA?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Carpopedal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff is a classic bedside sign consistent with hypocalcemia. The other options are not typical manifestations of isolated hypocalcemia; fever suggests infection/inflammation, hemolysis suggests red cell destruction, and edema is more consistent with fluid overload or hypoalbuminemia. Recognizing Trousseau sign helps prompt timely confirmation with serum calcium and ECG monitoring for QT prolongation.

Question 3

The infant mortality rate is calculated per?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Infant mortality rate is a population health indicator standardized to a fixed number of live births so rates can be compared across places and time. It specifically counts deaths of infants under 1 year of age divided by the number of live births in the same period. Among the provided denominators, the public health convention tested here is per 10,000 live births, whereas 100,000 is more typical for overall mortality rates and 100 would be unrealistically small for rare-event rate reporting. Using a consistent denominator prevents misleading interpretation due to population size differences.

Question 4

Maternal mortality rate is expressed per?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The accepted definition reports maternal deaths during pregnancy or within 42 days of termination per a fixed number of live births, which uses 100,000 to avoid very small rates. Using 1,000 or 10,000 would yield tiny decimals and less interpretable figures for public-health surveillance. Using 1 million is typically reserved for extremely rare outcomes and is not the standard for this indicator.

Question 5

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Respiratory acidosis is defined by a primary elevation in PaCO2 from hypoventilation, which drives the pH down (acidic). Guillain-Barré can weaken respiratory muscles, reducing alveolar ventilation and causing CO2 retention. This option shows acidemia (pH well below 7.35) with an elevated PaCO2 (>45 mm Hg), matching an uncompensated/acute respiratory acidosis pattern. By contrast, options with normal or low PaCO2 do not support a respiratory (CO2-driven) acidosis, and near-normal pH with normal PaCO2 would not confirm it.

Question 6

A physician believes that a patient may be experiencing pancreatitis. Which of the following tests would be best to diagnose this condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Serum lipase is more specific for pancreatic injury and typically remains elevated longer than amylase, so these tests best match the suspected condition. CK/troponin evaluate myocardial injury, not abdominal pancreatic inflammation. BUN/creatinine reflect renal function and hydration status and may indicate severity but do not diagnose pancreatitis. Lipid panels (HDL/LDL) assess cardiovascular risk rather than acute pancreatic pathology.

Question 7

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a calcium level of 12 mg/dL. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A calcium of 12 mg/dL is above normal and is consistent with symptomatic hypercalcemia, where diminished deep tendon reflexes are a classic finding. In contrast, diarrhea is more typical of hypocalcemia (or magnesium-related issues), while hypercalcemia more often causes constipation. Hypotension and increased appetite are not characteristic primary manifestations; hypercalcemia more commonly causes lethargy, polyuria/dehydration, and dysrhythmia risk.

Question 8

The nurse recalls that the diagnostic test which differentiates the benign growth of breast cancer is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Definitive differentiation between benign and malignant breast lesions requires histopathologic examination of tissue. A biopsy provides cellular architecture and receptor/pathology details that confirm malignancy or benignity. Ultrasound helps characterize a mass (e.g., cystic vs solid) but cannot reliably establish cancer diagnosis. Chemotherapy is a treatment, and yearly breast examination is a screening/assessment measure rather than a diagnostic test that distinguishes benign from malignant.

Question 9

In the investigation of an epidemic, you compare the present frequency of the disease with the usual frequency at this time of the year in this community. This is done during which stage of the investigation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  An epidemic is identified by demonstrating that the observed number of cases exceeds the expected baseline for that place and time. Comparing the current frequency with the community’s usual seasonal frequency is the core step used to confirm that an outbreak truly exists rather than normal variation. Hypothesis formulation and testing occur after confirming the excess and beginning descriptive epidemiology (person–place–time). Appraisal of the problem is more about initial recognition/verification and defining the situation, not quantifying observed-versus-expected to establish an epidemic.

Question 10

Guess the normal range of creatinine in blood ?.

