Question 1

What is the main cause of gout?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: High uric acid Gout is caused by hyperuricemia, which leads to precipitation of monosodium urate crystals in joints and surrounding tissues. These crystals trigger an intense inflammatory response, producing acute painful arthritis (often the first metatarsophalangeal joint). Low iron, bone injury, and bacterial infection are not the primary etiologies of gout, though infection can mimic gout clinically (septic arthritis).
Category reason: This question tests the underlying disease mechanism (etiology/pathogenesis) of gout rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, so it fits foundational biomedical knowledge in Pathology.

Question 2

A 65-year-old man comes in with swollen, painful big toe after a night of heavy drinking. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gout Acute monoarticular pain and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint (podagra) after heavy alcohol intake is classic for gout due to monosodium urate crystal deposition. Alcohol can increase uric acid production and reduce renal urate excretion, precipitating an acute flare. Septic arthritis can mimic this but is less specifically linked to a big-toe post-alcohol trigger and typically demands systemic infectious risk/context. Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are usually chronic and less likely to present as sudden, intensely painful podagra.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a disease presentation (acute podagra triggered by alcohol) and the underlying pathological process (urate crystal–induced inflammatory arthritis), which fits Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 3

MCQ 4: Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with eclampsia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HELLP syndrome Eclampsia is the severe end of the preeclampsia spectrum, and HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) is a well-known, relatively common severe complication within this hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. It reflects systemic endothelial injury with microangiopathic hemolysis, hepatic involvement, and thrombocytopenia, which can rapidly worsen maternal and fetal outcomes. Pulmonary edema and retinal detachment can occur but are less commonly emphasized as the characteristic associated complication compared with HELLP, and placenta previa is not a typical consequence of eclampsia.
Category reason: This question tests disease association/complications of a pregnancy hypertensive disorder (eclampsia) and its related syndrome (HELLP), which is primarily pathology-focused rather than nursing task prioritization or interventions.

Question 4

The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness Meningitis commonly causes systemic and CNS inflammatory signs, including leukocytosis (elevated WBC count) and altered mental status such as confusion or decreased level of consciousness. “Manic activity” is not a typical hallmark manifestation of meningitis compared with delirium, lethargy, or reduced responsiveness. A low WBC count is less consistent with an acute infectious process and would not be the expected common finding in suspected meningitis.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of typical clinical manifestations associated with an infectious/inflammatory CNS disease (meningitis), which is primarily covered under Pathology rather than nursing intervention decision-making.

Question 5

Patients with liver cirrhosis are at risk for bleeding.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: True Cirrhosis impairs hepatic synthesis of clotting factors (e.g., II, VII, IX, X and fibrinogen) and can reduce vitamin K–dependent coagulation, increasing bleeding tendency. Portal hypertension commonly leads to thrombocytopenia from hypersplenism, further worsening hemostasis. Patients may therefore have easy bruising, prolonged bleeding, and high-risk hemorrhage (e.g., variceal bleeding).
Category reason: This item tests disease-related mechanisms of cirrhosis and its systemic complication (coagulopathy/bleeding risk), which is primarily Pathology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 6

True or False Bipolar disorder includes both manic and depressive episodes.

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: True Bipolar disorder is characterized by episodes of mood elevation (mania or hypomania) and episodes of depression. The defining feature is the presence of manic/hypomanic episodes, and most patients also experience depressive episodes over time. Therefore, the statement that bipolar disorder includes both manic and depressive episodes is true in the general clinical description.
Category reason: This is testing disease/condition definition and clinical features (manic and depressive episodes) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, so it fits NursingScience under Pathology.

Question 7

Gout is the inflammation of joints due to accumulation of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Uric acid crystal Gout is caused by deposition of monosodium urate (uric acid) crystals in joints, which triggers an intense inflammatory response. These crystals form when serum uric acid is elevated and precipitates in cooler peripheral joints (classically the first metatarsophalangeal joint). Urea crystals and ammonia (NH3) are not the typical inflammatory deposits in gout, and calcium-containing crystals are associated with pseudogout (CPPD), not gout.
Category reason: This question tests the disease mechanism/etiology of gout (crystal deposition leading to inflammation), which is a foundational pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 8

Cancer of lymphocyte is known as.......?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Lymphoma Lymphoma is a malignancy arising from lymphocytes (B cells, T cells, or NK cells), typically presenting in lymph nodes or other lymphoid tissues. Carcinoma refers to cancers of epithelial cells, sarcoma arises from mesenchymal/connective tissues, and lipoma is a benign tumor of adipose tissue. Therefore, cancer of lymphocytes is best termed lymphoma.
Category reason: This item tests basic disease classification by cell/tissue of origin (lymphocyte-derived malignancy), which is a foundational Pathology concept rather than a nursing care/intervention decision.

