Triage Practice Test 8
Triage NCLEX Practice Test
Triage is a key topic within the NCLEX test plan, located under Safe and Effective Care Environment → Management of Care → Establishing Priorities → Triage. This section applies acuity-based decision-making to allocate limited resources ethically during emergencies or heavy workloads. Each test contains 50 questions designed to mirror the difficulty and variety of the real exam.
This is the 8th part of the Triage series. To explore all practice tests under this topic, use the “Back to Main Topic” button at the end of the page.
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Triage Practice Test 8
The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse receives a phone call stating a client diagnosed with a head trauma must undergo admission. There are no empty beds. Which client is most stable and eligible for a transfer to the step-down neurological unit?
- A client diagnosed with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and who has a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8.
- A client diagnosed with a cervical spinal injury 3 days ago with halo traction.
- A client diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) and subdural hematoma 1 day ago.
- A client diagnosed with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and a tracheostomy.
Explanation: Answer reason: Triage and bed management prioritize keeping ICU-level care for clients at highest risk of rapid neurologic or airway deterioration. A client 3 days post–cervical spinal injury in halo traction is typically hemodynamically and neurologically more stable once acute swelling and immediate post-injury instability have passed, and ongoing care is focused on immobilization and monitoring that can be managed in a neuro step-down setting. In contrast, increased ICP with a GCS of 8 signals severe brain injury with high risk for herniation and need for intensive neurologic monitoring/airway support. A CVA with a subdural hematoma just 1 day ago is also early and unstable, with significant risk for expanding bleed and worsening mental status requiring ICU resources.
Several patients are taking antipsychotic medications and are having medication side effects. Place the following patients in priority order for additional assessment and appropriate interventions, with 1 being the most critical and 4 being the least?
- A patient who is taking trifluoperazine and has a temperature of 103.6°F (39.8°C) with tachycardia, muscular rigidity, and dysphagia
- A patient who is taking fluphenazine and has dry mouth and dry eyes, urinary hesitancy, constipation, and photosensitivity
- A patient who is taking loxapine and has a protruding tongue with lip smacking and spastic facial distortions
- A patient who is taking clozapine and reports a sore throat, fever, malaise, and flulike symptoms that began about 6 weeks ago after starting the new antipsychotic medication; white blood cell count is 2000/mm3 (2.0 × 109/L)
Explanation: Answer reason: A patient who is taking trifluoperazine and has a temperature of 103.6°F (39.8°C) with tachycardia, muscular rigidity, and dysphagia These findings are classic for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a life-threatening antipsychotic reaction requiring immediate emergency assessment, medication discontinuation, and rapid supportive care (airway/ventilation, cooling, IV fluids) to prevent rhabdomyolysis, renal failure, and cardiovascular collapse. The combination of high fever, severe “lead-pipe” rigidity, autonomic instability (tachycardia), and dysphagia signals imminent airway and systemic risk. By comparison, clozapine-associated agranulocytosis is also dangerous but typically allows rapid protective isolation and urgent provider notification rather than the same immediate physiologic instability. Anticholinergic effects and tardive dyskinesia are important but are generally less immediately life-threatening than NMS.
The nurse in the pediatric clinic is triaging telephone messages. The nurse should call the parent of which child first?
- 2-year-old with bilateral tympanostomy tubes who has a small piece of plastic in the right outer ear
- 4-year-old post adenotonsillectomy who is now reporting ear pain
- 5-year-old strep throat who needs a note to return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics
- 7-year-old 5 days post tonsillectomy who wants to return to soccer practice today
Explanation: Answer reason: Ear pain after adenotonsillectomy can reflect referred throat pain but also can accompany edema, infection, or evolving bleeding risk, so the nurse should screen for airway symptoms, hydration status, and any signs of hemorrhage. A foreign body in the outer ear without respiratory distress is typically nonurgent and can usually wait for a scheduled evaluation. The request for a school note after 24 hours of antibiotics and the question about returning to sports at day 5 are administrative/activity guidance issues and are lower priority than a potential post-op complication.
The nurse has received report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
- Client admitted this morning with acute pyelonephritis whose IV line is infiltrated
- Client scheduled for surgery in 2 hours who has questions about the procedure
- Client who had a colostomy yesterday and now has a leaking colostomy bag
- Client with a total hip replacement 3 days ago who reports no bowel movement in 2 days
Explanation: Answer reason: Acute pyelonephritis often requires prompt parenteral therapy, and loss of a functioning line can quickly delay treatment. The other situations are important but are not immediately threatening: a leaking ostomy appliance is a comfort/skin-integrity issue, questions before surgery can be addressed after immediate physiologic needs are stabilized, and no bowel movement for 2 days post-op is common constipation without signs of obstruction. Restoring reliable IV access and assessing the infiltration site should be prioritized first.
