Question 1

Normal adult have a reticulocyte count of :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b- 0.5% - 1.5 % Normal adult reticulocyte percentage is about 0.5% to 2% in most laboratories, reflecting steady-state bone marrow RBC production. Values substantially higher suggest increased erythropoiesis from hemolysis or recent blood loss, or response to iron/B12/folate therapy. Values lower than normal point toward reduced marrow production or impaired erythropoietin-driven response. The other ranges listed are too high for a normal adult baseline.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of normal reticulocyte laboratory reference ranges and interpretation of erythropoiesis, which is a hematology topic rather than a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 2

Brilliant cresyl blue is used for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Brilliant cresyl blue is a supravital stain that precipitates residual ribosomal RNA in immature red cells, producing a reticular network that allows reticulocytes to be identified and quantified. This makes it specifically useful for assessing bone marrow erythropoietic activity and response to anemia treatment. It is not the standard diluent/stain used for routine RBC, WBC, or platelet counts in a hemocytometer method.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of a hematology laboratory stain and what blood component it is used to measure, which is foundational biomedical lab science rather than a nursing care decision.

Question 3

In cross matching we use:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: d- all of the above Crossmatching aims to detect incompatibility between donor red cells and recipient serum by enhancing or revealing clinically significant antibodies. Albumin is used to reduce zeta potential and promote agglutination, antihuman globulin (Coombs) detects IgG-sensitized red cells that may not visibly agglutinate, and enzyme methods such as papain can enhance certain antibody reactions by modifying red cell membrane proteins. Because these reagents/techniques are all used in different phases or methods of compatibility testing, the best answer is the inclusive option.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of blood bank compatibility testing and the reagents used in crossmatching, which is a core topic in Hematology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 4

The clinical significance of Rh antigen :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rh antigen status is crucial for transfusion compatibility because Rh-negative recipients can form anti-D antibodies after exposure to Rh-positive blood, risking hemolytic transfusion reactions. In pregnancy, maternal sensitization to fetal Rh-positive red cells can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies due to transplacental IgG anti-D. Rh typing also has medico-legal relevance in scenarios such as paternity disputes and forensic identification when combined with other blood group data.
Category reason: This question tests the significance and implications of a blood group antigen in transfusion medicine, pregnancy-related hemolysis, and related applications, which falls under Hematology.

Question 5

The donor is permanently deferred if gives a positive history of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tattoos can be associated with increased risk of transfusion-transmissible infections, particularly hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV, due to potential exposure to non-sterile needles or contaminated ink. Blood donor eligibility criteria treat such exposures as a deferral risk to protect recipients from occult infection during window periods. In contrast, prior rubella infection or receipt of diphtheria vaccination do not constitute permanent exclusion from donation, and epilepsy alone is not a standard permanent deferral unless associated with other disqualifying factors.
Category reason: This item tests blood donor eligibility and transfusion safety principles, which align best with Hematology and blood banking concepts rather than nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 6

Universal recipient is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Individuals with AB blood type have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells and therefore do not have anti-A or anti-B antibodies in their plasma. Because they lack these antibodies, they can generally receive red blood cells from any ABO blood group without causing an immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility. In contrast, group O is considered the universal donor for red blood cells because it lacks A and B antigens.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of ABO blood group compatibility and transfusion principles, which is primarily studied under Hematology rather than nursing care decision-making.

Question 7

Fresh frozen plasma is used for the treatment of the following ....... except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is primarily indicated to replace deficient coagulation factors in bleeding patients or those needing urgent invasive procedures, such as in DIC and specific clotting factor deficiencies when factor concentrates are unavailable. It can be used in vitamin K deficiency only when there is significant bleeding or urgent reversal is needed, because vitamin K itself is the definitive treatment but takes time to work. FFP is not intended for routine nutritional or oncotic “protein replacement”; albumin or crystalloid is used for volume/oncotic support depending on the indication, and unnecessary FFP increases risks like TRALI and volume overload.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of blood product indications, specifically when fresh frozen plasma is clinically appropriate, which is a foundational topic within hematology rather than a nursing-prioritization scenario.

