Hematology Practice Test 2
Hematology NCLEX Practice Test
Hematology is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Hematology. This section addresses blood components, disorders, and safe transfusion principles in nursing management. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 2nd part of the Hematology series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Hematology Practice Test 2
Which of the following diseases is caused by the deficiency of haemoglobin?
- Malaria
- Anaemia
- Rabies
- Cholera
Explanation: Answer reason: Anaemia results from decreased hemoglobin concentration in blood; the other options are infectious diseases not due to hemoglobin deficiency.
A blood disorder in which RBC's, WBC's and platelets are abnormally elevated in the blood is?
- Aplastic anemia
- Leukemia
- Polycythemia vera
- Thalassemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Polycythemia vera is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by panmyelosis, causing elevated RBC mass along with leukocytosis and thrombocytosis. Aplastic anemia causes pancytopenia, leukemia primarily elevates WBCs, and thalassemia affects RBCs only.
A blood cancer charaterized by increase in number of immature white blood cells is?
- Anemia
- Leukemia
- Thalassemia
- Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: Answer reason: Leukemia is a malignancy of hematopoietic tissue marked by excessive proliferation of immature white blood cells (blasts). Anemia is low red cells, thalassemia is a hemoglobinopathy, and thrombocytopenia is low platelets.
A disease runs in families in which red blood cells form an abnormal crescent shape is?
- Aplastic anemia
- Iron deficiency anemia
- Pernicious anemia
- Sickle cell anemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Sickle cell anemia is an inherited hemoglobinopathy in which RBCs assume a sickle (crescent) shape, running in families.
Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidney. When the patient is in chronic renal failure, loss of this hormone will result in?
- Diminished immunologic function with fewer white blood cells.
- Elevated lipid levels in the bloodstream, contributing to accelerated atherosclerosis.
- Anemia because of the diminished number of red blood cells being produced.
- Hypertension because of the increased, concentrated blood volume.
Explanation: Answer reason: The kidney produces erythropoietin, which stimulates erythropoiesis. In chronic renal failure, reduced EPO leads to decreased RBC production and anemia; the other options are not direct consequences of EPO loss.
Red blood cells are NOT responsible for?
- Protecting the body against infection
- Carrying carbon dioxide
- Carrying oxygen
- Giving blood its color.
Explanation: Answer reason: RBCs transport oxygen and some carbon dioxide via hemoglobin, which also gives blood its red color. Defense against infection is the role of white blood cells, not red blood cells.
Which types of anemia seen jaundice?
- Iron deficiency anemia
- Aplastic anemia
- Megaloblastic anemia
- Hemolytic anemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Jaundice occurs when there is increased breakdown of red blood cells, leading to elevated unconjugated bilirubin—typical of hemolytic anemia. Iron deficiency and aplastic anemia do not cause jaundice; megaloblastic anemia may have mild jaundice but hemolysis is most prominent in hemolytic anemia.
Which of the following risk factors are associated with developing complications in patients with Christmas disease?
- Age over 60
- History of hemarthrosis
- Concurrent anticoagulant medication
- Family history of clotting disorders
Explanation: Answer reason: Anticoagulants increase bleeding risk in hemophilia B (Christmas disease), raising the likelihood of complications. The other options are not direct modifiable risk factors for complications.
What is the life span of fetal red blood cells compared to adult red blood cells?
- Fetal RBCs live about 80-90 days; adult RBCs live about 120 days
- Fetal RBCs live about 120 days; adult RBCs live about 80-90 days
- Fetal RBCs live about 60 days; adult RBCs live about 100 days
- Fetal RBCs live about 30 days; adult RBCs live about 60 days
Explanation: Answer reason: Adult erythrocytes survive ~120 days, whereas fetal RBCs have a shorter lifespan of about 80–90 days due to their hemoglobin type and rapid turnover in the perinatal period.
An autosomal recessive blood disorder in which blood doesn't clot normally because it lacks sufficient blood-clotting proteins (clotting factors) factor VIII and IX is?
- Hemophilia
- Leukemia
- Pernicious anemia
- Thalassemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Deficiency of clotting factors VIII (hemophilia A) and IX (hemophilia B) causes hemophilia, leading to impaired coagulation. Leukemia and pernicious anemia do not involve clotting factor deficiency; thalassemia affects hemoglobin, not factors VIII/IX.
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is also known as which type of anemia?