A nurse on a cardiovascular unit has received a morning report stating that all clients were stable overnight with stable vital signs. Which client does the nurse assess first?
- The client who is scheduled for coronary artery bypass graft within one hour
- The client who has hemodialysis in one hour and has scheduled metoprolol due
- The client who had three coronary artery stents placed in the cath lab 24 hours ago
- The client who was admitted for non-ST elevation myocardial infarction eight hours ago
Explanation: Answer reason: At 8 hours after admission, this client is still in a high-risk window for recurrent chest pain, evolving ECG changes, and complications from anticoagulants/antiplatelets, so early reassessment is the safest triage choice. Pre-op CABG within an hour is important but typically follows a structured preoperative checklist and monitoring while awaiting transport, and sudden deterioration is less likely than with an active MI. A client 24 hours post-stent is farther from the highest-risk immediate post-procedure period, and dialysis/holding a beta-blocker can be addressed after the highest-acuity cardiac assessment.
The nurse is receiving handoff of care report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- Client with chronic hypercalcemia who underwent a parathyroidectomy 1 hour ago and has a sore throat and incisional pain
- Client with Cushing syndrome who is scheduled for an adrenalectomy and has bruises and petechiae on the skin
- Client with hyperthyroidism who underwent a thyroidectomy 2 hours ago and is shivering and reporting chills
- Client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has a foot ulcer and is reporting feeling flushed and thirsty
Explanation: Answer reason: New shivering and chills shortly after thyroid surgery can signal acute hypermetabolic decompensation and/or early systemic infection, both of which can quickly destabilize vital signs and oxygenation. This client needs immediate assessment of temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, mental status, and airway/neck for swelling or bleeding to determine if emergency interventions are needed. In contrast, expected incisional pain and mild sore throat 1 hour after parathyroidectomy are common postoperative findings without immediate red-flag features.
The nurse has been made aware that the following 4 clients require assistance. The nurse should first assist the client who had?
- An abdominal hysterectomy 5 hours ago and is reporting severe incisional pain
- A transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) yesterday and whose catheter has become disconnected
- A lumbar laminectomy 2 days ago and is complaining that the feet are still numb
- A spinal cord injury at T2 two weeks ago and is currently diaphoretic and nauseated
Explanation: Answer reason: This condition can rapidly progress to severe hypertension, stroke, seizures, or dysrhythmias unless the trigger is removed and blood pressure is treated promptly. The other situations are important but more stable: postoperative pain after hysterectomy is expected, numb feet 2 days post-laminectomy is concerning but typically not as immediately life-threatening, and a disconnected TURP catheter requires correction to maintain irrigation/drainage but is less urgent than a potential autonomic crisis. Therefore, this client must be assessed and managed first with immediate vital signs/BP evaluation and rapid intervention.
The nurse in the emergency department (ED) is assessing a client with multiple injuries that occurred as a result of a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following nursing observations should receive highest priority?
- Avulsion injury of the left index finger
- Deep laceration on the right forearm with blood oozing from the surface
- Hematoma on left side of the neck
- Open fracture of right tibia and fibula
Explanation: Answer reason: A neck hematoma can rapidly expand and compress the airway or indicate major vascular injury (eg, carotid or jugular), making sudden deterioration possible. The other findings represent significant extremity injuries or superficial bleeding but are less likely to cause abrupt airway obstruction in the first moments of assessment. Therefore this observation requires the most urgent evaluation and airway preparedness.
The nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient should the nurse see first?
- A patient who is in a sinus rhythm, rate 98, after having electrical cardioversion 2 hours ago
- A patient with new onset atrial fibrillation, rate 88, who has a first dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due
- A patient with second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type 1, rate 60, who is dizzy when ambulating
- A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired two times today who has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due
Explanation: Answer reason: This patient may be unstable or deteriorating and needs prompt evaluation of rhythm, hemodynamics, oxygenation, and potential reversible causes (e.g., ischemia, electrolyte abnormalities), as well as timely antiarrhythmic therapy. Amiodarone is commonly used to suppress recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias and delaying it increases risk of further shocks and cardiac arrest. By comparison, the post-cardioversion patient is currently in sinus rhythm, the controlled-rate new AF patient awaiting warfarin is not an acute threat, and the type I second-degree AV block with dizziness is concerning but typically less immediately lethal than recurrent ICD firing.
Which client should the postpartum nurse assess first after receiving the a.m. shift report?
