Question 1

A donor has AB- blood. Which patient or patients below can receive this type of blood safely?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Red blood cell transfusion compatibility is primarily determined by ABO antigens and Rh(D) status, because the recipient’s anti-A/anti-B antibodies can rapidly hemolyze incompatible donor cells. AB red cells carry both A and B antigens, so they can only be given to recipients who have no anti-A or anti-B antibodies—i.e., type AB recipients. Because the donor is Rh negative, the units are safe from an Rh(D) perspective for Rh-negative recipients, but ABO restriction still applies. Type O-, A-, or B- recipients would have anti-A and/or anti-B antibodies that would attack AB donor red cells, making those options unsafe.

Question 2

Which is the main clotting factor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Activated factor X (Xa), together with factor V, calcium, and phospholipid, forms the prothrombinase complex that directly catalyzes this critical conversion. Because both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways feed into factor X activation, it functions as the central “final common” driver of clot propagation. In contrast, factors VIII and IX primarily amplify the intrinsic pathway upstream, and factor V acts mainly as a cofactor rather than the core catalytic convergence point.

Question 3

Normal platelet count is —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Normal platelet count in adults is approximately 150,000–400,000/µL, which corresponds to 1.5–4 lakh per cubic millimeter in common lab reporting. This range reflects adequate primary hemostasis capacity without implying thrombocytopenia or thrombocytosis. Counts below this range increase bleeding risk, while sustained values above it raise concern for reactive or myeloproliferative thrombocytosis and thrombosis risk. The other ranges either omit the lower normal threshold or extend well into abnormal high values.

Question 4

Life span of fetal RBC;

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The typical fetal RBC survival is about 70–90 days, commonly tested as ~80 days. This shorter lifespan contributes to the higher bilirubin load after birth when fetal hemoglobin is being replaced and RBC turnover is increased. In contrast, the standard adult RBC lifespan is about 120 days, making that choice a common distractor.

Question 5

The most common type of leukaemia seen in children is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ALL arises from malignant transformation of lymphoid precursors and most commonly presents in early childhood, making it the typical “most common” answer on exams. In contrast, CLL is largely a disease of older adults and is rare in pediatrics, and CML is also uncommon in children. AML does occur in children but is less frequent than ALL.

Question 6

A female agricultural labour G3 P2 L2 presents with Hb of 6.7 g % at 36 weeks. The most appropriate treatment is....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With hemoglobin around 6.7 g/dL at 36 weeks, oral iron is too slow to correct anemia before delivery and does not address immediate physiologic compromise. Intravenous iron (e.g., iron dextran) can raise hemoglobin faster than oral iron but still takes days to weeks and is not the best choice when hemoglobin is this low near term. Packed red cell transfusion provides the quickest and most reliable improvement in hemoglobin and tissue oxygenation when anemia is severe and delivery is imminent.

Question 7

Life span of fetal RBC

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The typical adult RBC lifespan is about 120 days, which makes that choice a common distractor. A fetal RBC lifespan around 80 days best matches standard physiology and helps explain the increased bilirubin load and risk of neonatal jaundice after birth. The other durations are not the commonly accepted value used in hematology and neonatal physiology teaching.

Question 8

The inability for the blood to clot wound is called what?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This results in prolonged bleeding after injury and can cause spontaneous bleeding into joints and soft tissues. The other choices are clotting proteins/enzymes (fibrinogen, prothrombin, thrombin) that promote coagulation rather than represent the disease state. Therefore, the option naming the bleeding disorder best matches the question’s intent, despite the misspelling in the option text.

Question 9

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about pernicious anemia with a client following a total gastrectomy. Which of the following dietary supplements should the nurse include in the teaching as the treatment for pernicious anemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: After a total gastrectomy, intrinsic factor is absent, so vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed in the terminal ileum via the usual mechanism and must be replaced. Supplementation with vitamin B12 corrects ineffective DNA synthesis in erythroid precursors and improves macrocytic anemia and neurologic risk. Folate can also cause megaloblastic changes, but replacing folate alone can mask hematologic findings while allowing neurologic injury from B12 deficiency to progress. Iron and vitamin C address different deficiency states and do not treat intrinsic-factor–related B12 malabsorption.

