Question 1

The nurse is caring for an infant with a congenital abnormality whose abdominal contents protrude through the umbilicus while remaining in the peritoneal sac. The nurse knows the infant will be diagnosed with which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An omphalocele is a congenital abdominal wall defect at the umbilical ring where bowel (and sometimes liver) herniates into the base of the umbilical cord and is covered by a protective peritoneal sac. The stem explicitly describes protrusion through the umbilicus while remaining in a sac, which matches this condition. Gastroschisis differs because the defect is typically to the right of the umbilicus and the intestines are not covered by a sac, increasing fluid/heat loss risk. Intussusception and Hirschsprung’s disease are causes of intestinal obstruction rather than an umbilical wall herniation with a membranous covering.

Question 2

What is the name of the enzyme responsible for digesting milk sugar?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Milk sugar is lactose, which must be hydrolyzed into glucose and galactose to be absorbed across the intestinal epithelium. The enzyme that performs this hydrolysis is lactase, located on the intestinal mucosal brush border. Amylase targets starches, and lipase digests triglycerides, so they do not directly split lactose.

Question 3

Which of the following is a common symptom of peptic ulcer disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pylori or NSAID use). This symptom is common and often has a temporal relationship to meals (duodenal ulcers may improve with food, gastric ulcers may worsen). Frequent urination is more suggestive of endocrine or urinary pathology rather than an upper GI ulcer. Visual disturbances are not a typical ulcer symptom and would prompt evaluation for neurologic or metabolic causes instead.

Question 4

A client with cancer of the pancreas has undergone a Whipple procedure. The nurse is aware that during the Whipple procedure the doctor will remove the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes removal of the pancreatic head the core, consistently included component across standard Whipple operations. While the duodenum (and sometimes a portion of the stomach) are also removed, those resections are adjunct to the primary goal of excising the pancreatic head/uncinate process region and achieving oncologic margins. The option about a “proximal third” of small intestine is inaccurate because the typical resection is the duodenum and proximal jejunum rather than a defined one-third proportion.

Question 5

Which of the following is a complication of splenectomy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The pancreatic tail lies close to the splenic hilum, so traction, ligation, or thermal injury during splenic vessel dissection can precipitate pancreatic inflammation. This makes acute pancreatic irritation a recognized surgical complication in the early postoperative period. The other options are not anatomically linked to splenic hilar dissection in the same direct way and are therefore less characteristic as splenectomy-specific complications.

Question 6

When the diarrhea lasts for more than 14 days, it is called?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acute watery diarrhea is typically

Question 7

A first time mother of a three week-old breastfed baby brings the infant to the clinic and complains that her child has been forcefully vomiting after feeding. He was born at 40 weeks gestation, weighing 3.6 kilograms. He is constantly hungry and irritable. Examination reveals a swollen abdomen and a palpable mass in the middle upper right quadrant. What is the most likely health problem?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because calories are not reaching the intestine effectively, infants classically remain hungry soon after vomiting (“hungry vomiter”) and may be irritable. The exam finding of a palpable “olive” in the right upper/epigastric area strongly supports this diagnosis. Intussusception typically occurs later (often 6–36 months) with intermittent colicky pain and possible currant-jelly stools rather than isolated post-feed projectile emesis. Gastroesophageal reflux more often causes effortless regurgitation without a discrete RUQ mass.

Question 8

Which symptom is most common in liver cirrhosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This produces the classic and commonly tested finding of scleral icterus and yellowing of the skin. Polyuria and hematuria are not typical primary manifestations of cirrhosis and suggest renal or urinary pathology instead. Chest pain is nonspecific and would prompt evaluation for cardiopulmonary causes rather than being a hallmark cirrhosis symptom.

Question 9

A nurse is caring for a patient with ulcerative colitis. The nurse can expect the patient to have what common finding with this disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes diarrhea the most consistent and hallmark finding across presentations. Abdominal cramps can occur but are less specific and may be variable in intensity. Abdominal distension is more suggestive of obstruction, ileus, or toxic megacolon (a complication) rather than a routine common finding. Rectal pain can occur with proctitis but is not as universally present as diarrhea.

Question 10

Bilirubin is conjugated in the—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepatocytes use UDP-glucuronyl transferase to add glucuronic acid, enabling secretion into bile canaliculi. The spleen is involved in breakdown of aged RBCs producing unconjugated bilirubin, not conjugation. The kidney primarily excretes water-soluble substances and does not perform bilirubin conjugation.