Question 8

A case of anemia with coronary disease must be treated with:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In anemia with concomitant coronary artery disease, raising oxygen-carrying capacity is the priority to prevent myocardial ischemia. Packed red cells increase hemoglobin concentration efficiently with less volume than whole blood, reducing the risk of fluid overload and worsening cardiac workload. Fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate are used to replace coagulation factors (and fibrinogen) rather than treat isolated anemia.
Category reason: This question tests blood component therapy for anemia in a medical condition context, focusing on hematologic management rather than nursing actions or prioritization, so it best fits Hematology within NursingScience.

Question 9

The storage time of acid citrate dextrose (ACD) is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ACD is an anticoagulant-preservative solution historically used for stored whole blood and packed RBCs, but it supports a shorter shelf life than modern additive solutions. Standard teaching is that blood preserved with ACD is stored at 1–6°C for about 21 days before biochemical “storage lesions” (ATP and 2,3-DPG depletion, potassium leak, decreased RBC viability) make it unsuitable. Longer durations such as 35–42 days correspond to newer preservative systems (e.g., CPDA-1 or additive solutions like AS-1/AS-3) rather than ACD. Therefore, the best choice is the 21-day storage period.
Category reason: This tests factual knowledge about blood product anticoagulant-preservative solutions and their allowable storage duration, which is part of transfusion medicine within Hematology.

Question 10

The storage time of saline adenine glucose – mannitol (SAGM) is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: SAGM is an additive solution used for packed red blood cells that extends red cell shelf life under standard blood bank storage conditions (1–6°C). With SAGM, units are typically stored for up to 42 days while maintaining acceptable red cell viability and minimizing hemolysis. Shorter durations are associated with other anticoagulant-preservative solutions (e.g., CPDA-1) or different component preparations.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of blood component storage specifications in transfusion medicine, which falls under Hematology rather than bedside nursing prioritization or interventions.

Question 11

All of these are laboratory features of aplastic anemia except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aplastic anemia is due to bone marrow failure, so production of red cells, white cells, and platelets is decreased, leading to pancytopenia and a hypocellular marrow. Because erythropoiesis is reduced, reticulocyte production is low rather than high. Tissue hypoxia from anemia stimulates the kidneys to raise erythropoietin levels, so elevated serum erythropoietin is expected.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of characteristic lab and marrow findings in a hematologic disorder, which is foundational biomedical knowledge rather than a nursing intervention decision.

Question 12

Secondary granules of neutrophils contain:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: c- Lysozyme Neutrophil secondary (specific) granules characteristically contain antibacterial proteins such as lysozyme and lactoferrin, supporting killing of ingested microbes. Myeloperoxidase is a marker enzyme of primary (azurophilic) granules, not secondary granules. Histamine is classically associated with basophil and mast cell granules. Elastase is predominantly a primary granule protease.
Category reason: This question tests content and function of neutrophil granules, which is part of blood cell biology and immune functions studied in Hematology.

Question 13

Monocytes represent .................... of total leukocyte:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Monocytes normally make up a small fraction of circulating white blood cells in the differential count, typically around 2–8%. Values much lower than this are more consistent with basophils, while markedly higher percentages would suggest atypical differential patterns or specific pathologic states. Thus, 2–8% best matches standard reference ranges for monocytes in adults.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of normal leukocyte differential percentages, which is foundational blood science and belongs to Hematology rather than nursing interventions or clinical decision-making.

Question 14

Defective synthesis of either alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin cause:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Thalassemia is caused by decreased or absent synthesis of globin chains (alpha or beta), leading to imbalanced chain production, ineffective erythropoiesis, and microcytic hemolytic anemia. Sickle cell anemia is due to a structural point mutation (HbS) rather than reduced chain synthesis. Aplastic anemia results from bone marrow failure with pancytopenia, and pernicious anemia is due to vitamin B12 deficiency from impaired intrinsic factor, producing macrocytosis.
Category reason: This is testing the etiology/pathogenesis of anemia types based on hemoglobin/globin chain synthesis, which is core Hematology knowledge rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 15

Neutrophils represent................. of circulating leukocyte;

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: c- 50-70 % Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cell in normal adult peripheral blood, making up the majority of the differential count. Standard reference ranges place neutrophils at roughly about half to two-thirds of circulating leukocytes. The other listed ranges correspond more closely to lymphocytes/monocytes (variable) and eosinophils/basophils, which are present in smaller proportions.
Category reason: This question tests normal leukocyte differential proportions, which is a core concept in blood cell composition and differential counts, fitting Hematology.