Question 10

When reading a lab report, you notice that a patient's sample is described as having anisocytosis. Which of the following most accurately describes the patient's condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anisocytosis is a hematology term describing variation in erythrocyte size (unequal RBC sizes) on a smear or CBC morphology report. It commonly reflects disordered red cell production or mixed red cell populations, such as in iron deficiency anemia or vitamin B12/folate deficiency. The option about skin cells confuses the root “cyto” (cell) with “derm” (skin) and does not match the definition. Necrosis refers to cell death and is not what anisocytosis denotes.

Question 11

Blood clotting is controlled by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Platelets also provide a phospholipid surface and release mediators that accelerate the coagulation cascade, leading to fibrin stabilization of the clot. Plasma contains the soluble clotting factors, but without platelet plug formation and platelet surface activity, effective clot formation is impaired. Insulin and thyroxine are metabolic hormones and do not regulate the physiologic clotting mechanism.

Question 12

The nurse is assessing a 12 year-old who has Hemophilia A. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This defect leads to impaired thrombin generation and unstable fibrin clot formation, producing findings such as prolonged aPTT and bleeding into joints and soft tissues. The option involving both factors VIII and IX is incorrect because factor IX deficiency defines hemophilia B, not hemophilia A. Changes in red or white blood cell counts are not defining features of hemophilia and do not explain the characteristic coagulation abnormality.

Question 13

Largest blood cell called......?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Red blood cells are smaller, anucleate biconcave discs optimized for gas transport rather than size. Platelets are the smallest formed elements and are cytoplasmic fragments rather than true cells. Plasma is the liquid component of blood and is not a cell.

Question 14

AT HOW MANY FAHRENHEIT, PLATELET IS STORED?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This corresponds to roughly 68–75°F, making the listed room-temperature choice the best match. Colder temperatures (refrigeration/freezing) can trigger platelet shape change and rapid clearance after transfusion, reducing effectiveness. The higher body-temperature options are not used for blood component storage because they promote bacterial growth and degrade product quality.

Question 15

Packed RBC'S can be store up to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard additive solutions (e.g., AS-1/AS-3/AS-5) allow storage for up to 42 days while maintaining acceptable RBC viability and limiting hemolysis. Shorter durations like 21 or 30 days are not the typical maximum for modern PRBC storage and would unnecessarily increase wastage. Although special products (e.g., washed or irradiated units) can have shorter outdates, the general maximum for routine PRBC units is 42 days.

Question 16

Oxygen is carry by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hemoglobin’s heme iron reversibly binds O2 in the lungs and releases it in peripheral tissues based on partial pressure gradients and factors like pH and temperature. Only a small fraction of oxygen is carried dissolved in plasma, which is insufficient to meet tissue metabolic demand by itself. White blood cells are responsible for immune defense, and platelets function in hemostasis rather than gas transport.

Question 17

Sickle cell Anemia affected..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This polymerization distorts erythrocytes into sickle shapes, making them rigid and prone to hemolysis and microvascular occlusion. Therefore, the primary blood component affected is the red blood cell, not plasma proteins or white cells. Platelets and WBCs may show secondary changes during inflammation or vaso-occlusive crises, but they are not the primary target of the genetic defect.

Question 18

Blood clot is formed by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Platelets bind exposed subendothelial collagen via von Willebrand factor and release mediators (e.g., ADP, thromboxane A2) that amplify aggregation. This platelet plug then provides a phospholipid surface for the coagulation cascade to generate fibrin, which stabilizes the clot. RBCs and WBCs may be trapped within a thrombus but do not initiate clot formation, and plasma mainly contains coagulation factors rather than being the cellular element that forms the plug.

Question 19

Main blood group system is..???

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The ABO system has naturally occurring IgM antibodies (anti-A/anti-B) in individuals lacking the corresponding antigen, so mismatched transfusion can trigger rapid intravascular hemolysis. This makes ABO typing and crossmatching the most critical first step in safe blood transfusion practice. Rh and other systems (e.g., Kell, MN) are important but are secondary to ABO because they typically do not have preformed antibodies and more often cause sensitization-related or delayed hemolytic reactions.

Question 20

Colorless blood cells are..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Red blood cells contain hemoglobin and are red by virtue of oxygenated/deoxygenated hemoglobin pigments. Platelets are cell fragments involved in hemostasis and are not typically referred to as “blood cells” in this context, while plasma is the liquid portion of blood rather than a cell. Therefore, leukocytes best match the description of colorless blood cells.

