Laboratory Values & Diagnostics Practice Test 3
Laboratory Values & Diagnostics NCLEX Practice Test
Laboratory Values & Diagnostics is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Laboratory Values & Diagnostics. This section interprets key lab data and integrates findings into clinical nursing judgment. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 3rd part of the Laboratory Values & Diagnostics series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
Continue Learning
In the Laboratory Values & Diagnostics Study Cards section, shared by real NCLEX candidates, you’ll find concise summaries and high-yield insights related to the most tested concepts. It’s a perfect space to reinforce challenging topics and sharpen your recall through quick, focused repetitions. Short, powerful, and repeatable!
Laboratory Values & Diagnostics Practice Test 3
Which lab test confirms myocardial infarction?
- CK-MB
- Troponin
- LDH
- SGOT
Explanation: Answer reason: Cardiac troponins (I and T) are the most sensitive and specific biomarkers for myocardial injury and are the preferred lab tests to confirm myocardial infarction in modern practice. They rise within hours of infarction and remain elevated for days, improving diagnostic accuracy when correlated with clinical presentation and ECG findings. CK-MB can be useful for detecting reinfarction but is less specific than troponin. LDH and SGOT (AST) are older, nonspecific markers and are not used to confirm MI.
Hemoglobin is checked by -?
- X- Ray
- MRI
- CBC
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: Hemoglobin concentration is a standard component of a complete blood count (CBC), which evaluates red blood cell indices and related parameters. Imaging studies such as X-ray and MRI do not measure hemoglobin levels. Therefore, the appropriate test to check hemoglobin is the CBC.
What is viral load in the context of HIV?
- Number of viruses in a test tube
- Number of viruses per microliter of blood
- Number of antibodies in the blood
- Number of T-cells
Explanation: Answer reason: HIV viral load refers to the quantity of HIV RNA circulating in the bloodstream, reported as copies per unit volume (commonly copies/mL). It is used to assess the degree of viral replication and to monitor response to antiretroviral therapy. Antibody levels are measured by serologic tests, and T-cell number refers to the CD4 count, which reflects immune status rather than viral quantity. Therefore the option describing the number of viruses per volume of blood is the best match.
What is normal blood pressure?
- 120/80
- 120/90
- 130/80
- 150/100
Explanation: Answer reason: A blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg is commonly taught as the normal adult reference value. The other options reflect elevated diastolic pressure (120/90), elevated systolic pressure (130/80), or stage 2 hypertension (150/100) by standard guideline cutoffs. Therefore, 120/80 best represents “normal” among the provided choices.
What is the name of the test used to detect blood in a stool sample?
- Complete Blood Count (CBC)
- Stool culture
- Fecal Occult Blood Test (FOBT)
- Urinalysis
Explanation: Answer reason: The fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is specifically designed to detect hidden (occult) blood in stool that may not be visible to the naked eye. It is commonly used for colorectal cancer screening and for evaluating possible gastrointestinal bleeding. In contrast, a CBC evaluates blood cell counts, a stool culture detects infectious organisms, and urinalysis assesses urine—not stool—for abnormalities.
The normal range of hemoglobin in adult females is?
- 8-10 g/dL
- 12-16 g/dL
- 16-18 g/dL
- 18-20 g/dL
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal hemoglobin for adult females is typically about 12–16 g/dL, reflecting expected red blood cell mass and oxygen-carrying capacity. Values like 8–10 g/dL suggest clinically significant anemia for most adults. Ranges of 16–20 g/dL are more consistent with polycythemia or hemoconcentration and are generally above the normal female range. Therefore, 12–16 g/dL is the best answer.
Which ECG finding is most characteristic of hyperkalemia?
- Prolonged PR interval
- Peaked T waves
- U waves
- ST elevation
Explanation: Answer reason: Hyperkalemia most classically causes tall, narrow, “peaked” T waves due to accelerated ventricular repolarization. As potassium rises further, additional ECG changes can include PR prolongation, QRS widening, and eventual sine-wave patterns. U waves are more characteristic of hypokalemia, and ST elevation is more typical of acute myocardial injury rather than isolated hyperkalemia.