Question 11

Which muscular, enlarged pouch or sac, located slightly to the left, temporarily stores food?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Its rugae allow expansion to accommodate a meal, and its muscular layers mix food with gastric secretions to form chyme. The gallbladder stores bile rather than food, and the small and large intestines primarily handle digestion/absorption and water reabsorption/fecal formation, respectively. Therefore, the description of an enlarged pouch slightly to the left that temporarily stores food best matches the stomach.

Question 12

Which disease is limited to te large intestine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: By definition it is confined to the large intestine, unlike Crohn disease which can involve any part of the GI tract from mouth to anus. The other choices are diseases of different organ systems (liver, meninges, skin) and are not anatomically limited to the colon. Therefore the condition specifically limited to the large intestine is the one affecting the colonic mucosa.

Question 13

Dark, tarry stools indicate bleeding in which location of the GI tract?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This typically reflects bleeding proximal to the ligament of Treitz (esophagus, stomach, or duodenum). In contrast, bleeding from the lower colon more often presents as bright red blood per rectum (hematochezia) because there is less time for digestion. While proximal small-bowel sources can sometimes cause melena, the classic exam association is upper GI bleeding.

Question 14

In rectal prolapse, the common symptom is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Rectal prolapse is defined by descent of rectal tissue through the anal canal, so the hallmark presentation is a visible/palpable protruding mass at the anus, often worsening with straining. This finding directly reflects the underlying anatomic displacement rather than urinary or reproductive pathology. Hematuria and dysuria are urinary tract symptoms and are not typical manifestations of a rectal structural disorder. Amenorrhea relates to menstrual/endocrine function and is unrelated to rectal prolapse.

Question 15

Which of the following conditions can cause a hiatal hernia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Structural weakness or laxity of the diaphragmatic hiatus/adjacent support tissues predisposes abdominal contents to slide upward into the thorax, especially with age or chronically increased intra-abdominal pressure. This option directly describes the key anatomic defect that permits herniation. Increased intrathoracic pressure is not the usual primary driver; the more typical mechanism is impaired diaphragmatic hiatus support with abdominal pressure pushing contents upward.

Question 16

Risk factors for the development of hiatal hernias are those that lead to increased abdominal pressure. Which of the following complications can cause increased abdominal pressure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Excess abdominal adiposity chronically elevates baseline abdominal pressure and also increases pressure spikes with bending, coughing, or straining. Constipation can raise pressure transiently during Valsalva, but it is less consistently a chronic driver than obesity in standard risk-factor lists. Volvulus and intestinal obstruction are acute pathologies and are not typically cited as primary etiologic risk factors for hiatal hernia development in the way sustained pressure from obesity is.

Question 17

Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Low dietary fiber leads to smaller, harder stools and constipation, requiring stronger segmentation contractions and raising intraluminal pressure over time. This pressure mechanism makes the formation of diverticula more likely, particularly in the sigmoid colon. In contrast, higher fiber intake increases stool bulk, decreases transit time, and typically lowers colonic pressure, which is protective rather than causative.

Question 18

Which of the following symptoms indicated diverticulosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diverticulosis refers to the presence of colonic diverticula without inflammation, and it is commonly asymptomatic and discovered incidentally on colonoscopy or imaging. When symptoms such as fever and anorexia occur, they suggest diverticulitis (infection/inflammation) rather than uncomplicated diverticulosis. Pain patterns and systemic signs are more consistent with inflammatory or complicated disease, not simple diverticula. While bowel habit changes can occur in many GI disorders, they are nonspecific and do not best indicate diverticulosis compared with the classic asymptomatic presentation.

Question 19

Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A fecalith is a classic obstructing nidus and is frequently cited as the most common cause, especially in adults. The other options are nonspecific descriptions or not typical primary mechanisms of appendiceal obstruction. Identifying obstruction as the initiating event helps connect the cause to the downstream risk of perforation and peritonitis if untreated.

Question 20

The organ that produces enzymes trypsin, amylase, lipase is—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Digestive enzyme secretion for macronutrient breakdown is a key exocrine function of the pancreas. It releases protease precursors including trypsinogen (activated to trypsin in the small intestine), as well as pancreatic amylase for carbohydrate digestion and pancreatic lipase for fat digestion. The liver primarily produces bile and metabolic proteins rather than these digestive enzymes. The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile, and the stomach mainly secretes acid and pepsin rather than this enzyme trio.