Question 9

Which of the following is a common sign of neonatal sepsis in a newborn?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hypothermia Newborns with sepsis often present with temperature instability due to immature thermoregulation and a systemic inflammatory response, and they may be hypothermic rather than febrile. This is a classic early, nonspecific sign and can occur before more obvious findings. Sneezing is more consistent with upper respiratory irritation, and increased crying is nonspecific and not a hallmark sign. Bradycardia can occur in severe illness but is less commonly emphasized as an early common sign compared with temperature instability.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a typical clinical manifestation of neonatal sepsis (a disease process and its signs), which falls under Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 10

Causes of non organic encopresis includes except-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Over eating Non-organic encopresis is typically related to functional constipation with overflow incontinence and/or psychosocial and developmental factors rather than excessive food intake. Inadequate toilet training and emotional disturbances can contribute via stool withholding, poor toileting routines, and stress-related behaviors. Intellectual disability can also predispose due to delayed toileting skills and impaired recognition/response to rectal sensations. Therefore, overeating is not a standard etiologic factor for non-organic encopresis.
Category reason: This item tests etiologic factors for a functional/behavioral elimination disorder (encopresis) rather than a nursing care decision, placing it under foundational disease/disorder understanding in Pathology.

Question 11

What condition is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Preeclampsia The defining features are new-onset hypertension after 20 weeks’ gestation with evidence of end-organ involvement, classically including proteinuria due to renal endothelial injury. This condition results from abnormal placentation and widespread maternal endothelial dysfunction, which can progress to severe features such as thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes, pulmonary edema, or neurologic symptoms. The other options do not characteristically present with both hypertension and proteinuria as core diagnostic findings in pregnancy.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of the disease process and hallmark diagnostic features of a pregnancy-related hypertensive disorder, which is primarily pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 12

A baby is born with a tight nuchal cord. After resuscitation, the nurse notes poor tone and persistent acidosis. What is the likely complication?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A tight nuchal cord can intermittently compress the umbilical cord and reduce fetal oxygen delivery, leading to perinatal asphyxia. Persistent metabolic acidosis after resuscitation indicates significant hypoxia/ischemia with ongoing tissue oxygen debt. Poor tone is an early neurologic sign consistent with central nervous system injury from hypoxia. This pattern most strongly aligns with hypoxic-ischemic brain injury rather than cold stress, mechanical birth trauma, or an unrelated congenital condition.
Category reason: This question primarily tests the disease consequence of perinatal asphyxia (neurologic injury following hypoxia with acidosis), which is a pathophysiology/clinical pathology concept rather than a nursing management decision.

Question 13

A client at 35 weeks gestation is admitted with HELLP syndrome. Which lab value would confirm the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HELLP syndrome is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets; an elevated AST supports the “EL” component. Platelets >150,000 would not indicate thrombocytopenia, which is expected in HELLP. Normal LDH would argue against hemolysis (LDH is typically elevated). A normal hemoglobin does not confirm or exclude HELLP because hemolysis can be present even before anemia becomes apparent.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of diagnostic laboratory abnormalities associated with a pregnancy-related disease process (HELLP), which is primarily pathology-focused rather than a nursing intervention/priority decision.

Question 14

Q.1379: Classic sign of mumps infection—

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Mumps is an acute viral illness classically causing painful enlargement of the parotid salivary glands (parotitis), often with fever and malaise. This salivary gland inflammation produces the characteristic facial swelling at the angle of the jaw. Rash and diarrhea are not typical hallmark findings for mumps, and drooping eyelid suggests cranial nerve/neuromuscular pathology rather than this viral parotitis.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a characteristic clinical manifestation of a specific infectious disease, which is primarily disease-focused knowledge within pathology rather than a nursing intervention/priority scenario.