The tumor marker for ovarian cancer is?
- CEA
- CA-125
- AFP
- PSA
Explanation: Answer reason: CA-125 is the most commonly used serum tumor marker associated with epithelial ovarian cancer and is widely used to help monitor treatment response and detect recurrence. It is not sufficiently specific for population screening because it can be elevated in benign conditions (e.g., endometriosis, menstruation, pregnancy) and other malignancies. In contrast, CEA is more associated with colorectal and some mucinous tumors, AFP with hepatocellular carcinoma and germ cell tumors, and PSA with prostate cancer.
Which is the best test for detecting liver dysfunction-?
- SGPT
- Serum albumin
- Serum bilirubin
- Prothrombin time
Explanation: Answer reason: Prothrombin time (PT/INR) is a sensitive indicator of liver synthetic function because the liver produces clotting factors (especially factor VII with a short half-life), so PT prolongs early in significant hepatic dysfunction. SGPT (ALT) reflects hepatocellular injury rather than overall functional capacity and can be elevated without failure. Serum albumin reflects chronic synthetic impairment but changes slowly due to its long half-life and can be affected by nutrition and renal loss. Bilirubin reflects excretory function/cholestasis and hemolysis, and is not as direct a measure of overall liver synthetic dysfunction as PT.
Biomedical impedance refers to?
- Malnutrition
- Another term for BMI
- An electrical measurement of total body water compared to body fat
- The amount of electrical activity in a muscle
Explanation: Answer reason: Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) estimates body composition by passing a small electrical current through the body and measuring impedance. Because lean tissue contains more water and electrolytes, it conducts electricity better than fat tissue, allowing estimation of total body water and body fat. It is not synonymous with BMI (which uses height and weight only) and is not a measure of muscle electrical activity (that is electromyography).
What is the normal range of Hb in male ...?
- 11-14gm%
- 11-16gm%
- 12-16gm%
- 10-16gm%
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal adult male hemoglobin is typically around 13.5–17.5 g/dL (often taught as approximately 14–18 g/dL), reflecting higher red cell mass driven by testosterone. Among the provided choices, 12–16 gm% is the closest approximation to the accepted normal male range. The other options start too low (10–11 g/dL), which would commonly indicate anemia in adult males.
Tuberculosis is diagnosed by?
- Blood pressure test
- Sputum test
- Urine test
- Saliva test
Explanation: Answer reason: Active pulmonary tuberculosis is confirmed by testing respiratory specimens, most commonly sputum, for Mycobacterium tuberculosis using acid-fast bacilli smear, culture, and/or nucleic acid amplification tests. These tests directly detect the organism and help determine infectiousness and guide treatment. Blood pressure testing does not diagnose TB, and routine urine or saliva testing are not standard confirmatory tests for pulmonary TB. While TB screening can involve a tuberculin skin test or IGRA, definitive diagnosis of active pulmonary disease relies on sputum testing.
Which blood test is used for prostate cancer?
- PSA
- AFP
- CEA
- CA-125
Explanation: Answer reason: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is the standard serum marker used in screening and monitoring prostate cancer. PSA levels may be elevated in prostate cancer and can also rise with benign prostatic hyperplasia or prostatitis, so it is not fully specific but remains the key blood test for this condition. AFP is primarily used for hepatocellular carcinoma and germ cell tumors, CEA for colorectal and some other adenocarcinomas, and CA-125 for ovarian cancer.
What is the common puncture site for ABG sampling?
- Radial artery
- Jugular vein
- Popliteal artery
- Basilic vein
Explanation: Answer reason: Arterial blood gas (ABG) samples require arterial blood, and the radial artery is the most commonly used site because it is superficial, easy to palpate, and has good collateral circulation via the ulnar artery (supporting safety if spasm or occlusion occurs). Venous sites (jugular and basilic veins) are used for venous blood draws, not ABGs. The popliteal artery is deeper and higher risk (harder access, greater complication risk), so it is not the common puncture site.
Normal fibrinogen level?