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 0.7--1.3mg/dl Serum creatinine is a routinely used lab marker of glomerular filtration and overall renal function, with normal adult values generally around ~0.6–1.3 mg/dL depending on muscle mass and sex. This option best matches the widely accepted reference range used in many clinical labs for adults. The higher ranges listed would more often suggest impaired renal clearance or acute/chronic kidney dysfunction rather than normal physiology. Although some labs may list slightly different sex-specific upper limits, the other options are clearly outside typical normal limits.

Question 11

Nerve tests are done using?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly assesses for neuropathies (e.g., demyelinating vs axonal processes) and focal entrapments such as carpal tunnel syndrome. ECG measures cardiac electrical activity, not peripheral nerve integrity. CBC and LFT are blood tests that assess hematologic and hepatic status and do not test nerve conduction.

Question 12

The nurse is attending a workshop about caring for persons infected with Hepatitis. Which statement is correct when referring to the incidence rate for Hepatitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This option explicitly describes new onset cases within a specific period, matching the epidemiologic definition of incidence rate. In contrast, a “total number at a particular time” describes prevalence, reflecting existing cases rather than newly diagnosed ones. Mortality percentage refers to death rates/case-fatality rather than incidence, and “occurrence at a particular time” also aligns more with prevalence.

Question 13

Hardness of water is expressed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This unit matches how dissolved solids/ions are quantified in water quality testing and allows direct comparison to guideline thresholds. MEq/L can be used in chemistry to express ionic concentration in terms of equivalents, but it is not the standard reporting unit for hardness in routine water analysis. Units like oz/L and mg% are not typical for water hardness reporting in public health or lab water-quality contexts.

Question 14

Leukocytosis Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A value of 25,000/mm³ is well above the upper limit and therefore unambiguously indicates leukocytosis, often seen with significant infection/inflammation, stress response, corticosteroids, or hematologic malignancy. In contrast, 4,500/mm³ and 7,000/mm³ are within normal limits, and 10,000/mm³ is high-normal or borderline but not clearly abnormal by many lab standards. The question asks for a count that clearly indicates leukocytosis, so the markedly elevated value is the best choice.

Question 15

A 45-year-old female patient has been ordered to have an aspartate aminotransferase (AST) lab test. The patient’s physician had prescribed her a cholesterol-lowering medication that has the potential to cause liver damage. Which of the following AST enzyme levels would indicate that the medication is not causing liver damage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A typical adult reference range is roughly 10–40 U/L, so a value within this range suggests no evidence of medication-induced liver injury at the time of testing. Among the options, 25 U/L is clearly within normal limits, while 50, 60, and 75 U/L are elevated and would raise concern for hepatotoxicity (especially in the context of a statin). Clinical decisions should also consider ALT and symptoms, but for this question the normal AST value best indicates no liver damage.

Question 16

Normal sodium level is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Values below this range indicate hyponatremia, which can cause cerebral edema and neurologic symptoms as water shifts into cells. Values above this range indicate hypernatremia, usually from free-water loss, causing cellular dehydration and altered mental status. The other ranges provided either include hyponatremic values or represent clearly hypernatremic levels rather than normal physiology.

Question 17

Maternal death rate is expressed death per?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The conventional definition reports maternal deaths during pregnancy or within 42 days of termination, per a fixed denominator of live births. Using 100,000 live births provides sufficient scale because maternal deaths are relatively infrequent events, improving interpretability and comparability. Denominators like 1,000 live births are used for infant mortality, making them a common distractor here.

Question 18

Instrument to detect the color of a solution is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it the standard instrument for detecting and quantifying color changes in laboratory assays (e.g., biochemical estimations). A flame photometer instead measures emission from atoms in a flame, commonly for electrolytes like sodium and potassium, not general solution color. Chromatography separates mixture components rather than directly detecting solution color as a primary measurement.