Question 15

Following are the complications of chicken pox, except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Varicella (chickenpox) can be complicated by secondary bacterial infections and serious systemic involvement, including varicella pneumonia and CNS disease such as cerebellitis/encephalitis and meningitis. Reye’s syndrome is a classic severe complication historically associated with varicella when children receive salicylates. Gastrointestinal enteritis is not a typical recognized complication of uncomplicated varicella compared with respiratory and neurologic complications.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of disease complications of varicella infection, which is core pathophysiology/pathology content rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 16

Most common site of osteosarcoma is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Osteosarcoma most commonly arises in the metaphysis of long bones during periods of rapid growth. The knee region is the classic hotspot, with the distal femur being the most frequent location, followed by the proximal tibia. Proximal humerus is another common site but less frequent than around the knee. Proximal femur is comparatively less common for primary osteosarcoma.
Category reason: This item tests epidemiologic/pathologic distribution of a malignant bone tumor (typical anatomic site), which is foundational disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 17

Which hepatitis virus is most likely to cause chronic infection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It has a high rate of progression from acute infection to chronic infection due to frequent immune evasion and persistence of viral replication. In contrast, hepatitis A and E typically cause acute, self-limited illness without chronicity in immunocompetent hosts. Hepatitis B can become chronic, but in adults the majority clear the infection; overall, hepatitis C is most strongly associated with chronic infection risk.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of disease course and chronicity among viral hepatitis infections, which is a foundational pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 18

A nurse assessing a patient with bacterial vaginosis would expect to find which finding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " Bacterial vaginosis classically presents with a thin, gray/white homogeneous discharge and a strong amine odor that may be more noticeable after intercourse or when KOH is added (positive “whiff test”). Vulvar pruritus and marked erythema/edema are more typical of vulvovaginal candidiasis or other inflammatory vaginitis. A thick “cottage cheese” discharge is also characteristic of candidiasis rather than bacterial vaginosis.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of typical clinical manifestations used to distinguish bacterial vaginosis from other causes of vaginitis, which is foundational disease-process knowledge in pathology.

Question 19

Fever with chills is a symptom of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Paroxysmal fever with chills (rigors) is classic for malaria due to cyclic rupture of infected red blood cells and release of inflammatory mediators. This produces episodic shaking chills followed by high fever and then sweating as the temperature falls. The other listed conditions are not typically characterized by recurrent chills with fever as a hallmark presenting symptom.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a disease’s typical clinical manifestation (fever with chills) and matching it to the correct infectious condition, which is a foundational pathology concept rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 20

A patient with a long bone fracture suddenly becomes dyspneic and confused. What is the likely cause?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A sudden onset of respiratory distress and altered mental status after a long bone fracture is classic for fat embolism syndrome due to marrow fat entering the circulation and lodging in pulmonary capillaries. This causes acute hypoxemia and systemic inflammatory effects that can produce confusion/neurologic changes. Hypovolemia would more typically present with hypotension/tachycardia from blood loss, while pulmonary edema and atelectasis are less specifically linked to long bone fractures and do not best explain the acute neuro-respiratory combination.
Category reason: This question tests the disease mechanism and complication pattern following long bone fracture (fat embolism syndrome), which is primarily a pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization task.

Question 21

Plumer - Vinson syndrome may be seen in cases of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is classically associated with iron deficiency leading to mucosal atrophy and formation of esophageal webs, producing dysphagia. The syndrome is a recognized complication of chronic iron depletion states. The other listed nutritional anemias (B12 and folate deficiency) and aplastic anemia do not characteristically cause esophageal webs as a defining feature.
Category reason: This question tests a disease association (a clinical syndrome linked to a specific type of anemia), which is primarily pathophysiology rather than a nursing intervention or priority-setting task.

Question 22

If the rejection to kidney graft is happened after 7 days this is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute graft rejection classically occurs days to weeks after transplantation and is primarily mediated by T-cell and/or antibody responses against donor antigens. Hyperacute rejection happens within minutes to hours due to preformed recipient antibodies, and accelerated rejection typically occurs within the first few days in sensitized recipients. Chronic rejection develops over months to years with progressive fibrosis and vascular changes leading to gradual loss of graft function. Therefore, a rejection episode occurring after about 7 days best fits acute rejection.
Category reason: This question tests timing and types of transplant rejection, which is foundational disease-process knowledge within pathology rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 23

Early manifestation of Laryngeal cancer

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: D) Hoarseness Hoarseness is often the earliest symptom because tumors involving the vocal cords disrupt their vibration early in the disease course. Dysphagia and breathing difficulty tend to occur later as the lesion enlarges and affects swallowing or airway patency. Hemoptysis is less common and usually reflects more advanced mucosal ulceration or concurrent pulmonary pathology.
Category reason: This tests recognition of an early clinical feature of a specific malignancy, which is primarily disease-focused knowledge under Pathology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.