- The client who is complaining of perineal pain when urinating.
- The client who saturated multiple peri-pads during the night.
- The client who is refusing to have the newborn in the room.
- The client who is crying because the baby will not nurse.
Explanation: Answer reason: Postpartum assessment priorities follow ABCs and immediate threats, with hemorrhage being a leading cause of maternal morbidity and mortality. Soaking multiple peri-pads suggests heavy lochia and possible uterine atony or retained products, requiring urgent evaluation of fundal tone, vitals, and ongoing blood loss. This finding can rapidly progress to hypovolemic shock, making it higher priority than expected discomforts or feeding difficulties. Pain with urination may indicate irritation or UTI, and emotional/attachment or breastfeeding concerns need support, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as suspected hemorrhage.
The following clients arrive for their appointments at the diabetic clinic. Who should the nurse see first?
- A type 1 diabetes client who feels weak but is eating a simple-carb snack.
- A type 1 diabetes client who needs a dressing change for his foot ulcer.
- A type 2 diabetes client who presents with a headache and a fruity odor on his breath.
- A type 2 diabetes client who will receive education about her diet.
Explanation: Answer reason: Fruity (acetone) breath with symptoms such as headache suggests ketosis with metabolic acidosis, a potentially life-threatening emergency requiring rapid assessment and intervention. This presentation is most consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis (or impending DKA), which can progress to dehydration, electrolyte derangements (notably potassium shifts), and altered mental status. The other clients describe non-urgent or already-addressed concerns (e.g., mild hypoglycemia being treated with carbohydrates, routine wound care, and diet teaching). Prioritizing the client with signs of acute metabolic decompensation follows triage principles of addressing the most unstable, high-risk condition first.
The nurse receives handoff of care report on four clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
- Client with atrial fibrillation who reports feeling palpitations and has an irregular pulse of 122/min
- Client with liver cirrhosis who reports bleeding from an IV insertion site and has a platelet count of 48,000 mm³ (48 × 10⁹/L)
- Client with pericarditis whose blood pressure has decreased from 122/70 mm Hg to 98/68 mm Hg over the past hour
- Client with pneumonia whose white blood cell count has increased from 14,000 mm³ (14 × 10⁹/L) 8 hours ago to 30,000 mm³ (30 × 10⁹/L)
Explanation: Answer reason: A new, progressive drop in blood pressure in a client with pericarditis raises concern for evolving cardiac tamponade, which can rapidly impair ventricular filling and cardiac output. This trend requires immediate bedside evaluation for additional tamponade findings (eg, tachycardia, JVD, muffled heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus) and urgent escalation for interventions. The atrial fibrillation with a rate of 122/min and the pneumonia leukocytosis indicate instability/infection but are generally less immediately life-threatening than a potential obstructive shock process.
The nurse on the neurotrauma unit receives report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- Client in neurogenic shock from a spinal cord injury, with pulse of 56/min, blood pressure of 120/60 mm Hg, and warm and pink skin
- Client with a concussion from closed-head injury due to a fall, Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, headache, and memory loss
- Client with a subdural hematoma, pulse of 48/min, blood pressure of 190/90 mm Hg, and a pupil that reacts slowly to light
- Client with central diabetes insipidus from a head injury, hypernatremia, and urine output of 210 mL/hr
Explanation: Answer reason: A subdural hematoma can expand or worsen edema, so new focal signs and vital-sign changes are treated as unstable until proven otherwise. The concussion client has a normal GCS and expected post-concussive symptoms, making them lower priority. Central diabetes insipidus with high urine output and hypernatremia is serious but typically allows brief time for targeted labs/therapy compared with signs of acute neurologic deterioration.
The nurse employed in an emergency department is assigned to triage clients coming to the emergency department for treatment on the evening shift. The nurse should assign priority to which client?
- A client complaining of muscle aches, a headache, and history of seizures
- A client who twisted her ankle when rollerblading and is requesting medication for pain
- A client with a minor laceration on the index finger sustained while cutting an eggplant
- A client with chest pain who states that he just ate pizza that was made with a very spicy sauce
Explanation: Answer reason: Chest pain can represent acute coronary syndrome and requires rapid assessment, vital signs, ECG, and timely intervention even if a benign explanation like reflux seems plausible. The other presentations (ankle sprain pain request, minor finger laceration) are lower acuity and typically stable. A headache with myalgias and a seizure history is concerning but does not indicate an active airway/breathing/circulation compromise as clearly as current chest pain, so it is not the top priority in triage without signs of an ongoing seizure or instability.
A nurse reports for duty and receives report on her clients for the day. After report is received which client should the nurse see first?
