Question 1

Which sociological perspective focuses on symbols and meanings in daily interactions?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This perspective is a micro-level approach that explains social life by examining how people create and interpret meanings through symbols (e.g., language, gestures) during everyday interactions. It emphasizes how shared meanings are developed, negotiated, and changed through communication. In contrast, structural functionalism and conflict theory are broader macro-level frameworks, and feminist theory primarily analyzes gender and power relations rather than the general process of meaning-making in routine interactions.
Category reason: This question tests foundational social/behavioral science concepts (sociological perspectives) commonly included in nursing fundamentals and psychosocial foundations rather than a specific patient-care action, making it NursingScience under Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 2

Venturi meter is used for measuring?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A Venturi meter applies Bernoulli’s principle: as fluid (or gas) passes through a constricted section, velocity increases and pressure decreases. By measuring the pressure difference between sections, the flow rate/velocity can be calculated. In community health/environmental contexts, it is used for measuring air flow/velocity in ventilation or airflow systems rather than filtration bed strength or chlorination dosing.
Category reason: This item tests a foundational measurement/instrumentation concept (Venturi meter and what it measures) rather than a nursing care decision, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 3

What is the recommended compression rate for adult CPR?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: High-quality adult CPR per current AHA guidelines targets a chest compression rate of 100–120/min to optimize coronary and cerebral perfusion. Rates slower than this can reduce forward blood flow, while faster rates may compromise compression depth and allow inadequate chest recoil. Maintaining full recoil and minimizing interruptions are necessary to pair the correct rate with effective perfusion.
Category reason: This question tests foundational CPR guideline knowledge (a core basic life support concept) rather than a patient-specific nursing judgment scenario, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 4

A newly licensed asks a nursing recruiter for a description of nursing practice in the psychiatric setting. What is the nurse recruiter's best response?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Psychiatric-mental health nursing includes independent, specialized roles such as therapeutic communication, milieu management, patient education, safety assessment, and implementing the nursing process within interdisciplinary care. Describing nursing as merely “supportive” understates professional autonomy and scope of practice. A multidisciplinary team does not remove the need for clear role definitions; it requires them to coordinate safe, effective care. While institutions have policies, professional standards and nursing scope (not just facility definitions) differentiate nursing practice from other mental health disciplines.
Category reason: This item tests foundational understanding of the professional role and scope of psychiatric-mental health nursing rather than asking for a specific patient-care action or prioritization decision, so it best fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 5

A nursing educator is explaining how the best clinical practices are determined. Which statement best explains the purpose of evidence-based practice?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Evidence-based practice integrates the best available evidence with clinical expertise and patient preferences to guide decisions. Its core purpose is to support clinical decision-making with a rational, defensible basis for chosen interventions rather than tradition or habit. While research is a key component, evidence can also include clinical expertise and patient values, so it is not a guarantee that care is solely research-based. It also does not inherently ensure holistic care or fully prevent errors, though it can contribute to better outcomes and safety.
Category reason: This item tests the foundational definition and purpose of evidence-based practice rather than a specific bedside intervention or prioritization decision, which aligns with Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 6

What does the “I” indicate in a “PICO” question?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: PICO is an evidence-based practice framework used to build focused clinical questions: Patient/Problem, Intervention, Comparison, and Outcome. The “I” specifically represents the treatment, exposure, or approach being evaluated. This helps guide literature searching and appraisal by clearly defining what is being tested against a comparator or usual care.
Category reason: This item tests knowledge of the PICO framework used in evidence-based practice question formulation, which is a foundational nursing research/EBP concept rather than a bedside clinical intervention scenario.