Question 24

A 45-year-old man presents with a painless, soft, and slow-growing swelling over his forearm, as shown in the image. The mass is mobile, non-tender, and not attached to underlying structures. There is no overlying redness or systemic symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A benign lipoma classically presents as a soft, painless, slow-growing, freely mobile subcutaneous mass that is not fixed to deeper tissues and has no overlying skin inflammation or systemic features. A sebaceous (epidermoid) cyst is usually attached to skin and may show a punctum and can become inflamed. An abscess would be tender, warm/erythematous, and often associated with systemic or local infectious signs. Soft tissue sarcomas are more concerning for firm/deep lesions, fixation, rapid growth, or other red-flag features rather than a soft, mobile, superficial mass.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a common benign vs malignant/infectious soft-tissue mass based on clinical features, which is a foundational disease-process identification task in Pathology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 25

A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic with knee pain and stiffness. How can we identify this as Osteoarthritis and not Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease in which stiffness is typically brief and improves quickly with movement, whereas rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory autoimmune arthritis with prolonged morning stiffness. The duration of morning stiffness is a classic clinical discriminator between noninflammatory and inflammatory arthritis. While activity-related pain, asymmetry, and weight-bearing joint involvement also support osteoarthritis, the most direct distinguishing feature versus RA is the shorter morning stiffness duration.
Category reason: This question tests distinguishing features between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, focusing on disease mechanisms and clinical patterns of inflammatory vs degenerative joint pathology rather than nursing interventions, making it a Pathology (NursingScience) item.

Question 26

A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with secondary syphilis and receives a single dose of benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million units intramuscularly. Within 6 hours, she develops fever, chills, headache, myalgia, and an exacerbation of her skin rash. Question: What is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This acute syndrome occurs within hours after initiating effective therapy for spirochetal infections due to rapid organism lysis and cytokine release. It classically causes fever, chills, headache, myalgias, and transient worsening of rash in secondary syphilis. The timing and systemic “flu-like” symptoms argue against IgE-mediated penicillin allergy (which typically includes urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, or anaphylaxis) and against serum sickness-like reaction, which usually appears days to weeks after exposure.
Category reason: This question tests the pathophysiologic mechanism and clinical presentation of a treatment-related inflammatory reaction (Jarisch-Herxheimer) rather than nursing interventions or prioritization, so it fits Pathology in NursingScience.

Question 27

Name the Disease ??

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The posture shown is classic opisthotonus, caused by severe generalized muscle spasm and hyperextension from tetanospasmin toxin affecting inhibitory neurotransmission (GABA and glycine). This presentation is most characteristic of generalized tetanus and is not a typical feature of dengue, jaundice, or skeletal tuberculosis. The disease commonly follows contaminated wounds in inadequately immunized individuals and is associated with trismus and painful spasms triggered by stimuli.
Category reason: This item asks for identification of a disease based on a characteristic clinical manifestation, which tests foundational understanding of disease processes rather than nursing interventions, fitting Pathology.

Question 28

Which condition characterized by excessive sweating?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b) hyperhidrosis Hyperhidrosis is, by definition, a disorder of excessive sweating beyond what is needed for thermoregulation. Hypothyroidism more commonly causes cold intolerance and decreased sweating due to a slowed metabolic rate. Diabetes is not defined by sweating, though autonomic neuropathy can alter sweating patterns. Hypoglycemia can cause diaphoresis as a symptom, but it is not a condition characterized primarily by excessive sweating.
Category reason: This item tests recognition of a named clinical condition and its defining symptom, which is foundational disease/condition knowledge rather than a nursing intervention decision, fitting Pathology.

Question 29

The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with secondary syphilis. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of this stage?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Secondary syphilis occurs after hematogenous dissemination of Treponema pallidum and classically presents with a diffuse, symmetric maculopapular rash that often involves the palms and soles. This stage can also include systemic symptoms and mucous membrane lesions/condylomata lata. A painless chancre is typical of primary syphilis, while painful genital ulcers suggest herpes simplex infection rather than syphilis. Neurosyphilis is a complication that can occur at various times but is not the hallmark, most characteristic finding used to identify secondary syphilis.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of clinical manifestations by disease stage (secondary syphilis), which is core disease-process knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario, fitting Pathology.