- 150-400 gm %
- 150-400 mg %
- 15-40 mg %
- 15-40 gm %
Explanation: Answer reason: Plasma fibrinogen is a coagulation factor normally present at about 200–400 mg/dL, commonly taught as a reference range of 150–400 mg/dL. Among the options, 150–400 mg% corresponds to this standard range. The gram-based options are far too large for physiologic fibrinogen concentrations, and 15–40 mg% is far too low and would suggest severe hypofibrinogenemia. Therefore, 150–400 mg% is the best answer.
Schilling test is done in diagnosis of?
- Iron deficiency anemia
- Pernicious anemia
- Aplastic anemia
- Folic acid deficiency
Explanation: Answer reason: The Schilling test historically evaluated vitamin B12 absorption by measuring urinary excretion of radiolabeled B12, helping distinguish intrinsic factor deficiency from other malabsorption causes. Pernicious anemia is due to lack of intrinsic factor from autoimmune gastritis, leading to impaired B12 absorption. Adding intrinsic factor in the test corrects absorption in pernicious anemia, supporting the diagnosis. The other listed anemias (iron deficiency, aplastic anemia, folate deficiency) are not primarily diagnosed by this B12 absorption test.
Which value is measured in ABG analysis?
- Blood urea nitrogen
- Hemoglobin
- Cerebrospinal fluid
Explanation: Answer reason: Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis evaluates arterial blood parameters related to oxygenation, ventilation, and acid–base balance. Modern ABG analyzers can directly or indirectly assess hemoglobin-related oxygenation status (such as oxygen saturation). Blood urea nitrogen is a renal function test, and cerebrospinal fluid is not measured via ABG sampling.
What lab test is most useful in predicting preeclampsia progression?
- Hemoglobin
- Liver enzymes and platelet count
- Creatinine only
- Fetal kick count
Explanation: Answer reason: Progression of preeclampsia is best predicted/monitored by evidence of worsening end-organ involvement, particularly hepatic dysfunction and thrombocytopenia. Elevated liver enzymes and a falling platelet count can indicate severe features and risk for HELLP syndrome, which signals clinical deterioration. Hemoglobin is nonspecific, creatinine alone misses key hepatic/hematologic severity markers, and fetal kick counts assess fetal well-being rather than maternal disease progression.
While running coagulation tests on a photo-optical instrument, the clinical laboratory technician observes that the PT results for a batch of patient samples are consistently prolonged, but the APTT results for those patient samples are within normal limits. The clinical laboratory technician should check the?
- Reagent delivery pipet
- Level of thromboplastin in the reagent well
- Patient samples for hemolysis
- Instrument's light source
Explanation: Answer reason: An isolated, consistently prolonged PT with normal APTT across multiple patients suggests an analytic/reagent issue specific to the PT assay rather than a true patient factor abnormality. PT depends on thromboplastin (tissue factor/phospholipid) reagent; inadequate reagent volume or deterioration can artifactually prolong clotting times. Issues like the instrument light source or general pipetting problems would be more likely to affect multiple assays (including APTT) rather than PT alone. Hemolysis is a sample-specific preanalytic issue and would not typically produce the same consistent PT-only prolongation across a batch.
Which test is used to monitor long-term blood sugar levels?
- Fasting glucose test
- Random blood sugar test
- Hemoglobin A1C test
- Insulin tolerance test
Explanation: Answer reason: Hemoglobin A1C reflects the percentage of glycated hemoglobin and correlates with average blood glucose over approximately the prior 2–3 months (the typical lifespan of red blood cells). This makes it the standard test for assessing long-term glycemic control in diabetes. In contrast, fasting and random glucose tests reflect glucose at a single point in time, and an insulin tolerance test is not used to routinely monitor chronic glucose control.
Normal hemoglobin level in adult females is about?
- 9–11 g/dl
- 11–13 g/dl
- 12–15 g/dl
- 16–18 g/dl
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal adult female hemoglobin is typically around 12 to 16 g/dL (lower than males due to differences in androgen effect and menstrual blood loss). Among the provided ranges, 12–15 g/dL best matches the accepted reference range and represents normal values. The lower ranges (9–11 and 11–13 g/dL) would commonly indicate anemia in many adult women, while 16–18 g/dL is more consistent with normal male levels or polycythemia/dehydration in females.