Question 21

In children, rectal prolapse is usually treated by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nonoperative measures include stool softening, treating diarrhea/parasites, improving nutrition, and avoiding straining, which leads to resolution in many children. Operative approaches are reserved for persistent or recurrent prolapse despite adequate conservative therapy or when complications occur. Immediate surgery is not typical first-line, and the gynecologic procedure listed is not relevant to a child’s rectal prolapse.

Question 22

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia may cause—?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In cholestasis or biliary obstruction, less conjugated bilirubin reaches the intestine, reducing stercobilin formation that normally colors stool brown, leading to pale/clay stools. The coexistence of dark urine and pale stools is therefore a classic pattern of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. By contrast, unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia does not darken urine because it is not water-soluble and is not excreted in urine. This makes the combined finding the best answer.

Question 23

Iron absorption mainly occurs in –?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: g., DMT1 for non-heme iron) and where the acidic chyme arriving from the stomach helps keep iron soluble. The duodenum (and proximal jejunum) is the key site because it is optimized for nutrient uptake and has high expression of iron transport and regulatory proteins (including ferroportin for export into blood). The stomach mainly aids by providing acidity and does not serve as the primary absorptive surface for iron. The colon and rectum are primarily involved in water/electrolyte absorption and stool storage, not micronutrient iron absorption.

Question 24

Which organ produces bile?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The gallbladder does not produce bile; it stores and concentrates it for release during meals. The pancreas instead produces digestive enzymes and bicarbonate, not bile. The kidney and lungs have excretory and gas-exchange roles, respectively, and are not part of bile production.

Question 25

Which type of ulcer does a patient likely have if they report pain 15 - 30 minutes after eating which is worse during the day?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Gastric ulcer pain typically occurs soon after meals (about 15–30 minutes) because food stimulates gastric acid secretion and directly contacts the ulcerated gastric mucosa, often leading patients to avoid eating. Duodenal ulcer pain classically occurs later (2–3 hours after meals) and may improve with food or antacids, making it a common distractor here. Worsening during the day is consistent with repeated meals provoking postprandial discomfort rather than nocturnal “hunger pain” patterns more typical of duodenal disease.

Question 26

Primary function of the Liver?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes “filtering blood” the best match among the choices because it captures hepatic clearance and detoxification in exam-style wording. Digesting food is primarily the job of the gastrointestinal tract (stomach/intestine) and pancreatic enzymes; the liver contributes bile but does not directly perform digestion. Breathing and thinking are functions of the respiratory system and central nervous system, respectively.

Question 27

Which organ stores bile?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The gallbladder’s physiologic role is reservoir storage and concentration of bile between digestive periods. When fatty chyme enters the duodenum, cholecystokinin triggers gallbladder contraction to deliver bile for fat emulsification. The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate rather than storing bile, and the stomach does not serve as a bile storage organ.

Question 28

Which organ stores bile?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The organ specialized for this reservoir function is the gallbladder, which releases bile into the duodenum via the cystic duct and common bile duct in response to cholecystokinin after a fatty meal. The stomach is primarily for acid-mediated digestion, not bile storage. The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes and bicarbonate, while the small intestine is the site where bile acts, not where it is stored.

Question 29

Which is the largest gland in the body?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It qualifies as a gland because it produces and secretes bile and numerous proteins into the circulation. The thyroid, pancreas, and adrenal glands are important endocrine organs, but they are much smaller in mass than the liver. A common confusion is “largest endocrine gland,” which would be the thyroid; this question asks for the largest gland overall.

Question 30

Inflammation of liver is called —?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The root “hepat-” refers to the liver, and “-itis” indicates inflammation, so the term for liver inflammation follows this construction. In contrast, nephritis is kidney inflammation, pancreatitis is pancreatic inflammation, and gastritis is stomach inflammation, making them organ-mismatched distractors. Therefore the correct medical term for inflammation of the liver is identified by the hepat- root.

Question 31

What is the major function of the appendix?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It also serves as a reservoir for commensal gut flora that can help repopulate the colon after infectious diarrhea. Nutrient absorption is primarily a small-intestine function, while water absorption occurs mainly in the colon rather than the appendix. Protein digestion is largely mediated by gastric and pancreatic enzymes, not by the appendix.