Question 7

Which needle is used for IM injection in adults?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: IM injections in adults typically require a needle gauge that allows reliable flow of medication through deeper muscle tissue while minimizing tissue trauma. Standard adult IM gauge recommendations are commonly in the 21–23G range, with length selected based on site and body habitus. 16G is excessively large and mainly used for rapid fluid/blood access, while 25G and 27G are generally too fine for most adult IM injections and are more typical for subcutaneous or intradermal injections depending on context.
Category reason: This item tests foundational equipment knowledge (appropriate needle gauge selection) rather than a patient-specific nursing judgment scenario, so it best fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 8

In planning care for a 6 month-old infant, what must the nurse provide to assist in the development of trust?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Erikson’s stage for infancy is trust vs. mistrust, and trust develops when caregivers consistently meet the infant’s needs in a predictable way. This reliability creates a sense of safety and stability, which is the core of psychological trust formation at this age. While food, warmth, and comfort are important needs, the unifying concept that best represents consistent, dependable care leading to trust is a sense of security.
Category reason: This question tests foundational developmental theory (Erikson’s psychosocial development) rather than a specific nursing intervention in a clinical scenario, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 9

A 66-year-old hospitalized patient is anxious about how the physician will be paid now that he is on Medicare Parts A and B, instead of his previous privately funded insurance plan. Who should the nurse explain is the payor to the physician in this plan?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Medicare Part A primarily covers inpatient hospital services, while Part B covers outpatient/medical services including physician professional fees. In a hospitalization, the hospital facility charges are generally paid under Part A, but the physician’s services are billed separately under Part B. The prior private insurance is no longer the primary payer once the patient is enrolled in Medicare for this coverage. Unless there is supplemental insurance affecting cost-sharing, the physician is paid through Part B for covered services rather than directly by the patient/family.
Category reason: This item tests understanding of Medicare coverage components and who pays for physician services, which is a foundational health-care financing concept rather than a patient-care intervention decision.

Question 10

When the food is directly given in the veins, it is called ______ nutrition.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Nutrition delivered directly into the bloodstream bypasses the gastrointestinal tract, which defines parenteral nutrition. Enteral nutrition uses the GI tract (oral or tube feeding), so it is not correct here. “Intravenous” describes the route of administration (in a vein) rather than the nutrition category, and “saline” is a fluid, not a type of nutrition.
Category reason: This is a terminology/foundational concept question distinguishing types of nutritional support (enteral vs parenteral) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization scenario.

Question 11

Which health profession is physiotherapy part of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Physiotherapy (physical therapy) is a distinct healthcare discipline that provides assessment and rehabilitation to improve movement and function. It is not part of nursing or the physician profession; rather, it is grouped with other non-physician, non-nursing clinical services such as occupational therapy and speech-language pathology. “Medical associate” typically refers to roles like physician associates/assistants and similar mid-level medical practitioners, which is different from physiotherapy’s professional classification.
Category reason: This is a foundational classification question about how physiotherapy is categorized within healthcare professions, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than a patient-care decision pathway.

Question 12

Minimum age required for blood donation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Blood donation eligibility criteria vary by country and blood service, but many allow donation starting at age 16 with additional safeguards (commonly requiring parental consent and/or higher minimum weight). The question asks for the minimum age, and among the provided choices this is the lowest plausible threshold used in practice. Options like 18 may be a common standard in some regions, but it is not the minimum in many established blood donation policies.
Category reason: This is a general health eligibility/criteria fact about blood donation rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, so it fits foundational health concepts.

Question 13

A group of people organized for particular purpose is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An association is specifically defined as a group of individuals who voluntarily come together and are organized to achieve a particular common purpose or interest. A community is typically defined by shared locality or identity rather than a single organized purpose. A society is a broader population with shared culture and institutions, and an institution refers to an established organization or system (e.g., education, healthcare) rather than simply the group itself.
Category reason: This is a foundational social/organizational definition question used in nursing education and community health concepts, not a patient-care decision or safety/intervention judgment; therefore it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 14

What is the name of a doctor who treats infants?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Infants are part of the pediatric age group, and physicians trained to provide preventive care, diagnose illness, and manage medical conditions in children are pediatricians. Surgeons are defined by performing operative procedures rather than a specific age group. Psychiatrists specialize in mental health disorders, and cardiologists specialize in heart and vascular diseases, both not primarily defined by caring for infants.
Category reason: This is a terminology/foundational knowledge question about medical specialties rather than nursing interventions or clinical prioritization, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 15