Question 19

The nurse is working in an oncology clinic caring for a patient currently undergoing treatment for colorectal cancer. Which of these tumor markers would most likely be used to monitor the patient’s disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Colorectal cancers commonly produce CEA, so serial values can help monitor treatment response and detect recurrence when interpreted alongside symptoms and imaging. Alpha-fetoprotein is classically associated with hepatocellular carcinoma and some germ cell tumors, while beta-hCG is linked to trophoblastic disease and certain testicular tumors. PSA is specific to prostate tissue and is used for prostate cancer monitoring, not colorectal malignancy.

Question 20

Normal serum sodium is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Values in the mid-130s to mid-140s reflect normal extracellular osmolality and effective circulating volume. A value like 155 represents hypernatremia, typically indicating water deficit relative to sodium and risking neurologic symptoms from cellular dehydration. Extremely low values such as 80 or 100 are incompatible with normal physiology and would indicate profound hyponatremia with high seizure/coma risk.

Question 21

Urine bile can be tested through ............. test?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it a specific bedside/qualitative screening method for bile salts in suspected cholestasis or obstructive jaundice. Benedict’s and Fehling’s tests are classic reducing sugar tests used for glucosuria, not bile constituents. “Cold test” is not a standard named urine test for bile.

Question 22

The nurse is working in an oncology clinic caring for a patient currently undergoing treatment for colorectal cancer. Which of these tumor markers would most likely be used to monitor the patient’s disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CEA is the classic marker associated with colorectal cancer and is commonly followed over time to monitor disease burden and treatment effectiveness. A rising value after treatment can suggest residual disease or recurrence, while decreasing levels generally indicate response. By contrast, AFP is more associated with hepatocellular carcinoma and some germ cell tumors, PSA is specific to prostate pathology, and beta-hCG is linked to pregnancy-related conditions and certain germ cell tumors.

Question 23

Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thick and thin smears (typically Giemsa-stained) remain the diagnostic standard, especially where rapid tests may miss low parasitemia. A WBC count is nonspecific and cannot confirm malaria. Serologic testing such as ELISA is not the primary acute diagnostic method because antibodies may reflect past exposure and do not reliably indicate current parasitemia.

Question 24

A 6-month-old infant presents with a fever, irritability, and a bulging fontanelle. Which finding on lumbar puncture would most strongly suggest bacterial meningitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bacteria and recruited leukocytes also consume glucose, leading to decreased CSF glucose relative to serum. This paired pattern is more specific for bacterial meningitis than isolated protein elevation, which can occur in other conditions. In contrast, lymphocyte predominance and/or normal glucose is more consistent with viral etiologies.

Question 25

Which diagnostic test is the most accurate for diagnosing liver cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CT provides detailed anatomic resolution and vascular phase information that improves identification and staging of primary liver tumors. Ultrasound is commonly used for surveillance and initial evaluation but is more operator-dependent and less definitive for lesion characterization. A flat plate abdominal X-ray does not evaluate liver parenchymal tumors, and a cholangiogram primarily assesses biliary tree obstruction rather than diagnosing hepatic cancer.

Question 26

Cardiac enzymes can be divided into cardiacspecific enzymes and nonspecific enzymes. Which nonspecific cardiac enzyme indicates myocardial damage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Myocardial injury releases intracellular enzymes into the bloodstream, and some of these markers rise with many types of muscle damage rather than only heart muscle. Total CK is a nonspecific marker because it increases with skeletal muscle injury, trauma, seizures, and other conditions, but it can still indicate myocardial damage when elevated in the right clinical context. In contrast, CK-MB and troponin I are relatively cardiac-specific markers used to diagnose myocardial infarction more specifically. Creatinine reflects renal function and is not a cardiac enzyme marker of myocardial necrosis.

Question 27

Ionizing radiation is the only form of radiation proven to cause human cancer. Which are examples of ionizing radiation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ionizing radiation has enough energy to remove electrons from atoms, creating ions and causing DNA damage that can increase cancer risk. X-rays are high-energy electromagnetic waves used in diagnostic imaging and are a classic example of ionizing radiation. In contrast, cell phones, microwaves, and radio waves are non-ionizing forms of electromagnetic radiation and do not have sufficient photon energy to ionize atoms. Therefore, the only listed choice that fits the definition and cancer-risk mechanism of ionizing radiation is the one used in radiographic imaging.