- The client with a DVT complaining of SOB after walking down the hall
- The client with stable angina complaining of SOB after walking down the hall
- The client with COPD complaining of SOB after walking down the hall
- The client who is morbidly obese complaining of SOB after walking down the hall
Explanation: Answer reason: Exertional dyspnea that newly appears after ambulation suggests an acute change in cardiopulmonary status rather than a chronic baseline symptom. Stable angina, COPD, and morbid obesity can cause exertional dyspnea, but these are generally expected patterns unless accompanied by acute instability signs. Prioritizing this client follows triage principles to see the highest risk for sudden deterioration first.
The night nurse on a medical floor has just received report. On which of the following clients should the nurse make rounds FIRST?
- The 52-year-old female with pancreatitis who is experiencing abdominal pain rated 4 on a 1–10 scale
- The 70-year-old male who underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) yesterday and is having a burning sensation during urination
- The 78-year-old male with diagnosis of left-sided heart failure who has developed a new nonproductive cough and is restless
- The 37-year-old female diagnosed with cellulitis of the left leg yesterday who is experiencing redness and warmth of the left leg
Explanation: Answer reason: A new cough plus agitation/restlessness can be an early sign of declining oxygenation and impending respiratory distress, requiring prompt assessment of lung sounds, SpO2, and need for oxygen/diuretics. The other clients have expected or non-urgent findings (mild pancreatitis pain, dysuria after TURP often due to irritation, and localized cellulitis inflammation) that are less likely to decompensate quickly. Prioritizing the highest risk for rapid deterioration follows ABCs and acute change-from-baseline triage principles.
After receiving a change-of-shift report about these patients, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A 31-year-old who has iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome with a capillary blood glucose level of 244 mg/dl
- A 53-year-old who has Addison's disease and is due for a scheduled dose of hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef)
- A 22-year-old admitted with SIADH who has a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L
- A 70-year-old who recently started levothyroxine (Synthroid) to treat hypothyroidism and has an irregular pulse of 134
Explanation: Answer reason: Excess thyroid hormone effect from levothyroxine (especially in older adults) can precipitate atrial fibrillation or other dangerous dysrhythmias, making immediate assessment of rhythm, blood pressure, symptoms, and need for urgent intervention the priority. A glucose of 244 mg/dL is elevated but not typically an immediate threat without symptoms of DKA/HHS. Mild hyponatremia in SIADH (130 mEq/L) and a scheduled steroid dose in stable Addison’s disease are important but generally less immediately life-threatening than an irregular pulse at 134.
The nurse in the pediatric clinic is triaging telephone messages. The nurse should call the parent of which child first?
- 2-year-old with bilateral tympanostomy tubes who has a small piece of plastic in the right outer ear
- 4-year-old post adenotonsillectomy who is now reporting ear pain
- 6-year-old with strep throat who needs a note to return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics
- 7-year-old 5 days post tonsillectomy who wants to return to soccer practice today
Explanation: Answer reason: In triage, postoperative symptoms take priority over administrative requests or stable, minor problems because they can deteriorate quickly at home. A small plastic piece in the outer ear is typically non-urgent unless there is canal trauma, severe pain, or the object is deep/caustic. Return-to-school paperwork and return-to-sports questions are lowest acuity and can safely wait after urgent clinical concerns are addressed.
A nurse hears various alarms sounding from different client rooms. Which alarm will the nurse address first?
- Distal occlusion alarm on an infusion pump infusing heparin
- Low-pressure limit alarm on a ventilator
- Monitor alarm for a low respiratory rate of 11 breaths/min
- Occlusion alarm on a continuous enteral feeding pump
Explanation: Answer reason: This is an ABCs/airway-breathing emergency and must be assessed and corrected immediately (check patient first, then tubing/connections). A respiratory rate of 11/min can be normal for some adults and is less urgent than a potential ventilator disconnection. Occlusion alarms on heparin or enteral feeding pumps indicate interrupted therapy/flow but typically do not create the same immediate life-threatening risk as loss of ventilation.
The spouse brings a client to the emergency department due to erratic behavior and expressions of despair. The emergency department is extremely busy with many clients. When the triage nurse asks if the client feels suicidal now, the client shrugs the shoulders. What initial action should the triage nurse take?
- Ask the client to make a verbal contract to not harm self
- Document that the client is not currently suicidal
- Place the client in an inside hallway with one-on-one observation
- Return the client to the waiting room with the spouse
Explanation: Answer reason: In a busy ED, the priority is to prevent self-harm by ensuring continuous observation in a controlled, visible area while further assessment is performed. Safety contracts are not reliable and do not reduce suicide risk in an acute setting. Sending the client back to the waiting room or documenting “not suicidal” is unsafe because the client has not clearly denied intent and is demonstrating concerning behavior and despair.