Question 16

........ are non nucleated, biconcave shaped cells?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: C- Erythrocyte Erythrocytes (red blood cells) are classically anucleate in humans and have a biconcave disc shape, which increases surface area and flexibility for gas exchange and capillary transit. Leukocytes and macrophages are nucleated immune cells with variable shapes. Platelets are anucleate but are small cytoplasmic fragments and are not biconcave cells.
Category reason: This tests identification of formed blood elements and their defining structural features (anucleate, biconcave), which is a core Hematology concept rather than a nursing intervention scenario.

Question 17

........ represent 50-70 % of total leukocytes

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cell in peripheral blood and typically account for about 50–70% of circulating leukocytes in healthy adults. They are key components of innate immunity and are the first responders in acute bacterial infections and inflammatory states. In contrast, lymphocytes are usually ~20–40%, monocytes ~2–8%, and eosinophils ~1–4%.
Category reason: This is testing the normal differential distribution of leukocytes, which is a core concept in blood cell physiology and hematology.

Question 18

............... have a characteristic biffed nucleus and their cytoplasm is filled with large refractile granules that stain red in blood smear?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: b- Eosinophils They characteristically have a bilobed nucleus and large, refractile cytoplasmic granules that stain red-orange with eosin on peripheral smear. Neutrophils typically show multilobed nuclei with fine pale granules, while basophils have dark blue-purple granules that can obscure the nucleus. Lymphocytes generally have a large round nucleus with scant, non-granular cytoplasm.
Category reason: This tests identification of leukocyte morphology on a peripheral blood smear, which is a core topic in Hematology rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 19

The bone marrow produces:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hematopoiesis in the bone marrow generates the formed elements of blood. Erythrocytes arise from erythroid progenitors, leukocytes from myeloid/lymphoid lineages, and platelets are produced by fragmentation of megakaryocytes. Therefore, bone marrow is the primary site responsible for producing RBCs, WBCs, and platelets in normal physiology. Choosing only one cell type would be incomplete because all three formed elements are marrow-derived.

Question 20

Which blood test indicates anemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Anemia is defined by a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, most commonly reflected by decreased hemoglobin concentration (and/or hematocrit). Measuring hemoglobin directly assesses red blood cell mass and is a primary screening and diagnostic parameter for anemia across age/sex-specific reference ranges. Bilirubin relates more to hemolysis or liver/biliary disease and may be elevated in some hemolytic states but does not define anemia by itself. Creatinine and cholesterol evaluate renal function and lipid status, respectively, and are not direct indicators of anemia.

Question 21

Which organ is called “graveyard of RBC”?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Physiologically, senescent or structurally abnormal erythrocytes are filtered out of circulation and removed by macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system. The spleen’s red pulp is specialized for this “culling” and “pitting” function, making it the classic site for destruction of old RBCs. The liver can also participate via Kupffer cells, but it is not the primary organ emphasized for routine RBC sequestration and breakdown. Bone marrow is primarily responsible for RBC production rather than disposal, and the kidney mainly supports erythropoiesis through erythropoietin release.

Question 22

According to the American Association of Blood Banks, what is the recommended hemoglobin level for a blood transfusion?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. 7-8 g/dL Evidence-based transfusion practice favors a restrictive red blood cell transfusion threshold for most stable, hospitalized adults. The AABB guidelines generally recommend considering transfusion when hemoglobin is around 7 g/dL, with a slightly higher threshold near 8 g/dL in certain populations (e.g., some perioperative or cardiovascular disease contexts). This makes the 7–8 g/dL range the best match among the choices for the recommended level prompting transfusion consideration. Higher thresholds like 9–10 g/dL reflect older liberal strategies and are not routinely recommended in stable patients without active bleeding or ischemic symptoms.