Question 28

The nurse is reviewing clients’ lab results. Which client is at greatest risk for having a false-positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) result?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic liver disease and systemic inflammation—common in long-term alcohol misuse—are classic contexts associated with false-positive non-treponemal tests. In contrast, injection drug use increases true syphilis risk via sexual exposure but does not itself cause the nonspecific antibody reaction that drives false positivity. Blood transfusion is not a typical cause of false-positive VDRL, and breast-feeding status is not an established trigger for biologic false positivity.

Question 29

A nurse caring for an infant with pyloric stenosis should expect to observe which laboratory values?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Persistent vomiting from pyloric stenosis causes loss of gastric hydrochloric acid, leading to metabolic alkalosis with an elevated blood pH. Along with hydrogen ions, chloride is lost, producing hypochloremia; the kidneys may also retain bicarbonate to maintain electroneutrality. Therefore the expected pattern is alkalemia plus low serum chloride. Options showing acidemia or normal/high chloride do not match the classic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis seen in this condition.

Question 30

A client’s arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal pH 7.2, HCO3 22 mEq/L, and PaCO2 40 mm Hg. Which illness does this indicate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A very low pH indicates acidemia, and the next step is identifying whether the primary disturbance is metabolic (HCO3−) or respiratory (PaCO2). Here the PaCO2 is normal (40 mm Hg), which argues against a primary respiratory disorder as the driver of the acidemia. With acidemia present, the remaining answer choices make metabolic acidosis the best fit compared with alkalosis options, which would raise pH. A common distractor is respiratory acidosis, but that would require an elevated PaCO2 above the normal range.

Question 31

Which diagnostic test utilizes a huge electromagnet that detects hidden tumors by mapping the vibrations of the various atoms in the body on a computer screen?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: MRI is based on a strong magnetic field and radiofrequency pulses that affect hydrogen nuclei alignment and relaxation, generating signals that are reconstructed into detailed images. This matches the description of a “huge electromagnet” and mapping atomic-level behavior to visualize internal structures and masses such as tumors. A CT/CAT scan uses ionizing radiation (x-rays) rather than an electromagnet, so it does not fit the mechanism described. Ultrasound relies on high-frequency sound waves and echo reflection, and radiotherapy is a treatment modality rather than a diagnostic test.

Question 32

The arterial blood gas analysis of a child with asthma shows a pH of 7.30, PCO2 of 56 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 25 mEq/L. The nurse determines that the child has which condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The elevated PaCO2 (56 mm Hg) identifies a primary respiratory process, reflecting CO2 retention from hypoventilation/air trapping that can occur with severe asthma. The bicarbonate is essentially normal (25 mEq/L), indicating little to no metabolic compensation yet, which fits an acute respiratory disturbance. Metabolic acidosis would require a low HCO3− as the primary abnormality, which is not seen here.

Question 33

Which approach should be included in the diagnostic workup for a 12- month-old infant who’s suspected of having acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An ELISA is a standard screening approach to detect HIV antibodies/antigen and is part of the diagnostic workup when HIV infection is suspected. Sputum culture and esophageal biopsy may be used to evaluate specific opportunistic infections or complications, but they do not establish HIV infection as the underlying cause. Counseling is important for families, but it is not itself a diagnostic test and does not replace laboratory confirmation.

Question 34

In community health and epidemiologic studies, which definition of disease prevalence is correct?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This matches the concept of counting how many people currently have the condition at that moment, regardless of when it began. In contrast, incidence focuses on new cases arising among those initially disease-free over a time interval, which is what options B and D describe. Option C refers to survival/duration rather than the frequency of disease in a population.

Question 35

Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign are seen in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Facial nerve tapping producing facial twitching (Chvostek) and carpal spasm with BP cuff inflation (Trousseau) are hallmark signs of low calcium states. Potassium disorders primarily manifest with muscle weakness and characteristic ECG changes rather than tetany. Elevated calcium tends to reduce neuromuscular excitability, making these spasm-based signs unlikely.