MRI Used to diagnose internal organs such as?
- Heart
- Brain
- Spinal Cord
- All of these
Explanation: Answer reason: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a diagnostic imaging modality used to visualize many internal organs and soft tissues. It is commonly used to evaluate the brain and spinal cord (central nervous system) and can also image the heart and great vessels with cardiac MRI. Therefore, all listed structures can be diagnosed/evaluated using MRI.
During ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) analysis, blood is collected from?
- Cephalic vein
- Radial artery
- Basilic vein
- Jugular vein
Explanation: Answer reason: Arterial blood gas testing requires an arterial specimen to accurately assess oxygenation, ventilation (PaCO2), and acid-base status. The radial artery is the most common site because it is superficial, has good collateral circulation via the ulnar artery (assessed with an Allen test), and is relatively easy to access. The cephalic, basilic, and jugular vessels listed are veins and would provide venous blood, which is not appropriate for ABG measurement.
The Doppler USG is used to?
- Measure bone density
- Evaluate blood flow
- Detect kidney stones
- Measure heart rate
Explanation: Answer reason: Doppler ultrasonography uses the Doppler effect to assess the direction and velocity of moving blood within vessels and the heart. It is commonly used to evaluate arterial/venous flow, detect stenosis or occlusion, and assess venous thrombosis or valvular flow patterns. Bone density is assessed by DEXA, kidney stones are typically identified by CT or standard ultrasound (not Doppler-specific), and heart rate is not the primary diagnostic purpose of Doppler USG.
The most common pregnancy test is?
- X RAY test
- Urine test
- MRI test
- CT scan
Explanation: Answer reason: The most common pregnancy test is a urine test that detects human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) after implantation. It is inexpensive, widely available (home tests and clinics), and provides results quickly. Imaging tests such as X-ray, CT, or MRI are not used as routine tests to diagnose pregnancy and, in the case of X-ray/CT, involve ionizing radiation that is avoided unless clinically necessary.
Normal value of serum urea?
- 15-40mg/dl
- 30-45mg/dl
- 35-40mg/dl
- 40-60mg/dl
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal serum urea (reported as urea, not BUN) is commonly taught as approximately 15–40 mg/dL, though reference ranges vary by lab. Values above this range can suggest reduced renal clearance, dehydration, increased protein catabolism, or gastrointestinal bleeding. The other options are either too narrow or shifted higher than typical normal ranges for serum urea.
What is the purpose of a biopsy?
- Pain relief
- Tissue healing
- Diagnosis of disease
- Increase blood circulation
Explanation: Answer reason: A biopsy involves removing a sample of tissue (or cells) to be examined—typically by histopathology and sometimes additional testing (e.g., immunohistochemistry). The primary purpose is to confirm or rule out disease, such as malignancy, infection, or inflammatory conditions. It is a diagnostic procedure rather than a treatment intended for pain relief, healing, or improving circulation.
Which test is used to detect infections in the body?
- Blood culture
- ECG
- X-ray
- MRI
Explanation: Answer reason: A blood culture is a laboratory diagnostic test used to detect bloodstream infection by growing and identifying bacteria or fungi from a blood sample. It can also provide antimicrobial susceptibility information to guide targeted therapy. ECG evaluates cardiac electrical activity, while X-ray and MRI are imaging studies that may show signs of infection in specific tissues but do not directly identify the causative pathogen in the blood.
Normal oxygen is?
- 75 to 100
- 83 to 100
- 93 to 100
- 97 to 100
Explanation: Answer reason: “Normal oxygen” in this context most commonly refers to normal oxygen saturation (SpO2) on pulse oximetry. In healthy adults at sea level, an SpO2 of about 95–100% is typically considered normal, and many nursing references accept ≥93–94% as the lower end of normal depending on context. Values as low as 75% or 83% indicate significant hypoxemia and are not considered normal. Therefore, 93 to 100 is the best match among the options.