- Macrocytic normochromic
- Microcytic hypochromic anemia
- Megaloblastic anemia
- Microcytic normochromic
Explanation: Answer reason: Vitamin B12 deficiency impairs DNA synthesis in erythroid precursors, producing large, immature megaloblasts—i.e., a megaloblastic macrocytic anemia.
What is Blood ________?
- Organ
- Tissue
- Water
- Gland
Explanation: Answer reason: Blood is a specialized connective tissue composed of cells suspended in plasma; it is not an organ, water, or a gland.
The commonest leukemia in adults is?
- AML
- ALL
- CLL
- CML
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is the most common leukemia in adults; ALL is most common in children, AML is the most common acute leukemia in adults, and CML is less common.
What is the life span of a red blood cell (RBC)?
- About 120 days
- About 90 days
- About 10 days
- About 20 days
Explanation: Answer reason: Mature erythrocytes circulate for approximately 120 days before being removed by the spleen.
A blood disorder in which RBC’s, WBC’s and platelets are declined in the blood is?
- Aplastic anemia
- Leukemia
- Polycythemia vera
- Thalassemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Pancytopenia (simultaneous decrease in RBCs, WBCs, and platelets) is characteristic of aplastic anemia due to bone marrow failure.
You encourage the patient with cobalamin deficiency to seek treatment because untreated pernicious anemia may result in which serious complication?
- Death
- Liver failure
- Heart failure
- Normal red blood cells
Explanation: Answer reason: Pernicious anemia (cobalamin deficiency) was historically fatal without treatment; severe megaloblastic anemia and neurologic/cardiac complications can progress to death. Thus the most serious complication is death.
A pregnant client at 29 weeks gestation with a hemoglobin level of 5 g/dL and macrocytic red blood cells is most likely experiencing which condition?
- Sickle cell anemia
- Folic acid deficiency anemia
- Beta thalassemia minor
- Beta thalassemia major
Explanation: Answer reason: Macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia in pregnancy is most commonly due to folate deficiency; thalassemias are microcytic and sickle cell disease is not macrocytic.
What is the possible explanation for a 4-year-old boy with sickle cell disease presenting with pain and swelling in small bones and necrosis of femoral head and tibia that resolved after one week?
- Aplastic crisis
- Sequestration crisis
- Vaso-occlusive crisis
- Hemolytic crisis
Explanation: Answer reason: Painful swelling of small bones and bone infarction/avascular necrosis that resolves over days is classic for a vaso-occlusive (painful) crisis in sickle cell disease.
Which factor of Virchow's triad is most prominently applicable to a 65-year-old female patient with obesity, hypertension, previous deep vein thrombosis, and recent hip replacement surgery?
- Stasis of blood flow
- Hypercoagulability
- Endothelial injury
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: The patient has risk factors for all three elements of Virchow's triad: stasis from obesity and postoperative immobility, hypercoagulability suggested by prior DVT and age, and endothelial injury from recent hip surgery.
Which type of leukemia is most commonly seen in older adults?
- Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
- Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
- Chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML)
- Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
Explanation: Answer reason: CLL predominates in the elderly and is the most common leukemia in older adults; ALL is mainly pediatric, and CML/AML occur in adults but are less common than CLL in this age group.
A blood cancer characterized by increase in number of immature white blood cells is?
- Anemia
- Leukemia
- Thalassemia
- Thrombocytopenia
Explanation: Answer reason: Leukemia is a malignant proliferation of leukocytes with accumulation of immature white blood cells (blasts). The other options involve red cells or platelets and are not cancers of immature WBCs.
Which of the following symptoms is typical of Hodgkin's disease?
- Painful cervical lymph nodes
- Night sweats and fatigue
- Nausea and vomiting
- Weight gain
Explanation: Answer reason: Hodgkin lymphoma typically presents with painless lymphadenopathy and B symptoms such as night sweats, fever, and weight loss; fatigue is common. Option B fits; painful nodes (A) are atypical, GI symptoms (C) are nonspecific, and weight gain (D) is contrary to expected weight loss.
Which blood disorder is characterized by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate leading to anemia?
- Iron Deficiency Anemia
- Vitamin B12/Folate Deficiency Anemia
- Sickle Cell Anemia
- Polycythemia Vera
Explanation: Answer reason: Deficiency of vitamin B12 or folate causes megaloblastic anemia; the option explicitly naming B12/folate deficiency anemia is correct. The other options represent iron deficiency, a genetic hemoglobinopathy, and increased RBC mass.