The nurse has become aware of the following client situations. The nurse should first assess the client?
- Who had a right pneumonectomy 24 hours ago and is in the high-Fowler's position while lying on the right side
- With chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is using pursed-lip breathing and reporting hemoptysis
- Who had a wedge resection of the left lung 24 hours ago and is sitting in the high-Fowler's position
- With heart failure who has a productive cough and is restless
Explanation: Answer reason: Pursed-lip breathing may be a baseline COPD coping strategy, but new bleeding shifts this client into a potentially unstable status needing prompt evaluation of oxygenation, work of breathing, vital signs, and amount of blood. By comparison, the post-lung surgery positioning issues are important but are less immediately life-threatening if the client is otherwise stable, and the wedge resection client described is appropriately positioned. The heart failure client’s restlessness could indicate hypoxia, but hemoptysis is a more specific red-flag finding for sudden deterioration that should be assessed first.
The nurse has received report on 4 pediatric clients on a telemetry unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- Adolescent client with coarctation of the aorta and diminished femoral pulses
- Infant client with ventricular septal defect with reported grunting during feeding
- Newborn client with patent ductus arteriosus and a loud machinery-like systolic murmur
- Preschool client with tetralogy of Fallot who has finger clubbing and irritability
Explanation: Answer reason: With a VSD, pulmonary overcirculation can worsen during feeding and trigger acute respiratory distress and fatigue, requiring immediate assessment of respiratory status, oxygenation, and signs of heart failure. The other findings are more consistent with chronic or expected manifestations (diminished femoral pulses in coarctation, classic PDA murmur, finger clubbing in long-standing cyanotic disease) without an acute change described. In triage, the newest or most unstable respiratory symptom takes precedence over stable baseline cardiovascular findings.
The nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client needs to be seen first?
- 18-year-old female with fever, suprapubic pain, and dysuria
- 21-year-old male with diffuse abdominal pain and a rigid abdomen
- 64-year-old male with a pulsatile mass in the periumbilical area and back pain
- 75-year-old with nausea, fever, and left lower quadrant pain
Explanation: Answer reason: Triage prioritizes conditions with the highest risk of rapid deterioration and death over potentially serious but less immediately fatal problems. This client needs emergent assessment, hemodynamic monitoring, large-bore IV access, and rapid surgical/vascular evaluation. By comparison, symptoms consistent with UTI or diverticulitis typically allow a brief delay for evaluation, and even peritonitis signs require urgent care but are generally less instantly fatal than a suspected rupturing aneurysm.
A nurse working in the newborn nursery receives report on a group of newborn clients. Which client does the nurse assess first?
- 4 hours of age, 9 lb 15 oz at birth, whose glucometer reading was 45 mg/dL at 3 hours of age.
- 26 hours of age, born at 36 weeks' gestation, 3 hours post-circumcision, needs to breastfeed
- 3 hours of age, 7 lb 1 oz at birth, with a heart rate of 158 beats/min. and a respiratory rate of 56 breaths/min.
- 2 hours of age, born at 37 weeks' gestation, temperature of 97.6° F (36.44° C) after bath 30 minutes ago
Explanation: Answer reason: Neonatal hypoglycemia is an urgent physiologic risk because the newborn brain relies on glucose and low levels can rapidly progress to jitteriness, lethargy, seizures, and apnea if not recognized and treated. A large-for-gestational-age infant is at higher risk for hypoglycemia (often related to hyperinsulinemia), and a borderline/low point-of-care glucose requires prompt reassessment and intervention (feeding and repeat glucose, escalation if symptomatic or persistently low). The other findings are within expected transitional ranges for many newborns: HR 158 and RR 56 are normal, and a temperature of 97.6°F shortly after a bath is mildly low but typically addressed with warming measures and reassessment after immediate glucose concerns are ruled out. Post-circumcision feeding needs are important, but they are not as time-critical as a potentially deteriorating glucose level in a high-risk infant.
The nurse in the outpatient clinic is reviewing phone messages. Which client should the nurse call back first?