Question 21

Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blood typing determines the patient’s ABO and Rh status, while cross-matching detects incompatibility between donor red cells and recipient serum. This directly addresses the most immediate, life-threatening risk of transfusion. Coagulation studies or bleeding/clotting times evaluate hemostasis but do not ensure donor-recipient compatibility, and CBC/electrolytes may guide indication/monitoring but are not the required safety test before administering blood.

Question 22

Anemia is a disorder of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly places the condition within disorders affecting blood components rather than primary dysfunction of the heart, lungs, or stomach. While cardiopulmonary symptoms (e.g., tachycardia, dyspnea) can occur, they are compensatory responses to low oxygen delivery rather than the primary disease site. Gastric disease may contribute to anemia via bleeding or impaired absorption (e.g., iron or B12), but the disorder itself is still classified by abnormal blood/hematologic parameters.

Question 23

Blood clotting factor is..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Factor VIII is a key coagulation factor in the intrinsic pathway, acting as a cofactor for factor IXa to accelerate activation of factor X and support fibrin clot formation. Deficiency of this factor leads to impaired clot formation and bleeding tendency (classically hemophilia A), underscoring that it is directly part of the clotting system. In contrast, vitamin C is important for collagen synthesis and capillary integrity but is not a numbered coagulation factor, and insulin/thyroxine are hormones unrelated to the coagulation cascade.

Question 24

Which part of new born baby produced RBC?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In a normal term neonate, red cell production occurs predominantly in the bone marrow of the axial skeleton and long bones. The liver and spleen are important fetal hematopoietic organs but are not the main sites after birth unless there is extramedullary hematopoiesis due to disease. The kidney mainly regulates RBC production indirectly by secreting erythropoietin in response to hypoxia rather than producing RBCs itself.

Question 25

How often can a donor give blood?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard eligibility criteria commonly require about 8 weeks (56 days) between whole-blood donations, which matches a 2-month interval. Shorter or unrestricted intervals increase the likelihood of low hemoglobin and iron deficiency, making them unsafe. Longer intervals may be allowed but are not the typical minimum standard being tested here.

Question 26

Blood coagulation is done presence of ....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Platelets provide the phospholipid surface (platelet factor 3) that allows assembly of coagulation enzyme complexes and contribute to primary hemostatic plug formation. Calcium (factor IV) is an essential cofactor for multiple steps in the coagulation cascade, enabling activation and binding of clotting factors to phospholipid membranes. If either platelets are severely reduced/dysfunctional or calcium is chelated (e.g., by citrate), effective clot formation is impaired, making the combined requirement the best answer.

Question 27

Congenital anaemia is....?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This choice fits because it is a genetic hemoglobinopathy caused by reduced/absent synthesis of globin chains, leading to chronic microcytic anemia from early life. In contrast, iron deficiency anemia is usually acquired from inadequate intake or blood loss, and pernicious/megaloblastic anemias are commonly due to vitamin B12/folate problems rather than a primary inherited hemoglobin synthesis defect. Therefore the best match for congenital anemia among the options is the inherited hemoglobin disorder.

Question 28

Total number of blood clotting factors are?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Although factor VI is no longer considered a distinct factor (it was an obsolete term related to activated factor V), the overall standard teaching remains 13 factors in the coagulation cascade. This count is used clinically when learning intrinsic/extrinsic pathways and interpreting coagulation disorders. Therefore the best answer is the option reflecting the conventional numbering system.

Question 29

Which of the following is not a component of blood?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepatocytes are liver parenchymal cells and therefore belong to liver tissue, not to circulating blood. While hemoglobin is a major intracellular constituent of red blood cells (and thus part of blood content), hepatocytes are not present as a normal blood component. The option best distinguished by location and function is the liver cell, making it the only clear non-blood component among the choices.

Question 30

Iron tablets are effective for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This increases hemoglobin/hematocrit over time and improves symptoms such as fatigue and pallor when anemia is due to iron deficiency. It is not a treatment for diabetes (glucose regulation), allergy (immune hypersensitivity), or infection (pathogen-related processes). A key exam point is that iron helps correct the underlying deficiency causing microcytic, hypochromic anemia rather than addressing unrelated conditions.