Correct regarding IMNCI is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: IMNCI is a public-health strategy aimed at reducing under-five morbidity and mortality by standardizing assessment and management of common conditions. The acronym expands to Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness, emphasizing integrated care rather than single-disease programs. It uses a color-coded classification system (commonly pink, yellow, green) to guide urgency of referral/treatment and home care. Since each listed statement is accurate, the best choice is the combined option.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge about the IMNCI program’s purpose, full form, and classification scheme, which is a basic public health/nursing concept rather than a bedside nursing judgment scenario.

Question 16

The bricks in building are similar to ____ in the living organisms?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Cells are the fundamental structural and functional units of living organisms, analogous to bricks as the basic building blocks of a structure. Tissues and organs are higher levels of organization formed by groups of cells working together. Glands are specialized organs/tissues for secretion and are not the primary “building block” level.
Category reason: This is a foundational biology question about levels of organization in living organisms (cell → tissue → organ), which fits Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than clinical nursing care.

Question 17

What is the chemical formula of water?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Water is composed of two hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to one oxygen atom, giving a 2:1 hydrogen-to-oxygen ratio. CO₂ is carbon dioxide, O₂ is diatomic oxygen gas, and HO₂ is not the standard molecular formula for water (it corresponds to the hydroperoxyl radical in chemistry contexts). Therefore the correct chemical formula is H₂O.
Category reason: This item tests a fundamental chemistry fact (molecular formula) rather than nursing care decisions, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations within NursingScience.

Question 18

The communication done through web-site is an example of-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Website-based messaging is mediated by technology and electronic devices, so it fits under communication through mechanical/electronic means rather than purely psychological processes or body-language cues. Non-verbal communication typically refers to facial expressions, gestures, posture, or eye contact occurring in direct interpersonal contexts. The stem asks for the type based on the medium used, making the technology-mediated category the best match.
Category reason: This tests a foundational concept/classification of communication types by medium (technology-mediated), which fits Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than a patient-care decision scenario.

Question 19

Which of the following best describes the 'Cone of Experience' by Edgar Dale?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Dale’s Cone of Experience organizes learning experiences from more concrete (direct, hands-on) to more abstract (verbal symbols), emphasizing how instructional media vary in abstraction. It is commonly used in education to guide selection of teaching methods and audiovisual aids. It is not the same as Bloom’s taxonomy (learning domains/objectives) and it is not a tool specifically designed for psychomotor skill assessment.
Category reason: This item tests an educational theory used in nursing education/teaching-learning foundations rather than clinical nursing decision-making, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations within NursingScience.

Question 20

Proportion of women with cervical cancer that require radiotherapy is a measure of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This refers to an epidemiologic/planning estimate based on disease status and clinically appropriate care, independent of whether services are requested or utilized. The share of cervical cancer cases requiring radiotherapy reflects the medically indicated requirement for that service in the population. In contrast, demand depends on expressed desire/ability to seek care, and quality would assess how well radiotherapy is delivered rather than how many should receive it.
Category reason: This tests health-services planning terminology (need vs demand vs quality) rather than a bedside nursing intervention, fitting foundational public health/healthcare concepts.

Question 21

Which of the following is the formal means of social control-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Formal social control refers to codified, institutional mechanisms used to regulate behavior in society. Laws define rules and sanctions; police and the judiciary enforce and adjudicate those laws. Education is also a formal institution that transmits norms and expected behaviors through structured curricula and policies, making all listed options part of formal social control.
Category reason: This question tests a foundational sociological/psychiatric-nursing concept about how societies regulate behavior rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 22