Question 36

Normal blood pH is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 7.35-7.45 Normal arterial blood pH is tightly regulated by buffer systems, the lungs (CO2 elimination), and the kidneys (bicarbonate handling) to maintain physiologic enzyme and cellular function. The accepted normal range is 7.35–7.45; values below this indicate acidemia and above this indicate alkalemia. The lower ranges offered (7.0–7.2 and 7.25–7.30) represent clinically significant acidemia rather than normal. The higher range (7.5–7.6) reflects alkalemia and would typically be associated with symptoms such as neuromuscular irritability and arrhythmia risk.

Question 37

What is the name of this test to be done before drawing an arterial blood gas sample?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Allen test assesses patency of the radial and ulnar arteries by observing return of hand perfusion after sequential occlusion and release. This directly matches the pre-ABG safety screening performed before radial artery sampling. Other listed tests assess unrelated vascular or neurologic findings (e.g., water hammer for aortic regurgitation, Trendelenburg for venous valve competence), so they do not apply to ABG preparation.

Question 38

How have advancements in microfluidic technology improved the performance and accessibility of point-of-care diagnostic devices for infectious diseases?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It enables multiplexing/panel testing by running multiple reactions in parallel with tiny reagent volumes, allowing broader infectious disease detection from one sample. It also streamlines sample preparation and handling (e.g., filtration, mixing, lysis, extraction) on-device, reducing operator steps and contamination risk. Finally, smartphone-based readouts enhance accessibility by providing portable imaging/analysis, data display, and connectivity for reporting and surveillance, so all listed advances contribute.

Question 39

A positive tuberculin test is indicated by and area of induration of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For many individuals with typical risk profiles, an induration size at or above the 10 mm cutoff is considered positive, indicating prior sensitization to mycobacterial antigens. Smaller reactions such as 6–9 mm are not reliably positive in average-risk patients and are generally below the standard positive cutoff unless the patient is in a very high-risk group with a lower threshold. Absence of induration is a negative result and does not support TB infection. The question’s best single cutoff choice among the options corresponds to the commonly taught 10 mm criterion.

Question 40

A client arrives at the emergency department with shortness of breath after being stung by a bee. Anaphylaxis is suspected. The nurse immediately placed a venturi mask with oxygen supplementation. Which of the following ABG results would the nurse expect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute anaphylaxis commonly causes ventilation–perfusion mismatch and upper/lower airway compromise, producing hypoxemia while the patient initially hyperventilates from respiratory distress. Hyperventilation lowers PaCO2 and raises pH, creating primary acute respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate may be slightly low/near-normal because renal metabolic compensation has not had time to occur in an acute event. A common distractor is a “normal” PaO2 pattern, but significant hypoxemia is expected when bronchospasm/edema limits effective gas exchange despite supplemental oxygen.

Question 41

The normal pH of urine is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: 4.5 – 8.0 Normal urine pH varies widely because diet, hydration status, and renal handling of acids and bases influence urinary hydrogen ion excretion. In most healthy individuals, urine is typically slightly acidic on average (~6), but physiologic ranges extend from about 4.5 up to 8.0. The other choices are either too narrowly centered around neutral blood pH or represent extremes that would not be considered the usual normal range. Recognizing this broad normal range is important when interpreting urinalysis in conditions like UTIs (often more alkaline) or ketoacidosis (more acidic).

Question 42

What serum glucose level indicates hypoglycemia in an infant within the first 4 hours of life?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the first several hours of life, a commonly used operational threshold for hypoglycemia is a serum/plasma glucose below 40 mg/dL, prompting feeding support and/or further evaluation depending on symptoms and risk factors. This cutoff is more appropriate for the 0–4 hour window than higher thresholds that are typically applied later in the first day of life. Lower values like 35 mg/dL are more severe but are not the standard defining threshold used for early screening and intervention decisions.