Question 31

A trauma patient presents to the ER with severe hemorrhage. His blood type is O positive. Based on this information, the nurse knows that he may receive blood only from a person with which of these blood types?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An O-positive patient can receive type O red blood cells, because they lack A and B antigens that would trigger hemolysis. Rh(D) status matters secondarily: Rh-positive recipients can receive either Rh-positive or Rh-negative red cells without risk of anti-D hemolysis. The A-positive and AB options would introduce A and/or B antigens and risk an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.

Question 32

Which of the following organs produces red blood cells in humans?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This site provides the cellular microenvironment and growth factors needed for RBC maturation and release into circulation. The kidney plays an important regulatory role by producing erythropoietin in response to hypoxia, but it does not directly form RBCs. The liver is a major site of fetal hematopoiesis, not the main RBC-producing organ in healthy adults.

Question 33

A low of R.B.C count or reduced Amount of hemoglobin is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This aligns directly with the stem’s description of low RBCs or low hemoglobin. Osteopenia refers to low bone mineral density and sarcopenia to loss of skeletal muscle mass, so they do not fit. Cytopenia is a broader term meaning a reduction in any blood cell line and is less specific than the condition described.

Question 34

WBC increase know as...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is a standard hematology definition used when interpreting a CBC and differential. The other options describe different concepts: nephrosis refers to kidney pathology, hyperplasia is increased number of cells in a tissue (not specifically WBC count terminology), and hypoxia is low tissue oxygenation. Therefore, the term that directly names elevated WBCs is leukocytosis.

Question 35

Which of the following plasma protein is involved in the coagulation of blood?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This plasma protein is the soluble precursor that is converted by thrombin into insoluble fibrin strands, which then polymerize and are cross-linked to stabilize the clot. Albumin primarily maintains oncotic pressure and transports substances, while globulins largely function in immunity and transport. Amylase is a digestive enzyme and is not part of the coagulation cascade.

Question 36

Blood cells are produced in?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This site contains hematopoietic stem cells and the supporting stromal environment needed for continuous blood cell formation. The spleen is mainly involved in filtering blood and removing aged or damaged cells, not routine production in healthy adults. The kidney contributes indirectly by secreting erythropoietin to stimulate red cell production, but it is not the production site itself.

Question 37

Another name for White blood cells?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This terminology is used in CBC reporting where WBC count is synonymous with leukocyte count. The other options are unrelated: hypoxia is low tissue oxygen, while albumin and globulin are plasma proteins rather than cellular blood components. Therefore the only option that correctly names white blood cells is the one indicating leukocytes.

Question 38

Where in the body are blood cells made?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In children and adults, this occurs primarily in the red bone marrow (notably in the pelvis, sternum, ribs, and vertebrae). The kidneys mainly regulate erythropoiesis indirectly by producing erythropoietin rather than serving as the production site. The liver is a major hematopoietic organ only during fetal development, and the gastrointestinal tract is not a blood cell–forming organ.

Question 39

RCB formation occur in ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The kidney mainly regulates this process by secreting erythropoietin in response to hypoxia, but it is not the primary site of cell formation. The liver is a major site of blood cell formation in fetal life, not in healthy adults. The spleen is more involved in filtering and removing aged or abnormal red cells, with extramedullary hematopoiesis only in certain disease states.

Question 40

Q. One point of blood is equal to...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A standard unit of whole blood is approximately 450 mL (±10%), which is the typical collection volume used in blood banking. This aligns with routine donor collection standards and transfusion practice. The other volumes correspond more to household/imperial measures (e.g., 473 mL ≈ 1 US pint; 236 mL ≈ 1 cup) rather than the conventional unit volume used for donated whole blood.

Question 41

Neurologic complications of multiple myeloma usually involve the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neurologic problems in multiple myeloma most commonly result from skeletal involvement of vertebrae leading to vertebral collapse or epidural tumor extension that compresses spinal nerve roots or the spinal cord. This produces back pain, radiculopathy, weakness, sensory loss, and possible bowel/bladder dysfunction—classic signs of spinal cord compression. Direct brain involvement is uncommon in typical myeloma compared with spine-related complications. Autonomic or specifically parasympathetic dysfunction is not the usual primary neurologic complication pattern in this disease.