Question 23

What blood type is known as the "universal donor"?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The key principle is that red blood cell transfusion compatibility depends on whether donor RBCs carry A and/or B antigens that could be targeted by recipient antibodies. Group O red cells lack both A and B antigens, so they are least likely to be hemolyzed by anti-A or anti-B antibodies in the recipient. This is why type O (especially O negative when Rh is considered) is used for emergency uncrossmatched transfusions. In contrast, AB red cells express both antigens and therefore are not suitable as universal donor RBCs.

Question 24

What blood type is known as the "universal recipient"?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ABO compatibility depends on whether the recipient has anti-A or anti-B antibodies that would hemolyze transfused red blood cells. People with AB blood type have both A and B antigens on their RBCs and therefore do not naturally form anti-A or anti-B antibodies in plasma. As a result, they can receive RBCs from A, B, AB, or O types without an ABO-mediated hemolytic reaction. In contrast, type O is considered the universal RBC donor because it lacks A and B antigens, but type O recipients can only receive type O RBCs.

Question 25

A 19-year-old girl complains of heavy periods. On examination you note that her hair and nails are brittle. Routine blood investigations reveal a Hb of 98 g/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Hb of 98 g/L supports clinically significant anemia, and brittle hair/nails are classic signs of iron deficiency (e.g., koilonychia, hair fragility). Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency typically produces macrocytosis and neurologic findings (B12) rather than hair/nail brittleness. Anemia of chronic disease requires an underlying chronic inflammatory condition, and aplastic anemia would more often present with pancytopenia and infection/bleeding tendencies beyond isolated low Hb.

Question 26

A middle-aged gentleman is diagnosed with acute promyelocytic leukaemia. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This agent targets the abnormal retinoic acid receptor fusion, promoting maturation of promyelocytes and rapidly improving coagulopathy. Standard induction regimens commonly combine it with arsenic trioxide and/or an anthracycline depending on risk, but the immediate next step upon diagnosis is to initiate differentiation therapy. Conventional AML chemotherapy such as cytarabine/daunorubicin or definitive options like transplant are not the first immediate step specific to APL.

Question 27

In which blood group No blood Agglutinins are present?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Individuals with AB blood have both A and B antigens on their RBCs, so they do not form anti-A or anti-B agglutinins. In contrast, group O lacks both A and B antigens and therefore has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, making options with O incorrect. The Rh factor (+/−) does not determine the presence of ABO agglutinins, so AB (not AB+) is the best answer to this specific stem.

Question 28

Universal Recipient blood group is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: People with AB blood type do not have anti-A or anti-B antibodies, so they can receive RBCs from A, B, AB, or O without immediate ABO hemolysis. In contrast, type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies and therefore cannot receive A, B, or AB RBCs. This is why AB is considered the universal recipient for RBC transfusion (with Rh factor considered separately).

Question 29

Hematologic abnormalities include

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly includes anemia, which reflects reduced red blood cell mass and/or hemoglobin, impairing oxygen-carrying capacity. In contrast, nephritis is an inflammatory kidney disorder, and polyuria is increased urine output—both urinary/renal findings rather than primary blood abnormalities. Hematuria is blood in the urine, which is typically categorized as a urinary finding even though it involves blood cells.

Question 30

Symptoms of polycythaemia in children is ____ ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A classic clinical sign is facial plethora (a flushed/reddish appearance) due to engorged capillaries and increased hemoglobin concentration. This directly matches the described “rushed” (intended “flushed”) face in the option list. Cardiomegaly, polyuria, and edema are not typical primary presenting features of polycythemia in children compared with hyperviscosity-related flushing, headache, and dizziness.

Question 31

Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Without adequate cobalamin, DNA synthesis in hematopoietic cells is disrupted, producing macrocytosis and ineffective erythropoiesis. Neurologic findings (e.g., paresthesias, posterior column dysfunction) further support cobalamin deficiency and are not typical of folate deficiency. Iron deficiency instead produces microcytic, hypochromic anemia, making it a key distractor here.