- Client post kidney transplant who reports white spots in the oral cavity
- Client with a history of mitral valve regurgitation who reports fatigue
- Client with erythema and purulent drainage at the site of a spider bite
- Client with hypertension who reports a cold and nasal congestion
Explanation: Answer reason: White oral plaques are consistent with opportunistic oral candidiasis, which can extend to esophagitis, impair intake, and signal broader immune compromise requiring prompt evaluation and treatment/medication adjustment. In contrast, fatigue in chronic valve disease is typically subacute unless accompanied by red-flag cardiopulmonary symptoms, and an inflamed draining bite site usually needs timely care but is less immediately high-risk than infection in a transplant recipient. Cold/nasal congestion in a client with hypertension is generally the lowest priority and can often be managed with education about safe OTC choices.
The registered nurse is triaging pediatric clients in the emergency department. Which client is a priority for diagnostic testing and definitive care?
- 4-year-old with right-sided abdominal mass reporting fatigue
- 5-year-old with chronic constipation reporting abdominal pain and no bowel movement for 2 days
- 10-year-old with sickle cell anemia reporting generalized pain of "10" and brownish urine
- 13-year-old with type 1 diabetes reporting nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain
Explanation: Answer reason: These symptoms in a child with type 1 diabetes are classic red flags for diabetic ketoacidosis, a time-sensitive endocrine emergency requiring immediate labs (glucose, ketones, electrolytes, venous blood gas) and definitive treatment with IV fluids, insulin, and close monitoring. DKA can rapidly progress to severe dehydration, electrolyte derangements (especially potassium shifts), shock, and cerebral edema if care is delayed. While severe sickle cell pain needs prompt analgesia and evaluation, the presentation given does not signal an immediately life-threatening instability as strongly as suspected DKA. Constipation and an abdominal mass are concerning but are typically less acute than a potential metabolic crisis requiring emergent stabilization and diagnostics.
A triage nurse is in an emergency department when several hundred clients who were injured in a train collision arrive at the facility for treatment. The nurse should determine that which of the following clients requires immediate treatment?
- A client who has neck pain and was transported to the facility on a backboard
- A client who has epigastric and left-arm pain and is diaphoretic
- A client who has nasal and orbital ecchymosis and a respiratory rate of 16/min
- A client who has abdominal pain and is 2 months pregnant
Explanation: Answer reason: Epigastric discomfort with radiation to the left arm plus diaphoresis is a classic high-risk presentation of myocardial ischemia that can rapidly deteriorate into lethal dysrhythmias or cardiogenic shock without prompt evaluation and treatment. This client requires immediate ECG, oxygenation/monitoring, IV access, and time-sensitive therapies. In contrast, stable respirations with facial ecchymosis or isolated neck pain on immobilization suggests potential injury but not an immediately decompensating ABC problem in the absence of distress or neurologic compromise. Pregnancy with abdominal pain is concerning, but at 2 months gestation the uterus is still protected in the pelvis and the presentation is less immediately predictive of sudden collapse than active ischemia signs.
The nurse has received the following information about assigned clients who have had surgery within the past 8 hours. The nurse should first assess the client?
- With diabetes mellitus (type 1) who had debridement of a foot ulcer, is reporting feeling thirsty and has a blood glucose level of 160 mg/dL (8.8 mmol/L)
- Who had a pulmonary lobectomy, has tidaling in the water seal chamber of the closed-chest drainage system and has respirations of 20
- Who had transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), has pink-tinged urine and has a blood pressure of 116/70 mm Hg
- With hyperthyroidism who had an inguinal hernia repair, is reporting feeling hot and has a pulse of 110
Explanation: Answer reason: Feeling hot with tachycardia shortly after surgery is an early warning pattern that warrants immediate assessment to identify fever, dysrhythmias, hypertension, and evolving decompensation. The lobectomy finding of tidaling with a respiratory rate of 20 is expected with a functioning chest tube and does not indicate urgent deterioration. Pink-tinged urine after TURP and mild thirst with a glucose of 160 mg/dL are common/less emergent postoperative findings compared with potential thyroid storm.
The nurse provides care for clients in the outpatient clinic and receives four phone calls. Which call does the nurse return first?
- A client reports a headache unrelieved by extra-strength acetaminophen doses every 4 hours for 2 days.
- A client reports ankle pain, swelling, and warmth. The client states there is no injury to the ankle.
- The parent of a toddler calls to report that their child has a rash and sore throat.
- The parent of a toddler calls to report that their child swallowed a nickel.
Explanation: Answer reason: Airway/breathing threats and time-sensitive ingestion risks are triaged first because a foreign body can obstruct the airway or lodge in the esophagus and rapidly deteriorate. A swallowed coin in a toddler requires immediate assessment for choking, drooling, stridor, respiratory distress, and prompt referral for urgent evaluation/imaging as indicated. The ankle swelling/warmth without injury could suggest DVT or infection and is concerning but is typically less immediately life-threatening than a potential airway-compromising ingestion. The headache and the rash with sore throat are important but generally allow for later follow-up unless additional red-flag symptoms are present.