Question 32

Findings during an endoscopic exam include a cobblestone appearance of the colon in your patient. The findings are characteristic of which disorder?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This pattern corresponds to “skip lesions” that can involve any part of the GI tract, including the colon. Ulcerative colitis more typically shows continuous, diffuse mucosal erythema and friability starting at the rectum rather than a cobblestone pattern. Gastritis affects the stomach lining and would not create colonic cobblestoning, and a nonspecific “ulcer” does not describe this characteristic endoscopic appearance.

Question 33

Which layer of the GI tract is responsible for peristalsis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The muscularis externa contains the primary circular and longitudinal smooth muscle responsible for these propulsive waves under control of the enteric nervous system (myenteric/Auerbach plexus). In contrast, the mucosa is mainly for secretion and absorption, and the submucosa primarily provides supportive connective tissue and houses the submucosal (Meissner) plexus for secretion/blood flow regulation. The serosa is an outer protective covering that reduces friction and does not drive motility.

Question 34

Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The liver produces bile, which is delivered to the duodenum to emulsify fats and support lipid digestion and absorption. In contrast, the esophagus, duodenum, and colon are all parts of the alimentary canal through which food or waste passes. Therefore the only listed accessory organ is the one that produces a digestive secretion without being a continuous segment of the GI tube.

Question 35

Which molecule is responsible for the absorption of fatty acids?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bile salts act as detergents that emulsify dietary fat and form micelles that deliver fatty acids and monoglycerides to the enterocyte brush border for uptake. Digestive enzymes like amylase and pepsin break down carbohydrates and proteins, respectively, but they do not facilitate lipid transport across the unstirred water layer. Gastrin is a hormone that stimulates gastric acid secretion and motility rather than intestinal lipid absorption.

Question 36

The majority of digestive enzymes are secreted by the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pancreatic acinar cells secrete amylase, lipase, and protease zymogens (e.g., trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen), which together account for the bulk of enzymatic digestion. In contrast, the liver produces bile (important for fat emulsification) but not digestive enzymes, and the stomach secretes only a limited set (mainly pepsin and gastric lipase). The small intestine does provide brush-border enzymes, but these are fewer and primarily complete final steps rather than providing the majority of digestive enzyme output.

Question 37

Which of the following structures is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption in the digestive system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The duodenum, as the first segment, is a major site where chyme mixes with bile and pancreatic enzymes, enabling efficient digestion and initiating substantial absorption of nutrients. The stomach primarily performs mechanical and chemical digestion with limited absorption (e.g., some water, alcohol, certain drugs). The large intestine mainly reabsorbs water and electrolytes rather than absorbing most macronutrients, and the esophagus functions in transport only.

Question 38

A client’s mother asks the nurse to explain the basic problem involved in Hirschsprung’s disease. The nurse’s response is based on her knowledge that the primary defect in Hirschsprung’s disease is the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hirschsprung disease results from congenital absence of enteric ganglion cells (aganglionosis) in the distal bowel, causing loss of coordinated peristalsis and a functional obstruction. Without these nerves, the affected segment remains tonically contracted, leading to proximal dilation (megacolon) and severe constipation or failure to pass meconium. This mechanism is distinct from an anatomic blockage like colonic atresia. Internal anal sphincter relaxation is impaired secondary to aganglionosis, but the fundamental defect is missing enteric innervation.

Question 39

A client's mother asks the nurse to explain the basic problem involved in Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse's response is based on her knowledge that the primary defect in Hirschsprung's disease is the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hirschsprung disease is caused by congenital absence of enteric ganglion cells (Auerbach and Meissner plexuses) in the distal bowel, leading to loss of parasympathetic-mediated peristalsis. Without this innervation, the affected segment remains tonically contracted and cannot propel stool, producing functional obstruction with proximal dilation (megacolon). This mechanism directly matches a distal colon segment lacking nerve innervation. In contrast, intestinal atresia describes a structural blockage, not an aganglionic motility disorder, and does not explain the characteristic functional obstruction.

Question 40

What is the function of the circular folds (plicae circulares) in the small intestine?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Circular folds are permanent transverse mucosal/submucosal ridges that expand luminal surface and create turbulence, enhancing mixing and exposure to absorptive epithelium. Enzyme secretion is primarily performed by pancreatic exocrine secretions and brush-border enzymes rather than by the folds themselves. Propulsion of chyme is mainly due to peristalsis and segmentation from intestinal smooth muscle, not a primary function of plicae circulares.

