Endocrine System Practice Test 17
Endocrine System NCLEX Practice Test
Endocrine System is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Nursing Science → Clinical Foundations → Endocrine System. This section reviews hormonal regulation and nursing priorities in metabolic and endocrine disorders. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 17th part of the Endocrine System series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Endocrine System Practice Test 17
POSTERIOR PITUITARY SECRETES
- Growth hormone
- Prolactin
- TSH
- Oxytocin
Explanation: Answer reason: This makes oxytocin the only listed hormone associated with posterior pituitary release. Growth hormone, prolactin, and TSH are produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary. A common exam trap is confusing “pituitary” hormones in general; remembering posterior = ADH/oxytocin helps avoid that error.
SECRETION OF MILK DUE
- Oxytocin
- Prolactin
- Oestrogen
- FSH
Explanation: Answer reason: Suckling increases prolactin release by reducing hypothalamic dopamine (prolactin-inhibiting factor), sustaining ongoing milk secretion. Oxytocin, in contrast, mainly mediates milk ejection (let-down) by contracting myoepithelial cells rather than producing milk. Estrogen and FSH regulate reproductive function and breast development but do not directly drive postpartum milk synthesis.
One of the acute complication of diabetes mellitus is ?
- Hypoglycaemia
- Diabetic neuropathy
- Diabetic retinopathy
- Diabetic foot
Explanation: Answer reason: Low blood glucose can occur quickly from excessive insulin or oral hypoglycemics, missed meals, or increased activity, leading to neuroglycopenic symptoms and potential seizure/coma if untreated. In contrast, neuropathy, retinopathy, and diabetic foot are chronic microvascular/neuropathic complications that evolve over months to years of hyperglycemia. Therefore the only option representing an acute complication is the rapid-onset low-glucose state.
The complaint of insulin secretion is noticed in?
- Type I diabetes
- Type II diabetes
- Secondary diabetes
- Diabetes insipidus
Explanation: Answer reason: This directly explains hyperglycemia and the tendency toward ketosis when untreated. In contrast, Type II diabetes is primarily insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency early on rather than a primary lack of secretion. Diabetes insipidus involves ADH deficiency or renal ADH resistance and is unrelated to insulin physiology.
A patient asks a nurse to provide her information regarding the betatrophin hormone. Which statement represents how the nurse should respond?
- Betatrophin is produced by the lymphatic system
- Betatrophin is produced by the immune system
- Betatrophin is produced by the urinary system
- Betatrophin is produced by the digestive system
Explanation: Answer reason: Endocrine hormones are typically categorized by the organ system that produces them, and hepatic endocrine signaling is commonly grouped with digestive system function. The lymphatic and immune systems are not primary sources of systemic metabolic hormones like betatrophin. The urinary system (kidneys) does have endocrine roles (e.g., erythropoietin, renin), but betatrophin is not chiefly produced there.
Which of these acts an exocrine as well as endocrine gland !?
- Pituitary
- Thyroid
- Adrenal
- Pancreas
Explanation: Answer reason: The pancreas is exocrine because acinar cells secrete digestive enzymes and bicarbonate into the duodenum via the pancreatic duct. It is also endocrine because the islets of Langerhans release hormones such as insulin and glucagon directly into circulation. In contrast, pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands are endocrine-only and do not deliver secretions through ducts.
What is the primary hormone responsible for the regulation of sodium and potassium levels in the blood?
- Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
- Aldosterone
- Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
- Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Explanation: Answer reason: By increasing epithelial sodium channel activity and Na+/K+ ATPase expression, it retains sodium (and water) while promoting renal potassium loss. In contrast, PTH primarily regulates calcium and phosphate, not sodium/potassium homeostasis. TSH and ACTH regulate thyroid and adrenal steroid production respectively, but they are not the direct effector hormone for Na+/K+ regulation at the kidney.
Calcium balance regulated by:
- Thyroid
- Pituitary
- Pancreas
- Parathyroid
Explanation: Answer reason: PTH raises serum calcium by stimulating bone resorption, increasing renal calcium reabsorption, and promoting activation of vitamin D to increase intestinal calcium absorption. Although the thyroid produces calcitonin, its role in day-to-day calcium regulation in adults is minor compared with PTH. Pituitary and pancreatic hormones do not serve as the main regulators of calcium balance.