Question 43

You found out that a patient’s serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which electrocardiogram (ECG) change do you expect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A potassium of 6 mEq/L is mild-to-moderate hyperkalemia, where the earliest and most classic finding is tall, narrow, “tented” T waves. As potassium rises further, PR prolongation and QRS widening may follow, eventually leading to sine-wave patterns and arrest if untreated. Flattened T waves is a typical hypokalemia finding, making it an important distractor contrast in electrolyte ECG questions.

Question 44

A client is admitted to the cardiac unit and placed on telemetry. A nurse reviews the client’s laboratory values and notes that the potassium level is 6.3 mEq/L. When analyzing the cardiac rhythm, the nurse would expect to note which electrocardiogram (ECG) finding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A potassium of 6.3 mEq/L is in the hyperkalemic range where this ECG change is a classic early finding before more dangerous conduction effects occur. As potassium rises further, PR prolongation, QRS widening, and progression toward sine-wave patterns and ventricular dysrhythmias can develop. An extra U wave and a prolonged QT interval are more consistent with hypokalemia, and ST-segment depression is not the hallmark electrolyte signature for elevated potassium.

Question 45

Normal opening pressure of CSF is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A typical adult reference range is about 6–18 cm H2O, which corresponds to 60–180 mm H2O, matching this option. Values substantially above this range suggest elevated intracranial pressure and warrant prompt clinical correlation and caution with LP. Options listed in mmHg are in the wrong unit and their magnitudes do not align with standard CSF opening pressure norms.

Question 46

Which diagnostic test confirms hematuria?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hematuria is defined by the presence of red blood cells in urine, and confirmation requires direct evaluation of urine for RBCs. Microscopic urinalysis identifies and quantifies RBCs per high-power field and can help distinguish true hematuria from pigmenturia (e.g., hemoglobinuria or myoglobinuria) that may also discolor urine. A blood test does not directly demonstrate blood in the urine and may be normal despite hematuria. Chest X-ray and ECG are unrelated to urinary findings and cannot confirm hematuria.

Question 47

Which patient is at most risk for hypomagnesemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypomagnesemia commonly results from poor intake, impaired absorption, and increased renal/GI losses. Chronic alcohol use is a high-yield risk factor because it is associated with malnutrition, diarrhea/vomiting, and alcohol-induced renal magnesium wasting, making low magnesium particularly likely. This deficit can also coexist with hypokalemia and hypocalcemia, increasing risk for neuromuscular irritability and dysrhythmias. Overuse of laxatives can contribute to electrolyte loss, but the antacid component often contains magnesium and more classically predisposes to hypermagnesemia in susceptible patients, making it less clearly the “most” at-risk choice here.

Question 48

Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek’s sign indicates?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tapping the facial nerve triggers facial muscle twitching when calcium is deficient, making it a classic bedside sign of hypocalcemia (often alongside Trousseau’s sign). Sodium and potassium abnormalities cause different hallmark findings (e.g., mental status changes/seizures for severe sodium shifts, weakness/arrhythmias for potassium disorders) rather than facial nerve hyperexcitability. Elevated magnesium typically depresses neuromuscular activity and deep tendon reflexes, the opposite physiologic effect.

Question 49

Which of the following conditions is associated with elevated serum chloride levels?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diabetes can be associated with this pattern particularly in settings such as renal tubular dysfunction, osmotic diuresis with volume depletion, or treatment-related shifts, where chloride may increase relative to bicarbonate. In contrast, cystitis is a localized urinary infection and does not typically cause a systemic chloride elevation. Eclampsia and essential hypertension are not classic primary causes of isolated elevated serum chloride; their electrolyte issues more often relate to renal function changes or therapies rather than chloride-driven abnormalities.

Question 50

Blood sugar test (RBS/FBS) detects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These tests are central for screening, diagnosing, and monitoring diabetes mellitus and assessing acute hypo/hyperglycemia. Cholesterol is assessed with lipid panels, hemoglobin with CBC/Hb/Hct, and electrolytes with a basic or comprehensive metabolic panel. Therefore the test detects the current glucose level in the blood.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Laboratory Values & Diagnostics NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning

Which of the following is a gas component of the ABG measurement?