Question 41

Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Diverticulosis refers to the presence of diverticula (mucosal outpouchings) in the colon without associated inflammation or infection. This option directly matches the defining feature: asymptomatic or uncomplicated outpouchings. In contrast, inflammation of a diverticulum is diverticulitis, which would present with localized pain, fever, and leukocytosis. The other choices describe bowel obstruction (impaired forward flow) and hernia (organ protrusion through a containing structure), which are different pathologic processes.

Question 42

Crohn’s disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in the GI system may be involved with this disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Crohn disease can involve any part of the GI tract but classically affects the terminal ileum and can extend to the colon, often in a patchy “skip lesion” pattern. A key distinguishing feature is transmural inflammation, meaning it involves the full thickness of the bowel wall, predisposing to strictures, fistulas, and abscesses. This matches an option that includes small intestine involvement and full-thickness disease. Options describing disease limited to the colon or limited to mucosa/submucosa better fit ulcerative colitis patterns rather than Crohn disease.

Question 43

A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this procedure. The nurse tells the client that the procedure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A vagotomy interrupts vagal (parasympathetic) input to the stomach, which decreases cholinergic stimulation of parietal cells and reduces gastric acid output. Lower acid secretion reduces ongoing chemical injury to the ulcer bed and helps prevent recurrence in refractory peptic ulcer disease. The procedure does not directly repair the mucosal lining; mucosal healing occurs secondarily once acid and pepsin exposure are reduced. Decreased “food absorption” is not the purpose (the stomach primarily digests and regulates emptying), and altering stress responses is not the surgical target.

Question 44

The client with peptic ulcer disease is scheduled for a pyloroplasty. The client asks the nurse about the procedure. The nurse plans to respond knowing that a pyloroplasty involves?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Pyloroplasty is a gastric outlet-widening procedure intended to improve gastric emptying by surgically enlarging the pyloric channel. It is performed by incising the pylorus and closing it in a way that leaves a wider lumen, reducing functional obstruction/spasm. Cutting the vagus nerve describes a vagotomy, a different operation sometimes paired with pyloroplasty for ulcer disease but not the definition of pyloroplasty itself. Removing the distal stomach (antrectomy) or removing acid-producing cells (partial gastrectomy) are resection procedures rather than a pyloric widening technique.

Question 45

Which of the following occurs in the colon?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes colonic bacterial production the best match among the options. Fat digestion occurs primarily in the small intestine via bile salts and pancreatic lipase, while most protein digestion/absorption is also in the small intestine. Pepsin activation occurs in the stomach when pepsinogen is converted in an acidic environment, not in the colon.

Question 46

What is chyme?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It consists of ingested food combined with gastric secretions (acid, enzymes, mucus) before being released into the duodenum. This distinguishes it from bile, which is made by the liver and aids fat emulsification in the small intestine. It also differs from pancreatic juice, which is an enzyme-rich secretion delivered to the duodenum rather than formed in the stomach.

Question 47

A patient is being transferred to your unit with acute cholecystitis. In report the transferring nurse tells you that the patient has a positive Murphy’s Sign. You know that this means?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Murphy’s sign reflects gallbladder inflammation causing pain when the examiner palpates the right upper quadrant at the gallbladder point while the patient inspires. During inspiration, the descending diaphragm brings the inflamed gallbladder into contact with the examiner’s fingers, triggering sharp pain and an abrupt inspiratory arrest. This finding supports acute cholecystitis rather than lower-quadrant pathology. A common confusion is rebound tenderness, which localizes to peritoneal irritation and is not specific for gallbladder disease.

Question 48

In pernicious anemia, intrinsic factor is not being secreted by the ______ cells which are found in the gastric mucosa?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intrinsic factor is produced by parietal (oxyntic) cells in the gastric body and fundus and is required for vitamin B12 absorption in the terminal ileum. Pernicious anemia results from autoimmune destruction of these cells or antibodies against intrinsic factor, leading to impaired B12 absorption and megaloblastic anemia. Chief cells primarily secrete pepsinogen, not intrinsic factor, making them a common distractor. Therefore failure to secrete intrinsic factor points to parietal cell dysfunction.