Most sensitive indicator of Hypothyroidism in a community is?
- T4
- Neonatal hypothyroidism
- TSH
- Median urinary iodine excretion
Explanation: Answer reason: Urinary iodine reflects very recent dietary iodine intake and, when summarized as the community median, is the standard sensitive epidemiologic indicator for iodine deficiency disorders. Serum TSH and T4 are sensitive for diagnosing hypothyroidism in an individual, but they are influenced by age, illness, pregnancy, and laboratory variability, making them less suitable as a community-wide indicator. Neonatal hypothyroidism rates are a downstream outcome and may miss subclinical iodine deficiency before clinical disease appears.
Which cells in the pancreas make insulin?
- Germ cells
- Islet cells
- Epithelial cells
- Hepatic cells
Explanation: Answer reason: These islet endocrine cells regulate blood glucose by increasing cellular glucose uptake and promoting glycogen synthesis. The other options refer to unrelated cell types: hepatic cells primarily handle liver metabolism and glycogen storage rather than insulin synthesis. Damage or autoimmune destruction of beta cells impairs insulin production and is central to the pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Oxytocin is known as-?
- Love hormone
- Birth hormone
- Milk ejecting hormone
- All of the above
Explanation: Answer reason: It promotes uterine smooth muscle contractions during labor, which supports the “birth hormone” label. It also triggers milk let-down by contracting myoepithelial cells in the breast, matching the “milk ejecting hormone” description. Additionally, its central nervous system effects on attachment and affiliative behaviors underpin the common “love hormone” nickname, making the combined choice the best answer.
Which of the hormone helps in contraction of myoepithelial cells?
- Oestrogen
- Progesterone
- Prolactin
- Oxytocin
Explanation: Answer reason: The hormone responsible for this smooth muscle-like contraction is released during nipple stimulation and acts on myoepithelial cells surrounding alveoli and ducts. Prolactin primarily stimulates milk production (lactogenesis) rather than milk ejection. Estrogen and progesterone mainly support breast development and pregnancy-related changes and do not drive the acute myoepithelial contraction needed for let-down.
The thyroid gland is located in.?
- Abdomen
- Thorax
- Neck
- Brain
Explanation: Answer reason: This anatomic position explains why thyroid enlargement can cause visible anterior neck swelling and compressive symptoms like dysphagia or hoarseness. The abdomen and thorax contain other endocrine organs (e.g., pancreas, adrenals, thymus) but not the thyroid. The brain contains hypothalamic-pituitary structures, which regulate thyroid function but are not the gland itself.
Deficiency of thyroxine causes?
- Diabetes
- Goiter
- Acromegaly
- Gigantism
Explanation: Answer reason: Chronic TSH drive causes thyroid hypertrophy/hyperplasia, producing an enlarged thyroid (goiter), classically seen with iodine deficiency or primary hypothyroidism. Diabetes is primarily related to insulin deficiency/resistance rather than thyroid hormone deficiency. Acromegaly and gigantism result from excess growth hormone, not reduced thyroid hormone.
Diabetes insipidus is due to the deficiency of ?
- Anti diuretic hormone
- Glucose
- Insulin
- Glucagon
Explanation: Answer reason: This causes excretion of large volumes of dilute urine and compensatory polydipsia, often with hypernatremia if intake cannot keep up. A true deficiency points to central diabetes insipidus (posterior pituitary/hypothalamic origin), whereas nephrogenic DI reflects renal resistance rather than lack of hormone. Insulin and glucagon relate to glucose regulation and diabetes mellitus, not water balance, making them distractors here.
Which hormone cause ovulation?
- FSH
- Testosterone
- Progesterone
- Luteinising hormone
Explanation: Answer reason: This surge is driven by sustained high estradiol levels that switch to positive feedback on the hypothalamic-pituitary axis. FSH primarily supports follicular growth and estradiol production earlier in the cycle rather than causing follicle rupture. Progesterone rises after ovulation from the corpus luteum to stabilize the endometrium, and testosterone is not the physiologic trigger for ovulation.
Cause of goitre?
- Iodine deficiency
- Iodine excess
- Calcium deficiency
- Zink deficiency
Explanation: Answer reason: The pituitary compensates by increasing TSH, which chronically stimulates thyroid follicular hyperplasia and hypertrophy, producing an enlarged gland (goitre). While excess iodine can trigger thyroid dysfunction in susceptible individuals, the classic and most common nutritional cause of endemic goitre is iodine lack. Calcium and zinc deficiencies are not primary drivers of thyroid enlargement through the TSH-mediated pathway.