Why is Bart's hydrops fetalis lethal?
- Hb Bart's cannot bind oxygen
- The excess alpha globin form insoluble precipitates
- Hb Bart's cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues
- Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta
Explanation: Answer reason: Hb Bart’s (γ4 tetramers) has extremely high oxygen affinity, so it binds O2 but fails to release it to fetal tissues, causing severe hypoxia and hydrops fetalis.
Which is the smallest white blood cell?
- Lymphocyte
- Monocytes
- Neutrophils
- Eosinophils
Explanation: Answer reason: Small lymphocytes are the smallest leukocytes (~7–10 µm); monocytes are the largest and neutrophils/eosinophils are larger than lymphocytes.
Which organ is known as the 'blood bank' of the body?
- Spleen
- Lungs
- Heart
- Liver
Explanation: Answer reason: The spleen acts as a reservoir for blood and can release stored blood during hemorrhage, so it is called the body's 'blood bank.
Which blood group is called the universal donor?
- Type A
- Type B
- Type O
- Type AB
Explanation: Answer reason: Type O (especially O negative) red cells lack A and B antigens, so they can be transfused to recipients of any ABO type, making it the universal donor.
Where are stem cells primarily collected from?
- Spleen
- Teeth
- Bone
- Umbilical cord
Explanation: Answer reason: Cord blood is a common source of hematopoietic stem cells used clinically; spleen and teeth are not primary sources and the typical collection site is not generic bone but cord blood or bone marrow.
A 33-year-old male is being evaluated for possible acute leukemia. Which of the following findings is most likely related to the diagnosis of leukemia?
- The client collects stamps as a hobby.
- The client recently lost his job as a postal worker.
- The client had radiation for treatment of Hodgkin’s disease as a teenager.
- The client’s brother had leukemia as a child.
Explanation: Answer reason: Prior therapeutic ionizing radiation is a well-established risk factor for secondary acute leukemia; the other options do not significantly relate to leukemia risk.
Blood vessels carry ________ to the site of tissue damage, causing a fibrous clot to form?
- Platelets
- Melanin
- Epithelial cells
- Fibroblasts
Explanation: Answer reason: Platelets are transported by blood to injury sites where they aggregate and, with fibrin, form a clot. Melanin, epithelial cells, and fibroblasts do not initiate clot formation.
Which of the following best describes a nucleus cell?
- Lymphocyte
- Monocyte
- Erythrocyte
- Basophil
- Neutrophil
Explanation: Answer reason: Among the listed blood cells, only erythrocytes are anucleate; all the leukocytes (lymphocyte, monocyte, basophil, neutrophil) contain nuclei.
A 35 years old woman who is now in her 6th pregnancy with 5 alive children presented in the antenatal clinic and diagnosed as a case of anemia. Causes of anemia in her case is?
- Folate deficiency
- Sickle cell anemia
- Iron deficiency
- Pernicious anaemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Multiparity with repeated pregnancies commonly depletes iron stores; the most common cause of anemia in pregnancy is iron deficiency.
Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin B-12?
- Bell's palsy
- Crohn's disease
- Diabetes mellitus
- Graves' disease
- Pernicious anemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Pernicious anemia involves intrinsic factor deficiency and poor B12 absorption, requiring lifelong parenteral vitamin B12 injections.
Anemia caused by deficiency of vitamin B12 is?
- Aplastic anemia
- Leukemia
- Pernicious anemia
- Sickle cell anemia
Explanation: Answer reason: Pernicious anemia is a megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, typically due to lack of intrinsic factor. The other options are unrelated: aplastic anemia is bone marrow failure, leukemia is a malignancy, and sickle cell anemia is a hemoglobinopathy.
Leukemia disease is a?
- Viral disease
- Genetic disorder
- Bacterial disease
- Autoimmune disease
Explanation: Answer reason: Leukemia is a malignancy of blood-forming tissues driven by genetic mutations and chromosomal abnormalities; it is not a viral, bacterial, or autoimmune disease.
What is the fluid component of blood?
- Lymph
- Plasma
- Intracellular fluid
- Cellular fluid
- Extracellular fluid
Explanation: Answer reason: Plasma is the liquid matrix of blood that suspends blood cells and transports proteins, nutrients, and wastes.