Most sensitive cardiac marker is?
- Creatinine kinase
- Lactate dehydrogenase
- Troponin
- AST
Explanation: Answer reason: Cardiac troponins (cTnI/cTnT) are the most sensitive and most specific biomarkers for myocardial injury and are the preferred tests for diagnosing acute myocardial infarction. They rise within hours after injury and remain elevated for days, improving detection compared with older enzymes. Creatine kinase (CK/CK-MB), LDH, and AST are less specific and can be elevated in non-cardiac conditions, making them inferior markers.
Glucometer is used to check?
- Blood pressure
- Blood sugar level
- Body temperature
- Heartbeat
Explanation: Answer reason: A glucometer is a point-of-care device designed to measure capillary blood glucose using a small fingerstick blood sample and a test strip. It provides a rapid estimate of blood sugar level for screening and monitoring diabetes and hypoglycemia/hyperglycemia. It does not measure blood pressure, temperature, or heart rate, which require different instruments (e.g., sphygmomanometer, thermometer, pulse assessment).
All of the following are the methods used to assess urine specific gravity except?
- Urinometer
- Refractometer
- Reagent strips
- Biuret method
Explanation: Answer reason: Urine specific gravity is commonly measured using a urinometer (hydrometer principle), a refractometer (refractive index), or reagent dipstick strips (ionic concentration approximation). The biuret method is a colorimetric assay used to measure protein concentration (peptide bonds), not urine specific gravity. Therefore, biuret method is the exception.
The fasting blood glucose test requires the patient to fast for at least?
- 12 hours
- 10 hours
- 8 hours
- 6 hours
Explanation: Answer reason: A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) test is defined as a blood glucose measurement taken after no caloric intake for at least 8 hours. This fasting period minimizes the effect of recent meals on serum glucose and allows standardized interpretation for screening/diagnosis of diabetes and prediabetes. Longer fasts (e.g., 10–12 hours) are not required for the test definition, while 6 hours is typically insufficient to meet the fasting criterion.
The nurse reviews the ABG values of a client. The results indicate respiratory acidosis. Which of the following values would indicate that this acid-base imbalance exists?
- PH of 7.48
- PCO2 of 32 mm Hg
- PH of 7.30
- HCO3- of 20 mEq/L
Explanation: Answer reason: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by acidemia (pH < 7.35) due to hypoventilation with elevated PaCO2 (>45 mm Hg). A pH of 7.30 indicates acidemia and is consistent with acidosis, whereas pH 7.48 indicates alkalemia. A PaCO2 of 32 mm Hg suggests respiratory alkalosis, and an HCO3− of 20 mEq/L is low and more consistent with metabolic acidosis rather than primary respiratory acidosis.
The mean hematocrit value for adult males is?
- 42%
- 45%
- 47%
- 49%
Explanation: Answer reason: Adult male hematocrit averages around 47% (with a typical reference range roughly 41–53%). Hematocrit reflects the proportion of blood volume occupied by red blood cells, which is generally higher in males due to androgen effects on erythropoiesis. Among the options, 47% best matches the commonly taught mean/average value for adult men. Values like 42% are closer to female averages, while 49% is on the higher end of normal rather than the mean.
Normal hemoglobin in males?
- 8-10 g/dl
- 12-16 g/dl
- 13-18 g/dl
- 20-25 g/dl
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal adult male hemoglobin is typically about 13.5–17.5 g/dL (often rounded to 13–18 g/dL in exam references). Values like 8–10 g/dL indicate significant anemia, while 20–25 g/dL is abnormally high and suggests polycythemia or severe hemoconcentration. The 12–16 g/dL range is closer to many female reference ranges and is less accurate for adult males.
Pregnancy test best result?
- Urine
- Blood
- Serum
- Saliva
Explanation: Answer reason: The most accurate and earliest-confirming pregnancy testing is measurement of beta-hCG in blood, typically performed on serum. Serum (quantitative) testing detects lower hCG levels than urine tests and can provide an exact value to help interpret very early pregnancy or abnormal trends. “Blood” is less specific as a specimen description, whereas “serum” is the standard lab sample for most beta-hCG assays. Therefore, serum provides the best diagnostic result compared with urine testing.