Question 30

Which pigment is responsible for the yellow discoloration seen in jaundice?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Jaundice results from elevated bilirubin levels in the blood, leading to deposition of this bile pigment in tissues such as the skin and sclera, producing a yellow discoloration. Bilirubin is formed from heme breakdown (primarily from senescent red blood cells) and is normally conjugated and excreted by the liver into bile. When production increases or hepatic uptake/conjugation/excretion is impaired (e.g., hemolysis, hepatitis, biliary obstruction), bilirubin accumulates and causes jaundice.
Category reason: This question tests the biochemical/pathologic basis of jaundice (pigment accumulation due to altered heme metabolism and bilirubin handling), which is foundational disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 31

Q.1299: In alkali poisoning, corrosive injury is most commonly seen in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Alkali (caustic) ingestions cause liquefactive necrosis with deep tissue penetration, so the upper aerodigestive tract is at highest risk where contact time is greatest. The esophagus is commonly severely injured and later complications include strictures and perforation. In contrast, liver, pancreas, kidney, and small intestine are not the typical primary sites of corrosive contact injury from ingestion.
Category reason: This tests the typical tissue injury pattern and organ involvement in caustic (alkali) poisoning, which is a disease/injury mechanism topic rather than a nursing intervention scenario, fitting Pathology.

Question 32

Which of the following is the most common site of extrapulmonary tuberculosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Extrapulmonary tuberculosis most commonly involves the lymphatic system, particularly cervical lymphadenitis (scrofula). After primary infection, mycobacteria can disseminate via lymphatics and hematogenous spread, making lymph nodes a frequent site of granulomatous disease. Renal and skeletal (including spinal/Pott disease) TB are important but occur less often overall than lymph node involvement.
Category reason: This is testing factual knowledge about the typical anatomic distribution of extrapulmonary tuberculosis, which is a disease-pattern question within Pathology rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization task.

Question 33

What is sepsis an infection of..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sepsis is a life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection; clinically it reflects systemic infection and inflammation rather than a localized site. Historically it was often equated with “blood infection,” and bacteremia (microbes in the bloodstream) can be present, though sepsis can occur even without positive blood cultures. Urine and stool can be sources of infection (e.g., UTI, intra-abdominal infection), but they are not what sepsis is “of.”.
Category reason: This item tests a foundational concept about the definition and systemic pathophysiology of sepsis, which is primarily biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario, fitting Pathology.

Question 34

Which condition is most commonly associated with clouding of consciousness?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Clouding of consciousness with impaired attention and fluctuating awareness is a defining feature of delirium. It is typically acute in onset and varies over the course of the day, often accompanied by disorientation and perceptual disturbances. In contrast, dementia (including Alzheimer’s disease) is characterized by a more chronic, progressive cognitive decline with relatively preserved level of consciousness until late stages, and selective amnesia involves memory loss without global impairment of consciousness.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a hallmark clinical feature (clouding of consciousness) that distinguishes delirium from other cognitive disorders, which is primarily a disease/clinical syndrome identification concept in pathology rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 35

What is a common symptom of gout?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. Joint pain Gout is an inflammatory arthritis caused by deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints, producing acute attacks of severe pain, swelling, warmth, and erythema. It classically affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint (podagra) but can involve other joints. Skin rash is not typical of gout, and fatigue/weight gain are nonspecific and not defining features of acute gout flares.
Category reason: This item tests understanding of the clinical manifestations of a disease process (gout) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization, which fits Pathology under NursingScience.

Question 36

The commonest pancreatic tumour in adults is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma accounts for the large majority of pancreatic malignancies in adults and is therefore the most common pancreatic tumor encountered clinically. Exocrine (non-endocrine) pancreatic tumors far outnumber endocrine islet-cell tumors such as insulinoma. Cystadenomas and other cystic neoplasms occur but are much less frequent than ductal adenocarcinoma. This epidemiology is a core pathology concept about tumor prevalence and classification.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of the most common pancreatic neoplasm type in adults, which is a tumor classification/epidemiology question within disease mechanisms and malignancy patterns—best aligned with Pathology.