What finding suggests that a patient has acute blood loss anemia?
- Exertional dyspnea
- Easy fatigue on exertion
- Bradycardia at rest
- Postural hypotension
Explanation: Answer reason: Acute blood loss causes intravascular volume depletion with orthostatic hypotension and tachycardia. Exertional dyspnea and easy fatigue are more typical of chronic anemia, and bradycardia is inconsistent.
Where are blood cells produced?
- Bone marrow
- Spleen
- Stomach
- Kidney
Explanation: Answer reason: Hematopoiesis occurs primarily in red bone marrow, which produces RBCs, WBCs, and platelets. The spleen mainly filters and stores blood cells; the stomach and kidney do not produce blood cells (kidney makes erythropoietin).
Which of the following is used as a diagnostic test for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?
- FISH
- BMB
- LAP score
- Karyotyping
Explanation: Answer reason: FISH detects the BCR‑ABL (Philadelphia chromosome) fusion typical of CML and is a sensitive, specific diagnostic test. LAP score is nonspecific, BMB is supportive, and karyotyping can detect Ph but is less sensitive than FISH.
What is the liquid part of blood?
- Plasma
- Platelets
- Hemoglobin
- WBCs
Explanation: Answer reason: The fluid component of blood that carries cells and dissolved substances is plasma.
What is the typical lifespan of red blood cells (RBCs)?
- 110 days
- 120 days
- 130 days
- 100 days
Explanation: Answer reason: Mature erythrocytes circulate for about 120 days before being removed by the reticuloendothelial system (primarily the spleen).
Thalassemia primarily affects which component of blood?
- White blood cells
- Plasma
- Hemoglobin
- Platelets
Explanation: Answer reason: Thalassemias are inherited disorders of globin chain synthesis, resulting in abnormal or reduced hemoglobin.
Which blood cell helps in clotting?
- RBC
- WBC
- Platelets
- Plasma
Explanation: Answer reason: Platelets (thrombocytes) aggregate and form the initial plug and activate the coagulation cascade, making them the primary blood component responsible for clotting.
A client is admitted with suspected Hodgkin's lymphoma. The diagnosis is confirmed by the?
- Overproliferation of immature white cells
- Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
- Increased incidence of microcytosis
- Reduction in the number of platelets
Explanation: Answer reason: Hodgkin lymphoma is confirmed by lymph node biopsy showing Reed–Sternberg cells; the other findings are nonspecific or suggest other conditions (e.g., leukemia, iron deficiency anemia, thrombocytopenia).
A client is admitted with suspected pernicious anemia. Which findings support the diagnosis of pernicious anemia?
- The client complains of feeling tired and listless.
- The client has waxy, pale skin.
- The client exhibits loss of coordination and position sense.
- The client has a rapid pulse rate and a detectable heart murmur.
Explanation: Answer reason: Pernicious anemia (vitamin B12 deficiency) causes neurologic deficits from demyelination of posterior columns, leading to loss of proprioception and coordination—findings specific to B12 deficiency versus general anemia symptoms.
In which body part are new blood cells produced?
- Bones
- Heart
- Brain
Explanation: Answer reason: New blood cells are produced in the red bone marrow within bones (hematopoiesis). The heart pumps blood and the brain controls neural functions, not blood cell formation.
What component is responsible for the red color of blood?
- Haemoglobin
- WBC
- Platelets
- None
Explanation: Answer reason: Hemoglobin, the iron-containing pigment in red blood cells, gives blood its red color.
An elevation in white blood cells is called what?
- Leukopenia
- Leukocytosis
- Leukemia
- Leukosis
Explanation: Answer reason: An elevated white blood cell count is termed leukocytosis. Leukopenia is a low WBC count, leukemia is a malignancy of blood-forming tissues, and leukosis is an outdated/animal term.
Hemophilia B is the deficiency of which clotting factor?
- Factor 7
- Factor 10
- Factor 9
- Factor 4
Explanation: Answer reason: Hemophilia B (Christmas disease) results from a deficiency of coagulation factor IX.
Which blood group is the universal donor?
- AB+
- AB-
- O+
- O-
Explanation: Answer reason: Type O negative red cells lack A, B, and Rh(D) antigens, minimizing hemolytic reactions and making it the universal donor for packed RBC transfusions.
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