Question 49

What is the meaning of a dropping bilirubin level in a patient diagnosed with hepatitis?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Bilirubin rises in hepatitis primarily because hepatocytes have impaired uptake, conjugation, and/or excretion of bilirubin into bile. A falling bilirubin level indicates recovering hepatic handling and improving bile flow, reflecting clinical and biochemical improvement of liver function. Decreased red cell destruction would more directly lower unconjugated bilirubin without addressing the hepatic inflammatory process, making it a less fitting interpretation here. Renal compensation does not meaningfully lower serum bilirubin because bilirubin metabolism and clearance are hepatobiliary processes, and ongoing Kupffer cell damage would not explain an improving bilirubin trend.

Question 50

A nurse is educating parents of a child with Cystic Fibrosis (CF) on which vitamins need to be supplemented. Which of the following vitamins is the child deficient in due to pancreatic exocrine insufficiency associated with CF?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This most strongly leads to deficiencies of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K), rather than water-soluble B vitamins or vitamin C. Deficiency of this vitamin impairs calcium and phosphate homeostasis, increasing risk for poor bone mineralization (e.g., rickets/osteopenia) in children with CF. By contrast, thiamin, riboflavin, and vitamin C are water-soluble and are not the classic deficiency pattern from steatorrhea-related malabsorption.

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The nurse is caring for an infant with a congenital abnormality whose abdominal contents protrude through the umbilicus while remaining in the peritoneal sac. The nurse knows the infant will be diagnosed with which of the following?

What is the name of the enzyme responsible for digesting milk sugar?

Which of the following is a common symptom of peptic ulcer disease?

A client with cancer of the pancreas has undergone a Whipple procedure. The nurse is aware that during the Whipple procedure the doctor will remove the?

Which of the following is a complication of splenectomy?

When the diarrhea lasts for more than 14 days, it is called?

Which symptom is most common in liver cirrhosis?

A nurse is caring for a patient with ulcerative colitis. The nurse can expect the patient to have what common finding with this disorder?

Bilirubin is conjugated in the—?

Which muscular, enlarged pouch or sac, located slightly to the left, temporarily stores food?

Which disease is limited to te large intestine?

Dark, tarry stools indicate bleeding in which location of the GI tract?

In rectal prolapse, the common symptom is?

Which of the following conditions can cause a hiatal hernia?

Risk factors for the development of hiatal hernias are those that lead to increased abdominal pressure. Which of the following complications can cause increased abdominal pressure?

Which of the following types of diets is implicated in the development of diverticulosis?

Which of the following symptoms indicated diverticulosis?

Which of the following complications is thought to be the most common cause of appendicitis?

The organ that produces enzymes trypsin, amylase, lipase is—?

In children, rectal prolapse is usually treated by?

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia may cause—?

Iron absorption mainly occurs in –?

Which organ produces bile?

Which type of ulcer does a patient likely have if they report pain 15 - 30 minutes after eating which is worse during the day?

Primary function of the Liver?

Which organ stores bile?

Which organ stores bile?

Which is the largest gland in the body?

Inflammation of liver is called —?

What is the major function of the appendix?

Findings during an endoscopic exam include a cobblestone appearance of the colon in your patient. The findings are characteristic of which disorder?

Which layer of the GI tract is responsible for peristalsis?

Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?

Which molecule is responsible for the absorption of fatty acids?

The majority of digestive enzymes are secreted by the?

Which of the following structures is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption in the digestive system?

A client’s mother asks the nurse to explain the basic problem involved in Hirschsprung’s disease. The nurse’s response is based on her knowledge that the primary defect in Hirschsprung’s disease is the?

A client's mother asks the nurse to explain the basic problem involved in Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse's response is based on her knowledge that the primary defect in Hirschsprung's disease is the?

What is the function of the circular folds (plicae circulares) in the small intestine?

Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?

Crohn’s disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in the GI system may be involved with this disease?

A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this procedure. The nurse tells the client that the procedure?

The client with peptic ulcer disease is scheduled for a pyloroplasty. The client asks the nurse about the procedure. The nurse plans to respond knowing that a pyloroplasty involves?

Which of the following occurs in the colon?

What is chyme?

A patient is being transferred to your unit with acute cholecystitis. In report the transferring nurse tells you that the patient has a positive Murphy’s Sign. You know that this means?

In pernicious anemia, intrinsic factor is not being secreted by the ______ cells which are found in the gastric mucosa?

What is the meaning of a dropping bilirubin level in a patient diagnosed with hepatitis?

A nurse is educating parents of a child with Cystic Fibrosis (CF) on which vitamins need to be supplemented. Which of the following vitamins is the child deficient in due to pancreatic exocrine insufficiency associated with CF?

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