A nurse working on a medical nursing unit during an external disaster is called to assist with care for clients coming into the hospital emergency department. Using principles of triage, the nurse initiates immediate care for a client with which of the following injuries?
- Bright red bleeding from a neck wound
- Penetrating abdominal injury
- Fractured tibia
- Open massive head injury in deep coma
Explanation: Answer reason: Bright red bleeding from a neck wound suggests arterial bleeding that can lead to exsanguination and loss of airway integrity within minutes, requiring instant hemorrhage control and airway management. A penetrating abdominal injury is serious but may be temporized if there is no immediate airway compromise or massive external bleeding. A fractured tibia is typically delayed, and an open massive head injury with deep coma is often categorized as expectant when resources are limited because the likelihood of survival is low.
The psychiatric inpatient unit has four new admissions. Which client does the nurse see first?
- A salesperson diagnosed with depression after the baby was born with Down syndrome and the spouse threatened to file for divorce.
- A police officer with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and who was admitted with agoraphobia after two of his co-officers were killed.
- A computer programmer admitted with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder and who has extensive debt and just filed for bankruptcy.
- A college student admitted for depression and anxiety after a sibling committed suicide and a parent was recently diagnosed with lung cancer.
Explanation: Answer reason: In psychiatric triage, the nurse prioritizes clients with the highest immediate safety risk, especially potential self-harm. Recent exposure to suicide in a close family member substantially increases suicide risk due to grief, contagion effects, and heightened access/ideation in vulnerable periods. Concurrent major stressors and depressive symptoms further elevate risk for acute deterioration, warranting first assessment for suicidal ideation, plan, means, and level of supervision needed. The other clients describe significant stress, anxiety, or PTSD features but do not include this strong, time-sensitive suicide-risk indicator.
After receiving report, which patient admitted to the emergency department should the nurse assess first?
- 67-year-old who has a gangrenous left foot ulcer with a weak pedal pulse
- 58-year-old who is taking anticoagulants for atrial fibrillation and has black stools
- 50-year-old who is complaining of sudden "sharp" and "worst ever" upper back pain
- 39-year-old who has right calf tenderness, redness, and swelling after a long plane ride
Explanation: Answer reason: In ED triage, patients with potential airway/breathing/circulation collapse and time-sensitive catastrophic diagnoses are assessed first because delays markedly increase mortality. Black stools on anticoagulants indicate probable GI bleeding and requires urgent evaluation, but it is often less immediately fatal than suspected aortic catastrophe unless there are signs of hemodynamic instability. Calf pain after a long flight suggests DVT and needs prompt treatment to prevent PE, but it is typically not as immediately unstable as suspected dissection; the gangrenous ulcer is serious but usually a slower-evolving threat unless septic or acutely ischemic.
The nurse receives the following client set: 50 year old male with Chest pain, 13 year old with asthma attack, 2 month old that is fussy and a 90 year old female with cyclical vomiting. Which client should the nurse see first?
- 13 year old with asthma attack
- 90 year old female with cyclical vomiting
- 2 month old that is fussy
- 50 year old male with Chest pain
Explanation: Answer reason: An acute asthma attack can progress quickly to severe bronchospasm, fatigue, and impending respiratory failure, making immediate assessment and intervention critical. Cyclical vomiting and fussiness may reflect discomfort or dehydration risk but are typically less immediately life-threatening than compromised ventilation. Chest pain is high priority, but without additional cues of instability (e.g., diaphoresis, hypotension, respiratory distress), the actively compromised breathing scenario is the most urgent to assess first.
The nurse has just received a change-of-shift report about these clients on the coronary step-down unit. Which one will the nurse assess first?
- A 26-year-old client with heart failure caused by congenital mitral stenosis who is scheduled for balloon valvuloplasty later today
- A 45-year-old client with constrictive cardiomyopathy who developed acute dyspnea and agitation about 1 hour before the shift change
- A 56-year-old client who underwent coronary angioplasty and stent placement yesterday and has reported occasional chest pain since the procedure
- A 77-year-old client who was transferred from the intensive care unit 2 days ago after coronary artery bypass grafting and has a temperature of 100.6°F (38.1°C)
Explanation: Answer reason: Constrictive cardiomyopathy limits ventricular filling; sudden symptoms may reflect worsening low cardiac output, pulmonary congestion, or another time-sensitive deterioration. By contrast, a scheduled valvuloplasty is planned care without acute instability, and a low-grade fever 2 days post-CABG is commonly monitored but is not as immediately life-threatening. Occasional post-stent chest pain warrants prompt evaluation, but the sudden onset dyspnea with agitation is the most urgent indicator of impending compromise.