Pregnancy test is done by presence of ?
- HCG
- HPL
- Progesterone
- LH
Explanation: Answer reason: Standard urine and serum pregnancy tests are designed to detect this hormone (typically the beta subunit) because it reliably indicates the presence of an implanted gestation. hPL is also placental but is not used for early detection and is more relevant to later pregnancy metabolic effects. Progesterone and LH can be present in nonpregnant states and are not specific enough for confirming pregnancy.
Which of the following is a function of the pineal gland?
- Releasing growth hormone
- Releasing melatonin
- Releasing insulin and glucagon
- Releasing luteinizing hormone
Explanation: Answer reason: This directly matches the option describing melatonin release. Growth hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary, insulin and glucagon by the pancreatic islets, and luteinizing hormone by the anterior pituitary. Therefore, melatonin secretion is the distinctive function tested here.
Hormone elevated in a client with hypothyroidism is..?
- T3
- T4
- TSH
- Thyroxine
Explanation: Answer reason: Loss of negative feedback at the hypothalamus and pituitary causes the pituitary to increase secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone to drive the thyroid harder. Therefore TSH is characteristically elevated while T3/T4 (including thyroxine/T4) are low. A key exception is central (pituitary/hypothalamic) hypothyroidism, where TSH may be low or inappropriately normal, but the classic exam pattern is elevated TSH.
The thyroxin hormone is secreted by?
- Pituitary gland
- Adrenal gland
- Thymus
- Thyroid gland
Explanation: Answer reason: This endocrine pathway (TRH→TSH→T4/T3) regulates basal metabolic rate, thermogenesis, and growth/development. The pituitary gland primarily secretes TSH and other tropic hormones, not T4 itself. Adrenal and thymus glands have distinct hormonal/immune roles and do not synthesize thyroid hormones.
Grave's disease is due to?
- Hyperactivity of adrenal cortex
- Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland
- Hypoactivity of islets of Langerhans
- Hyperactivity of thyroid gland
Explanation: Answer reason: This results in a diffusely enlarged, overactive thyroid with clinical features of thyrotoxicosis (e.g., weight loss, heat intolerance, tachycardia) and often ophthalmopathy. Hypoactivity of the thyroid gland would describe hypothyroidism (e.g., Hashimoto disease), which is the opposite physiology. The adrenal cortex and islets of Langerhans relate to cortisol and insulin/glucagon disorders, respectively, not primary thyroid overactivity.
The hormone produces mother's milk is?
- Progesterone
- Estrogen
- Prolactin
- Colostrum
Explanation: Answer reason: This hormone acts on mammary alveolar cells to synthesize milk, and its release is reinforced by infant suckling via neuroendocrine reflexes. Estrogen and progesterone mainly support breast development during pregnancy and, at high levels, inhibit full milk secretion until they fall postpartum. Colostrum is the first milk produced, not a hormone, so it cannot be the endocrine driver of milk synthesis.
The hyper secretion of growth hormone leads to?
- Cretinism
- Myxedema
- Acromegaly
- Grave's disease
Explanation: Answer reason: This leads to enlargement of hands/feet, coarse facial features, and soft-tissue/organ overgrowth characteristic of acromegaly. In contrast, cretinism and myxedema are due to hypothyroidism (thyroid hormone deficiency), not growth hormone excess. Graves’ disease is hyperthyroidism driven by TSH-receptor–stimulating antibodies, unrelated to primary growth hormone hypersecretion.
Endocrine glands release hormone?
- Directly into tissue
- Directly into the blood
- Directly in the skin
- Through the duct in the body
Explanation: Answer reason: This systemic delivery via blood distinguishes endocrine signaling from local paracrine signaling, which acts primarily on nearby tissue. In contrast, secretion “through a duct” describes exocrine glands (e.g., sweat or salivary glands) that deliver products to epithelial surfaces or lumens. Therefore, the option describing direct release into blood best matches endocrine physiology.
To study of Glands is called ?