Question 32

Universal donor Blood group is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Group O red cells lack A and B antigens, so they are least likely to be hemolyzed by anti-A or anti-B antibodies in the recipient. Therefore, group O functions as the universal RBC donor in the ABO system (with O negative being the universal donor when Rh factor is also considered). In contrast, AB expresses both antigens and is the universal recipient, not donor, for RBCs.

Question 33

Life cycle of Rbc is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This lifespan reflects gradual membrane and enzyme degradation that reduces RBC deformability and increases susceptibility to splenic clearance. A shorter interval like 90 days would suggest increased turnover seen in hemolysis, not normal physiology. A much longer duration such as 180 days exceeds typical RBC survival and would not match standard hematology values used for concepts like reticulocyte response and anemia evaluation.

Question 34

The mineral that is associated with anemia is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: When iron stores are depleted, erythropoiesis produces smaller, less hemoglobinized RBCs, leading to microcytic, hypochromic anemia and symptoms like fatigue and pallor. This direct mechanistic link makes the mineral most classically associated with anemia. By contrast, sodium and magnesium abnormalities primarily affect neuromuscular or cardiac function rather than hemoglobin production. Calcium is more closely tied to bone health and coagulation than to the common nutritional anemias tested.

Question 35

How is dengue detected in blood?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A falling platelet count also correlates with bleeding risk and progression toward severe dengue, making it a clinically emphasized blood finding. Leukopenia can occur, but it is less characteristic as a primary “detection” marker than thrombocytopenia in many exam contexts. Low fibrin is not a typical primary screening feature and would suggest consumptive coagulopathy/DIC rather than straightforward dengue detection.

Question 36

Agranulocytosis is characterized by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This loss of granulocytes is therefore best captured by leukopenia among the choices. The other options describe nonspecific symptoms that could occur with many conditions, whereas the defining characteristic is depletion of granulocytes/WBCs. Clinically, the key implication is markedly increased infection risk, often presenting with fever and sore throat even when other signs are minimal.

Question 37

Complication of blood transfusion include :-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Immediate hypersensitivity to donor plasma proteins can trigger anaphylaxis with bronchospasm, hypotension, and urticaria. ABO/Rh incompatibility can lead to acute hemolytic reactions with fever, back pain, hemoglobinuria, and risk of DIC/AKI. Rapid or excessive transfusion—especially in older adults or those with heart failure—can precipitate circulatory overload (TACO) with dyspnea, hypertension, and pulmonary edema. Because each listed reaction is a recognized complication, the most accurate choice is the inclusive option.

Question 38

All are the types of hemolytic Anemia except ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: G6PD deficiency causes episodic oxidative hemolysis because RBCs cannot generate enough NADPH to protect against oxidative stress. Sickle cell anemia is a hemoglobinopathy with chronic hemolysis from RBC sickling and fragility, and thalassemia commonly leads to hemolysis due to ineffective erythropoiesis and increased destruction of abnormal erythrocytes. “Spirosis” is not a recognized clinical type of hemolytic anemia and appears to be an incorrect/nonstandard term in this context.

Question 39

Erythropoiesis is the development of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term is specific to red cell lineage maturation from stem/progenitor cells through reticulocytes to mature circulating erythrocytes. Granulocytes and agranulocytes are leukocyte lines formed via leukopoiesis, not this process. Platelet production is thrombopoiesis (megakaryocyte lineage), which is a different hematopoietic pathway.

Question 40

Definitive diagnosis of aplastic anemia into children

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bone marrow aspiration (often with biopsy) demonstrates hypocellularity with fatty replacement and reduced hematopoietic precursors, establishing the diagnosis and helping exclude leukemia or infiltrative disorders. Decreased hemoglobin and decreased hematocrit are nonspecific findings seen in many anemias and do not identify the underlying marrow pathology. Increased RBC size may occur in some cases (e.g., macrocytosis) but is neither required nor diagnostic for aplastic anemia.