Question 42

A client has no antibodies in the blood when tested for crossmatch. Which blood type is this client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the ABO system, plasma naturally contains antibodies against the A and/or B antigens that are absent on a person’s own red blood cells. Individuals with A blood have anti-B antibodies, those with B blood have anti-A antibodies, and those with O blood have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies. People with AB blood express both A and B antigens on their RBCs, so they do not form anti-A or anti-B antibodies in their plasma. Therefore, finding no ABO antibodies on crossmatch is most consistent with AB type.

Question 43

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with anemia and anticipates which lab value would be decreased?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A decreased erythrocyte (RBC) count is therefore an expected laboratory finding in many forms of anemia. In contrast, leukocytes and granulocytes reflect white blood cell lines and are more directly tied to infection/inflammation or marrow suppression patterns rather than anemia itself. Platelets relate to clotting and are decreased in thrombocytopenia, not as a defining feature of anemia.

Question 44

A client asks the nurse about what commonly causes anemia. The best response by the nurse would be?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Inadequate dietary iron intake (and/or chronic blood loss leading to iron depletion) is the most frequent cause of anemia worldwide, making this the best general response. Vitamin C deficiency can contribute indirectly by reducing non-heme iron absorption, but it is not a primary common cause compared with iron deficiency. Viral infections and hereditary red cell disorders can cause anemia, but they are less common overall and are not the typical “most common” cause referenced in basic hematology teaching.

Question 45

A nurse is teaching a client about idiopathic thrombocytopenia and explains that the average normal life span of a platelet is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Platelets normally circulate for about a week before being removed by the reticuloendothelial system, primarily the spleen. In idiopathic (immune) thrombocytopenia, antibody-mediated destruction accelerates splenic clearance, shortening platelet survival and lowering the count. The 3 to 4 months range aligns with erythrocyte lifespan (~120 days), making it a common distractor. The shorter day-range options are more consistent with some granulocyte lifespans rather than typical platelet survival.

Question 46

Which is the treatment of choice for severe aplastic anemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hematopoietic stem cell (bone marrow) transplantation replaces the absent/ineffective marrow with donor stem cells and offers the highest chance of cure, especially in children/young patients with a matched sibling donor. Exchange transfusion is used for conditions like severe hyperbilirubinemia or sickle cell complications and does not correct marrow failure. IVIG may help certain immune-mediated cytopenias but is not curative for aplastic marrow failure, while liver transplantation is unrelated to the underlying pathophysiology.

Question 47

Which symptom is the primary clinical manifestation of hemophilia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This leads to hallmark findings such as prolonged bleeding after minor trauma, circumcision, dental work, and deep tissue/joint bleeding. Petechiae are more typical of platelet disorders (primary hemostasis problems) rather than factor deficiencies. Clotting time would be increased (not decreased), and WBC count is unrelated to the bleeding phenotype.

Question 48

When comparing bleeding disorders, an increased tendency to bleed in which area differentiates von Willebrand’s disease from hemophilia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This classically presents as mucocutaneous bleeding such as epistaxis, gingival bleeding, easy bruising, and menorrhagia. In contrast, hemophilia (factor VIII or IX deficiency) is a secondary hemostasis defect that more often causes deep tissue bleeding (hemarthroses, muscle hematomas) rather than mucosal oozing. Therefore, increased bleeding from mucous membranes best distinguishes von Willebrand disease from hemophilia.

Question 49

A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A differential cell count characterizes the white blood cell population by reporting the relative/absolute distribution of neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils. From the WBC count and differential, clinicians can identify patterns consistent with leukocytosis or leukopenia and recognize shifts that suggest infection, inflammation, allergy, or marrow suppression. Red blood cell quantity is assessed via RBC count/hemoglobin/hematocrit as part of the CBC, not via the WBC differential. Therefore, RBC number is the exception among the listed uses.

Question 50

The nurse is reviewing a client’s complete blood count and notes a decreased number of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. The nurse interprets this as indicative of what condition?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pattern is classic for aplastic anemia, where hematopoietic stem cell suppression leads to reduced production across all cell lines. Pernicious anemia and sickle cell anemia primarily affect red blood cells and would not typically cause profound leukopenia and thrombocytopenia as the defining CBC pattern. Polycythemia is characterized by increased red cell mass (and often increased hematocrit), the opposite of the findings described.

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