- Hepatology
- GastroEnterology
- Endocrinology
- Semenology
Explanation: Answer reason: This field covers hormonal regulation, feedback loops, and disorders such as diabetes mellitus, thyroid disease, and adrenal dysfunction. Hepatology is the study of the liver, and gastroenterology focuses on the digestive tract, so they do not primarily address glandular hormone systems. Therefore, the term that best matches “study of glands” in standard medical terminology is endocrinology.
Which endocrine gland called master gland?
- Thyroid gland
- Pituitary gland
- Thymus gland
- Pancreas
Explanation: Answer reason: The anterior pituitary releases TSH, ACTH, LH/FSH, and others that control thyroid, adrenal cortex, and gonadal hormone production, coordinating broad endocrine function. The thyroid and pancreas primarily secrete end-organ hormones (T3/T4 and insulin/glucagon) rather than regulating most other glands. Although the hypothalamus ultimately controls the pituitary via releasing hormones, the pituitary is classically identified as the master gland in standard physiology and exam questions.
Which hormone is not secreted by pituitary gland?
- GH
- PRH
- FSH
- Oxytocin
Explanation: Answer reason: g., GH, FSH) or from the posterior pituitary (e.g., oxytocin), but hypothalamic releasing hormones are produced by the hypothalamus. Prolactin release is primarily regulated by hypothalamic dopamine inhibition, and the concept of a dedicated “prolactin-releasing hormone” is not a standard pituitary secretion. In contrast, GH and FSH are synthesized and secreted by anterior pituitary cells, and oxytocin is released via the posterior pituitary after being synthesized in the hypothalamus. Therefore, among the listed choices, the one not secreted by the pituitary is the hypothalamic-type releasing factor option.
The effect of anti-diuretic hormone (adh) is ?
- Oliguria
- Anuria
- Decrease urine output
- Increase urine output
Explanation: Answer reason: This physiologic action reduces free-water excretion, so overall urine volume falls. “Oliguria” can be a clinical consequence, but it is less precise because oliguria is a threshold-based finding with many causes. “Anuria” implies near-complete absence of urine and is not the typical direct effect of normal ADH action, while increasing urine output reflects low ADH (e.g., diabetes insipidus).
Male sex hormones are collectively known as?
- Estrogen
- Androgen
- Cortisone
- Somatotrophic
Explanation: Answer reason: Testosterone and dihydrotestosterone are the principal examples, so the collective term that correctly groups them is the one naming that class. Estrogen is primarily categorized as a female sex hormone (though present in males in smaller amounts) and therefore is not the collective term for male sex hormones. Cortisone is a glucocorticoid related to stress and inflammation, and somatotrophic refers to growth hormone activity rather than gonadal sex steroids.
Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced by..?
- Placenta
- Ovary
- Pituitary
- Gonads
Explanation: Answer reason: Its key role is to “rescue” and maintain the maternal corpus luteum so progesterone production continues in early pregnancy until the placenta can produce sufficient steroids. This is why hCG is the hormone detected by pregnancy tests. The pituitary and gonads produce other gonadotropins (FSH/LH) or sex steroids, but they are not the source of hCG in normal pregnancy.
Endocrine system consists of ductless gland which?
- Hormone
- Juices & electrolyte by posterior pituitary
- Enzyme
- Chemical
Explanation: Answer reason: These secretions are hormones that act on distant target organs via specific receptors to regulate homeostasis. Exocrine glands, in contrast, use ducts to deliver enzymes or other secretions to epithelial surfaces, making “enzyme” a common distractor. The posterior pituitary releases hormones (ADH and oxytocin) rather than “juices & electrolyte,” so that option is inaccurate and nonspecific.
Which gland releases melatonin?
- Pituitary gland
- Thyroid gland
- Pineal gland
- Adrenal glands
Explanation: Answer reason: It is synthesized and secreted by the pineal gland, with levels typically rising in darkness and falling with light exposure. The pituitary primarily releases trophic hormones (e.g., TSH, ACTH), the thyroid produces T3/T4 and calcitonin, and the adrenal glands produce cortisol, aldosterone, and catecholamines. Therefore the gland associated with melatonin secretion is the pineal gland.
Master gland of humne body is?