Where should the EET tip sit on CXR?
- At the Carina
- 2-6 cm above Carina
- Mid trachea
- Above vocal cord
Explanation: Answer reason: On chest X-ray, the endotracheal tube (ETT) tip should lie in the mid-trachea, typically about 2–6 cm above the carina (often cited as ~3–5 cm) with the head in neutral position. This placement minimizes the risk of right mainstem intubation if the tube migrates downward and reduces the risk of accidental extubation if it migrates upward. Positioning at the carina is too low, and “above vocal cord” is far too high and unsafe.
Hemoglobin is checked by ...?
- MRI scan
- Blood test
- Biopsy
- X-ray
Explanation: Answer reason: Hemoglobin is a measurable component of blood and is assessed through a laboratory blood test (commonly as part of a complete blood count). Imaging studies like MRI or X-ray do not directly quantify hemoglobin concentration. A biopsy evaluates tissue pathology and is not used to measure hemoglobin levels. Therefore, a blood test is the correct method to check hemoglobin.
Normal Serum Sodium Level is ...?
- 120-125 mEq/L
- 90-120 mEq/L
- 135-145 mEq/L
- 160-170 mEq/L
Explanation: Answer reason: Normal adult serum sodium is approximately 135–145 mEq/L, reflecting the primary extracellular cation that largely determines plasma osmolality. Values below this range indicate hyponatremia, often associated with neurologic symptoms due to cerebral edema. Values above this range indicate hypernatremia, typically from water deficit or excess sodium, causing cellular dehydration and neurologic changes. Therefore, 135–145 mEq/L is the correct normal range among the options.
What is the normal range of oxygen saturation SpO2 in a healthy adult?
- 85-90%
- 90-95%
- 95-100%
- 75-88%
Explanation: Answer reason: In a healthy adult at sea level, normal peripheral oxygen saturation (SpO2) is typically in the mid-to-high 90s, most commonly cited as about 95% to 100%. Values below this range suggest hypoxemia or measurement issues (e.g., poor perfusion, motion artifact). Therefore, among the options provided, 95–100% best represents the normal range.
Après l'examen clinique et l'interrogatoire, quel est le 1er examen complémentaire à faire?
- Spirométrie
- Radiographie du thorax
- TDM thoracique
- Gazométrie
Explanation: Answer reason: En première intention, après l’interrogatoire et l’examen clinique devant une plainte respiratoire/thoracique non spécifiée, la radiographie thoracique est l’examen complémentaire de base, rapide, peu irradiant et largement disponible. Elle permet de dépister des causes fréquentes (pneumonie, pneumothorax, épanchement pleural, cardiomégalie) et d’orienter la suite du bilan. La TDM thoracique est généralement un examen de seconde ligne, plus irradiant, indiqué si la radiographie est anormale ou si la suspicion clinique persiste. La spirométrie et la gazométrie se discutent selon un contexte plus ciblé (asthme/BPCO, insuffisance respiratoire) plutôt qu’en "premier examen" systématique.
On analysant les résultats des examens complémentaires associés à la clinique de la patiente, Quelle est votre conduite (CAT)?
- Traitement antitussif
- Ventoline a la demande
- Refaire la spirométrie
- TDM thoracique
Explanation: Answer reason: Dans une démarche diagnostique respiratoire, la spirométrie est l’examen de première intention pour objectiver une obstruction et sa réversibilité, surtout si les résultats initiaux sont douteux ou discordants avec la clinique. Refaire une spirométrie de qualité (avec critères d’acceptabilité/reproductibilité et éventuellement test bronchodilatateur) permet de confirmer ou d’infirmer l’asthme/BPCO avant d’escalader vers des examens irradiants. Un traitement symptomatique (antitussif) risque de masquer une pathologie sous-jacente, et une TDM thoracique n’est généralement pas l’étape suivante sans signe d’alarme ou anomalie radiographique. La Ventoline “à la demande” peut être proposée en attendant, mais ne remplace pas la clarification diagnostique.