What are the signs and symptoms of HYPOCALCEMIA?

The infant mortality rate is calculated per?

Maternal mortality rate is expressed per?

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?

A physician believes that a patient may be experiencing pancreatitis. Which of the following tests would be best to diagnose this condition?

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a calcium level of 12 mg/dL. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

The nurse recalls that the diagnostic test which differentiates the benign growth of breast cancer is?

In the investigation of an epidemic, you compare the present frequency of the disease with the usual frequency at this time of the year in this community. This is done during which stage of the investigation?

Guess the normal range of creatinine in blood ?.

Nerve tests are done using?

The nurse is attending a workshop about caring for persons infected with Hepatitis. Which statement is correct when referring to the incidence rate for Hepatitis?

Hardness of water is expressed as?

Leukocytosis Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?

Normal sodium level is?

Maternal death rate is expressed death per?

Instrument to detect the color of a solution is?

The nurse is working in an oncology clinic caring for a patient currently undergoing treatment for colorectal cancer. Which of these tumor markers would most likely be used to monitor the patient’s disease?

Normal serum sodium is?

Urine bile can be tested through ............. test?

The nurse is working in an oncology clinic caring for a patient currently undergoing treatment for colorectal cancer. Which of these tumor markers would most likely be used to monitor the patient’s disease?

Mr. Dela Rosa is suspected to have malaria after a business trip in Palawan. The most important diagnostic test in malaria is?

A 6-month-old infant presents with a fever, irritability, and a bulging fontanelle. Which finding on lumbar puncture would most strongly suggest bacterial meningitis?

Which diagnostic test is the most accurate for diagnosing liver cancer?

Cardiac enzymes can be divided into cardiacspecific enzymes and nonspecific enzymes. Which nonspecific cardiac enzyme indicates myocardial damage?

Ionizing radiation is the only form of radiation proven to cause human cancer. Which are examples of ionizing radiation?

The nurse is reviewing clients’ lab results. Which client is at greatest risk for having a false-positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) result?

A nurse caring for an infant with pyloric stenosis should expect to observe which laboratory values?

A client’s arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal pH 7.2, HCO3 22 mEq/L, and PaCO2 40 mm Hg. Which illness does this indicate?

Which diagnostic test utilizes a huge electromagnet that detects hidden tumors by mapping the vibrations of the various atoms in the body on a computer screen?

The arterial blood gas analysis of a child with asthma shows a pH of 7.30, PCO2 of 56 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 25 mEq/L. The nurse determines that the child has which condition?

Which approach should be included in the diagnostic workup for a 12- month-old infant who’s suspected of having acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

In community health and epidemiologic studies, which definition of disease prevalence is correct?

Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign are seen in?

Normal blood pH is?

What is the name of this test to be done before drawing an arterial blood gas sample?

How have advancements in microfluidic technology improved the performance and accessibility of point-of-care diagnostic devices for infectious diseases?

A positive tuberculin test is indicated by and area of induration of?

A client arrives at the emergency department with shortness of breath after being stung by a bee. Anaphylaxis is suspected. The nurse immediately placed a venturi mask with oxygen supplementation. Which of the following ABG results would the nurse expect?

The normal pH of urine is?

What serum glucose level indicates hypoglycemia in an infant within the first 4 hours of life?

You found out that a patient’s serum potassium level is 6 mEq/L. Which electrocardiogram (ECG) change do you expect?

A client is admitted to the cardiac unit and placed on telemetry. A nurse reviews the client’s laboratory values and notes that the potassium level is 6.3 mEq/L. When analyzing the cardiac rhythm, the nurse would expect to note which electrocardiogram (ECG) finding?

Normal opening pressure of CSF is?

Which diagnostic test confirms hematuria?

Which patient is at most risk for hypomagnesemia?

Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek’s sign indicates?

Which of the following conditions is associated with elevated serum chloride levels?

Blood sugar test (RBS/FBS) detects?

Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?

Leave a Reply Cancel reply