Question 37

When a doctor describes a disease as CHRONIC, what does it mean?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Chronic refers to a condition with a long duration or frequent recurrence, contrasting with acute conditions that have sudden onset and short course. A duration threshold commonly used in clinical contexts is persistence beyond about 3–6 months, reflecting long-term disease behavior and management needs. Severity and fatality describe prognosis or intensity, not the time course, so those choices do not define chronicity.
Category reason: This item tests the definition of a disease course descriptor (chronic vs acute), which is foundational pathology terminology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 38

Most common cause of cell injury is ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Oxygen deprivation is a leading and very common mechanism of cellular injury because it rapidly reduces oxidative phosphorylation and ATP production. ATP depletion disrupts ion pumps, causing sodium and water influx, cellular swelling, and loss of membrane integrity; it also promotes lactic acidosis and ribosome detachment with reduced protein synthesis. If hypoxia persists, mitochondrial damage and calcium influx trigger irreversible injury and necrosis/apoptosis. Compared with infection or nutritional imbalance, this pathway is more ubiquitous across acute and chronic disease processes.
Category reason: This item tests general mechanisms of cellular injury (a core concept in pathology) rather than nursing actions or clinical prioritization, so it fits NursingScience under Pathology.

Question 39

_____is the Death of tissue often occurs in the extremities or skin from loss of Blood supply:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tissue death due to loss of blood supply is ischemic necrosis, classically termed gangrene when it involves extremities/skin. It commonly results from arterial occlusion (e.g., peripheral arterial disease) leading to hypoxia and cell death, and may be complicated by infection (wet gangrene). Trauma and diabetes mellitus can be causes/risk factors for ischemia, but they are not the definition of the condition. Cholera is an infectious diarrheal illness unrelated to localized ischemic tissue necrosis.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of a disease process defined by tissue necrosis from impaired perfusion, which is a core concept in Pathology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization task.

Question 40

48 years lady has carcinoma cervix that has involved the cervix and has involved the vagina but not its lower third and has not extended onto pelvic walls. It is in which of the following diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The stem describes FIGO stage II disease (spread beyond cervix to upper two-thirds of vagina, without pelvic wall involvement). The question is essentially about the common histopathologic type of cervical cancer associated with this clinical scenario; the vast majority of cervical cancers are squamous cell carcinomas arising from the transformation zone. Adenocarcinoma is less common and embryonal carcinoma is not a typical primary cervical malignancy. Therefore the best choice among the given options is the most common cervical cancer type.
Category reason: This item tests disease classification and staging-related understanding of cervical cancer, which is foundational disease knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision, fitting Pathology.

Question 41

Which burn depth is associated with pain sensitivity due to nerve endings being intact?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These burns extend into the dermis where many sensory nerve endings remain viable and are exposed or irritated, producing marked pain and tenderness. In contrast, full-thickness burns destroy the dermis and nerve endings, so the burned area itself may be relatively painless (pain may occur at the edges). Superficial burns are painful too, but the classic association of significant pain with intact (yet injured/exposed) nerve endings is most characteristic of partial-thickness injury.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of burn depth and tissue/nerve involvement (pathophysiology of burns), not nursing interventions or prioritization, so it fits NursingScience under Pathology.

Question 42

Which of the following is a sign of inflammation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is one of the classic local cardinal signs of acute inflammation (rubor), caused by arteriolar vasodilation and increased blood flow to the affected tissue. Inflammation typically presents with rubor, calor (heat), tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), and sometimes loss of function. The other options can occur with many conditions and are not specific local signs of inflammation.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of the classic clinical manifestations and mechanisms of inflammation, which is a core topic in general pathology rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision.

Question 43

Jaundice associated with hemolytic anemia is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hemolytic anemia increases breakdown of red blood cells, producing excess unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin before it reaches the liver for conjugation. This leads to a pre-hepatic pattern of jaundice with elevated indirect bilirubin and typically no cholestatic enzyme pattern. Post-/extra-hepatic jaundice is due to biliary obstruction and is mainly conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, while hepatic jaundice reflects hepatocellular dysfunction.
Category reason: This question tests the pathophysiologic classification of jaundice based on the site of bilirubin abnormality in hemolysis, which is a core concept in Pathology rather than nursing interventions.