Question 41

Which client is most likely to be affected with Cooley’s anemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A child with ancestry from this region has a higher likelihood of inheriting pathogenic beta-globin gene variants from carrier parents. While thalassemia variants can occur in other groups, the classic epidemiologic association for Cooley’s anemia is Mediterranean descent. African descent is more classically associated with sickle cell disease, making it a common distractor here.

Question 42

What is 1 unit of blood in millilitres?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This reflects the typical collection bag volume designed to yield standard component doses after processing. Values like 500–600 mL are larger than the usual whole-blood collection volume and are not used as the standard definition. Although packed red blood cell units can vary by processing and additive solution, the exam-style question asking “1 unit of blood” most commonly refers to the ~450 mL whole-blood unit.

Question 43

Liquid remaining after clotting:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: During clotting, fibrinogen and several clotting factors are consumed, so they are absent or markedly reduced in this remaining liquid. In contrast, plasma is obtained from anticoagulated blood and therefore retains fibrinogen and clotting factors. Lymph and synovial fluid are extracellular fluids not produced by the blood-clotting process.

Question 44

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A COMPONENT OF HUMAN BLOOD?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Blood is classically composed of plasma and formed elements (erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets). Plasma is the liquid matrix that carries proteins, electrolytes, nutrients, wastes, and other solutes, while red blood cells and platelets are cellular/fragment components. Hormones circulate in the bloodstream but are secreted signaling molecules rather than a defined structural component category of blood in standard hematology classification. A common distractor is plasma, which is always included as a primary blood component.

Question 45

Normal adult hemoglobin contains :

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its normal composition is two alpha (α) and two beta (β) chains (α2β2), which allows cooperative oxygen binding and release. Options describing only three total chains are structurally incorrect because hemoglobin requires four globin chains. This concept is clinically relevant because alterations in α or β chain production underlie thalassemias and related hemoglobinopathies.

Question 46

Which of the following is the most sensitive indicator of iron depletion in pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Serum iron is highly variable with diet, diurnal variation, inflammation, and hemodilution in pregnancy, so it is less sensitive for early deficiency. Transferrin (or TIBC) tends to rise in iron deficiency but is also affected by pregnancy-related increases in binding proteins and is a later/less specific marker of depleted stores. Erythropoietin may increase with anemia or hypoxia but does not directly quantify iron stores and is not an early indicator of depletion.

Question 47

In following which is the most common type of nutritional anaemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces a typical microcytic, hypochromic anemia pattern and is especially prevalent in children and menstruating or pregnant individuals. Vitamin B deficiencies (B12/folate) cause megaloblastic anemia and are less common as a primary nutritional cause compared with iron deficiency. Vitamin C deficiency does not directly cause anemia as commonly, though it can contribute by reducing non-heme iron absorption.

Question 48

Hemophilia is a disorder of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This impairs secondary hemostasis, so stable fibrin clot formation is inadequate and bleeding is prolonged. Clinically, patients are prone to deep tissue bleeding such as hemarthroses and muscle hematomas after minor trauma or procedures. In contrast, primary platelet-related disorders more typically cause mucocutaneous bleeding (petechiae, epistaxis) rather than deep joint bleeding.

Question 49

Which of the following terms describes a decreased number of platelets?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term directly indicates a reduced number of circulating thrombocytes, which increases bleeding risk (e.g., petechiae, mucosal bleeding) when counts fall significantly. In contrast, “thrombocytosis” refers to an increased platelet count, and “thrombectomy” is a surgical removal of a thrombus. “Thrombocytopathy” describes platelet dysfunction (quality problem) rather than a decreased platelet number (quantity problem).

Question 50

The commonest cause of anemia worldwide is –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Globally, low dietary iron intake, poor absorption, and chronic blood loss (especially from gastrointestinal sources and menstruation) make iron deficiency the predominant etiology. This typically produces a microcytic, hypochromic anemia pattern and is highly prevalent in children and women of reproductive age. In contrast, folate and vitamin B12 deficiencies are important but less prevalent worldwide and more often associated with macrocytosis rather than the most common global burden.

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