- Hypothalamus
- Thymus gland
- Pituitary gland
- Thyroid gland
Explanation: Answer reason: g., TSH, ACTH, LH/FSH, GH, prolactin) regulate multiple peripheral endocrine glands and key physiologic processes. This centralized hormonal control explains why dysfunction can cause widespread systemic effects. The hypothalamus is the higher-level regulator that controls the pituitary via releasing/inhibiting hormones, but it is not classically labeled the master gland in standard exam terminology. Thymus and thyroid have important but more specialized roles and do not broadly control other endocrine organs.
The nurse is attending to a client with recent, significant weight gain. Which of the following diseases decreases the basal metabolic rate?
- Cancer
- Hypothyroidism
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- Cardiac failure
Explanation: Answer reason: When thyroid hormone levels are low, metabolic activity slows, leading to decreased heat production, reduced caloric utilization, and a tendency toward weight gain. By contrast, cancer and COPD are typically associated with increased catabolic stress and higher energy expenditure or cachexia rather than a reduced BMR. Cardiac failure can cause fluid-related weight gain, but it does not characteristically lower BMR as a primary endocrine-metabolic effect.
Sleep cycle is regulated by?
- Insulin
- Melatonin
- Adrenaline
- Thyroxine
Explanation: Answer reason: It is produced primarily by the pineal gland and signals the body that it is time to sleep, supporting sleep onset and timing. Insulin mainly regulates glucose metabolism, not sleep timing. Adrenaline promotes arousal via sympathetic activation, and thyroxine increases basal metabolic rate; neither serves as the primary physiologic regulator of the sleep cycle.
Urine pregnancy test detects..?
- Glucose
- Calcium
- HCG
- Protein
Explanation: Answer reason: hCG rises early in pregnancy and is filtered into urine, allowing immunoassay-based test strips to identify it. Glucose and protein in urine reflect glycosuria or proteinuria, not pregnancy status. Calcium is not a standard urinary marker used for diagnosing pregnancy.
Morning sickness occurs due to?
- Low BP
- HCG
- Infection
- Fever
Explanation: Answer reason: Higher hCG levels correlate with more nausea/vomiting (e.g., in multiple gestation or molar pregnancy), supporting a causal association. Low blood pressure is not the typical mechanism of pregnancy-related nausea and would more directly cause dizziness or syncope. Infection or fever may cause nausea but would indicate an illness rather than the normal physiologic cause of typical first-trimester morning sickness.
Which condition is characterized by an underactive thyroid gland?
- Hyperthyroidism
- Hypothyroidism
- Hyperglycemia
- Hypertension
Explanation: Answer reason: This causes classic slowing of physiologic processes such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, and bradycardia. The opposite condition is hyperthyroidism, where excess thyroid hormone increases metabolic activity. The other options refer to elevated blood glucose or elevated blood pressure and are not defined by reduced thyroid hormone production.
The effect of anti-diuretic hormone (adh) is?
- Oliguria
- Anuria
- Increase urine output
- Decrease urine output
Explanation: Answer reason: This physiologic action helps maintain plasma osmolality and circulating volume during dehydration or hypovolemia. By contrast, increased urine output is expected when ADH is absent or ineffective (e.g., diabetes insipidus). Oliguria can be a clinical manifestation of ADH effect, but the most direct and general effect tested is reduced urine output.
A client diagnosed with Addison’s disease is admitted to the hospital due to electrolyte imbalances. After labs have been drawn and released, which of the results would the nurse not expect to find in this client?
- Hypoglycemia
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypernatremia
- Hypercortisolemia
Explanation: Answer reason: The sodium loss produces hyponatremia (often with volume depletion), so an elevated sodium level would be unexpected. In contrast, reduced aldosterone decreases potassium excretion, making hyperkalemia a typical finding, and low cortisol can contribute to hypoglycemia. A common distractor is thinking “stress hormones are high,” but cortisol is deficient in Addison’s disease rather than elevated.
A 35 year old male has been an Insulin dependent diabetic for last 5 years and is now unable to urinate. The following is most likely to suspect?
- Atherosclerosis
- Diabetic nephropathy
- Autonomic neuropathy
- Somatic neuropathy
Explanation: Answer reason: In a patient with several years of insulin-dependent diabetes who becomes unable to void, dysfunction of autonomic control is the most direct mechanism. Diabetic nephropathy typically presents with albuminuria and progressive renal insufficiency rather than acute inability to urinate from bladder emptying failure. Somatic neuropathy more commonly causes sensory loss/pain and motor weakness, not isolated urinary retention.
A nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse understands that Type 1 diabetes primarily results from the destruction of which pancreatic cells, and would anticipate which change in hormone levels as a result?
- Destruction of alpha cells leading to decreased glucagon secretion
- Destruction of beta cells leading to decreased insulin secretion
- Destruction of delta cells leading to decreased somatostatin secretion
- Destruction of beta cells leading to increased insulin secretion
Explanation: Answer reason: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic islet beta cells, producing an absolute insulin deficiency. Loss of insulin reduces cellular glucose uptake and increases hepatic glucose output, driving persistent hyperglycemia and ketosis risk. This mechanism directly predicts decreased insulin levels rather than increased insulin. Alpha-cell/glucagon and delta-cell/somatostatin changes are not the primary lesion responsible for Type 1 diabetes onset.
Which of the following biochemical parameters is NOT consistent with consumptive hypothyroidism?
- Low T3
- Low T4
- High TSH
- Low rT3
Explanation: Answer reason: This mechanism leads to low circulating T4 and T3, and the pituitary typically responds with elevated TSH if central regulation is intact. Because more T4 is shunted into the reverse T3 pathway, reverse T3 is expected to be increased rather than decreased. Therefore, a decreased reverse T3 value does not fit the biochemical pattern of thyroid hormone consumption.
Thyroid gland is located in..?
- Head
- Neck
- Chest
- Abdomen
Explanation: Answer reason: Its two lateral lobes and connecting isthmus wrap around the trachea, which clinically explains why thyroid enlargement can cause dysphagia, dyspnea, or hoarseness. This location distinguishes it from head structures (pituitary), thoracic glands (thymus), and abdominal endocrine organs (pancreas, adrenals). Therefore the best choice is the neck based on standard anatomy.
A male client has been diagnosed with panhypopituitarism. Which hormone will be given to the client orally?
- Estrogen
- Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
- Serotonin
- Testosterone
Explanation: Answer reason: Thyroid hormone is reliably replaced with an oral preparation because it is well absorbed and has predictable systemic effects when dosed appropriately. In contrast, physiologic sex-hormone replacement in males is typically provided by transdermal, injectable, or implant routes rather than routine oral formulations. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter rather than a hormone replacement used for pituitary failure.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. The nurse anticipates the client to present with which of the following?
- Exophthalmos
- Renal calculi
- Weight gain
- Weight loss
Explanation: Answer reason: The resulting hypercalcemia increases urinary calcium excretion and promotes calcium stone formation, making nephrolithiasis a classic presentation. Eye findings like exophthalmos are associated with Graves disease (hyperthyroidism), not parathyroid disorders. Weight change is not the most characteristic or specific finding compared with complications from hypercalcemia such as stones, bone pain, and constipation.
The nurse has just admitted a 2-year-old child with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which cardinal sign would support the diagnosis?
- Nausea
- Seizure
- Hyperactivity
- Frequent urination
Explanation: Answer reason: Glucosuria creates an osmotic diuresis, increasing urine volume and frequency (polyuria), which is a classic cardinal sign in children. This fluid loss commonly drives compensatory polydipsia and may contribute to dehydration and weight loss. Nausea can occur in diabetic ketoacidosis but is not a cardinal presenting sign of diabetes itself, and seizures are more suggestive of severe hypo- or hyperglycemia rather than typical initial presentation.
When assessing a neonate for signs of diabetes insipidus, a nurse should recognize which symptom as a sign of this disorder?
- Hyponatremia
- Jaundice
- Polyuria
- Hypochloremia
Explanation: Answer reason: In a neonate, this most directly presents as high urine output with very dilute urine and risk for dehydration and hypernatremia. Hyponatremia is more consistent with excess ADH activity (SIADH) rather than ADH deficiency/resistance. Jaundice and hypochloremia are not characteristic defining findings of diabetes insipidus.
A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypopituitarism. The nurse would observe the client for which of the following?
- Sleep disturbance
- Polyuria
- Polydipsia
- Short stature
Explanation: Answer reason: A key observable finding is growth failure with delayed or short stature compared with peers. Polyuria and polydipsia are more characteristic of diabetes insipidus from posterior pituitary (ADH) deficiency rather than isolated anterior hypopituitarism. Sleep disturbance is nonspecific and not a classic distinguishing assessment finding for hypopituitarism.
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