What is the full form of CBC?
- Complete Blood Count
- Cell Body Count
- Common Body Cells
- Central Blood Count
Explanation: Answer reason: CBC is the standard abbreviation for Complete Blood Count, a common laboratory test that reports key blood components such as hemoglobin/hematocrit, red blood cell indices, white blood cell count, and platelet count. The other options are not accepted medical expansions for CBC. Therefore, the correct expansion is Complete Blood Count.
Normal range of Serum Calcium is?
- 4–6 mg/dl
- 8.5–10.5 mg/dl
- 12–14 mg/dl
- 6–8 mg/dl
Explanation: Answer reason: Total serum calcium normal reference range is approximately 8.5–10.5 mg/dL in most adult lab standards. Values below this suggest hypocalcemia (e.g., due to hypoparathyroidism, vitamin D deficiency, renal disease), while values above suggest hypercalcemia (commonly hyperparathyroidism or malignancy). The other ranges listed are either too low (4–6, 6–8) or consistent with clinically significant hypercalcemia (12–14).
You are computing the crude rate of your municipality, with a total population of about 18,000 for last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those who died, 20 died because of diseases of the heart and 32 are aged 50 years or older. What is the crude death rate?
- 4.1/1000
- 5.2/1000
- 6.3/1000
- 7.3/1000
Explanation: Answer reason: Crude death rate uses all deaths in the population regardless of cause or age: (total deaths ÷ midyear population) × 1,000. Using 94 deaths and a population of 18,000 gives (94/18,000)×1,000 = 5.22 deaths per 1,000, which rounds to 5.2/1,000. The details about heart disease deaths and age ≥50 are not used for crude death rate; they would apply to cause-specific or age-specific rates.
Which lab to monitor in warfarin therapy?
- Troponin
- INR
- Bilirubin
- Platelets
Explanation: Answer reason: Warfarin inhibits vitamin K–dependent clotting factors, so its anticoagulant effect is monitored using the prothrombin time reported as the INR. INR guides dose adjustments to keep anticoagulation within the therapeutic range and reduce bleeding or thrombosis risk. Troponin is a cardiac injury marker, bilirubin reflects liver/biliary function, and platelets are primarily monitored for heparin-related issues (e.g., HIT) rather than warfarin efficacy.
A breast lump is suspected. Which biopsy method is usually done first?
- Excisional biopsy
- MRI
- Fine needle aspiration
- Lumpectomy
Explanation: Answer reason: The usual first tissue-sampling test for a suspected breast lump is a minimally invasive needle technique. Fine needle aspiration (FNA) is quick, low-risk, and can differentiate cystic from solid lesions and provide cytology for initial evaluation. Excisional biopsy and lumpectomy are more invasive surgical procedures typically reserved when needle methods are non-diagnostic or for definitive treatment. MRI is an imaging modality, not a biopsy method.
Hemoglobin is checked by?
- ECG
- MRI
- EEG
- Blood test
Explanation: Answer reason: Hemoglobin is a measurable component of blood and is quantified through laboratory testing (e.g., complete blood count or hemoglobin assay). ECG evaluates cardiac electrical activity, EEG evaluates brain electrical activity, and MRI provides imaging of body structures, none of which directly measure hemoglobin concentration. Therefore, a blood test is the correct method to check hemoglobin.
A negative urine pregnancy test performed on a random specimen may need to be repeated using a?
- Clean-catch specimen
- Fasting specimen
- First morning specimen
- 24-Hour specimen
Explanation: Answer reason: Urine pregnancy tests detect hCG, and a random urine sample can be diluted, leading to a false-negative result early in pregnancy. First morning urine is typically the most concentrated, increasing the likelihood of detecting low hCG levels. Clean-catch technique affects contamination, not hCG concentration, and fasting or 24-hour collections are not standard for improving pregnancy test sensitivity.
Think you’re ready for the NCLEX?
Run through a full 150-question exam just like the real thing. You’ll hit the 85-question checkpoint and get a clear report showing where you stand.