A nurse is short-staffed because two people did not show up for work. Of the following four patients, which one would the nurse care for first?
- (a) A pt just admitted with acute abdominal pain and possible cholecystisis
- (b) A pt with nephritic syndrome with increasing edema; hourly urine and vital signs.
- (c) A confused pt yelling because he is in soft restraints and cannot get out of bed.
- (d) A head injury-patient with an IV who was just admitted to the unit.
Explanation: Answer reason: Initial triage prioritizes threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and conditions with high risk of rapid neurologic deterioration. A newly admitted head-injury patient requires immediate baseline neuro assessment (LOC, pupils, motor response), evaluation for rising ICP, and confirmation that IV access/fluids/meds are correctly ordered and running, because deterioration can be sudden and irreversible. The abdominal pain/possible cholecystitis and nephritic syndrome with edema are important but are typically less immediately life-threatening if currently stable and already being monitored. The confused restrained patient needs prompt safety checks and reassessment, but without evidence of airway/respiratory compromise or acute neurologic injury, this is a lower priority than a new head trauma admission.
The nurse has received a change of shift report on clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A client with COPD with a PaO2 of 56 mm Hg who is being discharged home on oxygen
- A client with asthma with respirations of 36 breaths/min whose wheezing has diminished
- A client with asthma who has a heart rate of 90 bpm and whose beta-blocker is scheduled to be administered now
- A client who is scheduled for an angiogram now and is ready to be transported
Explanation: Answer reason: Severe tachypnea plus “diminished wheezing” can indicate markedly reduced airflow (“silent chest”) as bronchospasm worsens and fatigue develops, which is more dangerous than audible wheezing. This client needs immediate assessment for work of breathing, oxygenation, mental status changes, and rapid escalation to bronchodilators, steroids, oxygen, and possible ventilatory support. By comparison, a stable COPD patient being discharged on oxygen and a ready-for-transport angiogram patient are not as immediately life-threatening in the moment.
The home-health nurse is assigned to the following clients who live within 3 miles (4.8 km) of one another. The nurse should first see the?
- 18-month-old client with bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 1.5 L/min and has vomited 4 times in the past 24 hours
- 4-year-old client with cerebral palsy who is receiving continuous tube feedings at 60 mL/hr and has a temperature of 100.8° F (38.2° C)
- 6-year-old client with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) who has a white blood cell (WBC) count of 3,000/cu mm (3 × 10^9/L) and ulcerated lesions in the mouth
- 10-year-old client with nephrotic syndrome who has 2+ proteinuria and periorbital edema
Explanation: Answer reason: 4-year-old client with cerebral palsy who is receiving continuous tube feedings at 60 mL/hr and has a temperature of 100.8° F (38.2° C) Prioritization in home care uses ABCs and risk of rapid deterioration, with special attention to aspiration and sepsis risk. Fever in a child receiving continuous enteral feeds suggests possible aspiration pneumonia, feeding intolerance, or other infection that can quickly compromise airway and breathing, requiring prompt assessment and potential holding feeds. The BPD client’s vomiting is concerning for dehydration/aspiration but is not accompanied by new respiratory distress data and is lower acuity than an active febrile child on tube feeds. The ALL client is leukopenic with mucositis but has no fever given (infection is possible yet not demonstrated as urgent in the stem), and the nephrotic syndrome findings are expected/ongoing unless severe respiratory compromise or infection signs are present.
A nurse is assigned to multiple clients. Which client should the nurse reassess as a priority after administering IV morphine for pain relief?
- 67-year-old with pancreatitis admitted for acute pain
- 30-year-old with pneumonia reporting sharp right side chest pain on deep inspiration
- 45-year-old who is 1-day postoperative gastric surgery reporting pain at the incision site
- 65-year-old with obstructive sleep apnea reporting pain at the fracture surgery site.
Explanation: Answer reason: IV morphine can cause dose-dependent respiratory depression, and patients with obstructive sleep apnea have reduced baseline airway patency and higher sensitivity to opioid-induced hypoventilation. Prioritization after opioid administration focuses on airway and breathing risks (RR, depth, sedation level, and SpO2), making this client highest risk for rapid deterioration. The other clients still require reassessment for pain control and adverse effects, but they do not carry the same immediate, predictable vulnerability to opioid-related ventilatory compromise. Early recognition of oversedation and hypoventilation in this high-risk client prevents respiratory arrest and the need for emergency reversal.
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