Question 44

A 22-year-old male presents with painless swelling of the neck and intermittent fever for the past month. A biopsy of the cervical lymph node confirms the diagnosis of Hodgkin's lymphoma. His staging workup reveals no extranodal involvement. What is the most likely treatment for this patient with early-stage Hodgkin's lymphoma?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Early-stage Hodgkin lymphoma (classically stage I–II without extranodal disease) is commonly treated with combined-modality therapy to maximize cure rates: abbreviated multi-agent chemotherapy (often ABVD) followed by involved-site radiotherapy. Radiation alone is generally insufficient due to higher relapse risk, while chemotherapy alone is more often reserved for selected patients based on risk factors and response-adapted PET strategies. Bone marrow (stem cell) transplant is typically used for relapsed or refractory disease, not initial early-stage management.
Category reason: This asks for the standard treatment approach for a malignancy stage (Hodgkin lymphoma), which is a disease-process/oncology management question rather than a nursing care prioritization scenario, fitting Pathology.

Question 45

Q: Bone deformities occur due to the excess intake of

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Excess fluoride intake can cause skeletal fluorosis, where fluoride accumulates in bone and alters normal mineralization and remodeling. This leads to osteosclerosis, calcification of ligaments, bone and joint pain, stiffness, and can progress to deformities and reduced mobility. The other options are not classically associated with characteristic bone deformities from excess intake in the same direct manner.
Category reason: This is testing disease effects from chronic excess exposure (fluoride toxicity causing skeletal fluorosis) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization, fitting best under Pathology.

Question 46

Kernicterus is a complication of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Kernicterus results from severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, where bilirubin crosses the immature blood–brain barrier and deposits in basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei. This is classically a complication of significant neonatal jaundice, especially when bilirubin levels rise rapidly or treatment is delayed. Conditions like hemolysis (e.g., Rh/ABO incompatibility, G6PD deficiency) can precipitate the high bilirubin load that leads to this neurotoxicity.
Category reason: This question tests the disease complication and underlying mechanism (bilirubin neurotoxicity leading to kernicterus), which is primarily a pathology concept rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 47

What is the main cause of peptic ulcers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A) Bacteria Most peptic ulcers are caused by Helicobacter pylori infection, which disrupts gastric/duodenal mucosal defenses and promotes inflammation, allowing acid and pepsin to injure the lining. Smoking is a risk factor that impairs healing and increases recurrence but is not the primary cause. Allergy is not a typical etiologic factor for peptic ulcer disease. Therefore the option referring to bacterial infection best matches the main cause.
Category reason: This question tests the etiology of a common gastrointestinal disease (peptic ulcer disease), which is foundational disease-process knowledge rather than a nursing action/priority decision, fitting Pathology.

Question 48

What is gout caused by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hyperuricemia leads to supersaturation of urate in body fluids and deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints and soft tissues. These crystals trigger intense acute inflammation, classically presenting as sudden, severe monoarticular arthritis (often the first metatarsophalangeal joint). Low blood sugar and vitamin deficiency do not cause urate crystal formation, and while high-purine diets can contribute, the direct pathophysiologic cause is elevated uric acid with crystal deposition.
Category reason: This item tests the underlying disease mechanism (hyperuricemia causing urate crystal deposition and inflammation), which is foundational pathophysiology rather than nursing intervention or prioritization.

Question 49

What causes the yellow discoloration in jaundice?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Yellow discoloration in jaundice results from elevated bilirubin in the blood with subsequent deposition in tissues, especially sclera and skin. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of heme metabolism and normally is processed by the liver and excreted in bile. When production is increased (e.g., hemolysis) or hepatic uptake/conjugation/excretion is impaired (hepatocellular disease or biliary obstruction), it accumulates and causes the characteristic yellow coloration.
Category reason: This is testing the cause and mechanism of jaundice (hyperbilirubinemia), which is a disease process concept rather than a nursing intervention or safety decision, fitting Pathology.

Question 50

Ebola virus disease affects mainly which system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ebola is a viral hemorrhagic fever that primarily damages vascular endothelium and triggers severe systemic inflammation, leading to increased capillary permeability, coagulopathy, and bleeding. This results in shock and multiorgan failure driven by profound circulatory collapse. While gastrointestinal symptoms and immune dysregulation are common, the hallmark life-threatening pathophysiology is hemorrhage and hemodynamic instability.
Category reason: This is a disease-process question about the primary body system affected and the underlying pathophysiology of a viral hemorrhagic fever, which fits Pathology rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Train with a large NCLEX question bank and jump into a full exam-style simulator

Pathology NCLEX Practice Test

Continue Learning