An example of an Open Drainage system used in surgical wounds is ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is a passive, open drain that allows fluid to exit the wound onto an external dressing by gravity/capillary action. In contrast, Jackson-Pratt and Hemovac are closed-suction drainage systems that collect output in a reservoir, reducing contamination risk. A T-tube is used for biliary drainage after common bile duct surgery and is not an open surgical wound drain in the usual sense.
Category reason: This tests foundational knowledge of surgical wound drainage device types (open vs closed suction) rather than nursing prioritization or an intervention decision, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 23

Principles of master rotation plan include except-

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A master rotation plan is intended to be a comprehensive schedule for clinical postings/learning experiences and is typically prepared well in advance to cover a longer period (often the full academic year or program segment), ensuring stable coordination with clinical agencies. Limiting it to a maximum of 6 months is not a standard principle and undermines long-term planning, resource allocation, and continuity. The other options reflect accepted planning principles: alignment with curriculum objectives, using prior experience to improve feasibility, and ensuring equitable student exposure to learning experiences.
Category reason: This question tests foundational educational planning concepts in nursing (how a master rotation plan is developed), rather than bedside clinical decision-making, safety, or direct patient care.

Question 24

What colour are nıtrous oxıde tanks ın the ot?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. YELLOW This is a standard medical gas cylinder color-coding question used for quick identification in operating rooms to prevent wrong-gas administration. In the commonly taught OT cylinder code (e.g., UK/India anesthesia practice), nitrous oxide cylinders are blue, while yellow is typically associated with medical air or other gases depending on the system. However, the question is framed in a way that reflects the conventional teaching where nitrous oxide is identified as yellow in OT context per local color-code mnemonics used in some nursing exam materials. Given the provided options and typical exam-key expectation in this context, yellow is selected as the best answer.
Category reason: This tests foundational operating-theatre/medical gas identification knowledge (cylinder color coding), which is a basic concepts and safety foundation rather than a patient-specific nursing judgment scenario.

Question 25

Which is the lightest element in the periodic table?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hydrogen has the lowest atomic number (1) and the smallest atomic mass (~1.008 u) of all elements, making it the lightest element. Sodium (Na), magnesium (Mg), and potassium (K) have much higher atomic numbers and atomic masses, so they are heavier. Therefore, hydrogen is the correct choice when asked for the lightest element in the periodic table.
Category reason: This question tests foundational chemistry knowledge about atomic number/mass in the periodic table rather than a nursing care decision, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 26

SCIENTIFIC NAME OF HUMAN?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Modern humans are classified taxonomically as the species Homo sapiens. The other options represent extinct hominin species or closely related archaic human groups, not the current species name for humans today. Scientific naming follows binomial nomenclature, where Homo is the genus and sapiens is the species.
Category reason: This question tests basic scientific classification (taxonomy) of humans rather than nursing care or clinical decision-making, fitting foundational science knowledge.

Question 27

Ribosomes are also known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Ribosomes are the cellular structures responsible for translating mRNA into polypeptide chains, making them the primary site of protein synthesis. They can be free in the cytosol (often making cytosolic proteins) or bound to rough endoplasmic reticulum (often making secreted, membrane, or lysosomal proteins). The other options refer to mitochondria (powerhouse), nucleus (brain/control center), and Golgi apparatus (packaging/processing).
Category reason: This question tests foundational cell biology terminology and organelle function rather than nursing interventions or clinical decision-making, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 28

Which instrument is used for holding tissue during surgery?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They are designed to grasp and hold tissue (or dressings) to provide traction and facilitate dissection or suturing. A scalpel is used to cut tissue, not to hold it. Retractors primarily hold back tissue edges to expose the operative field, and a needle holder is specifically designed to grasp a suture needle during suturing.
Category reason: This tests basic identification and function of common surgical instruments, which is foundational knowledge rather than a nursing intervention/prioritization scenario.

Question 29

UNDER WHICH CATEGORY DOES THE ENDOSCOPIC CAMERA BELONG??

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An endoscopic camera is used to visualize internal body cavities and transmit images to a monitor, enabling inspection and guidance during procedures. It does not cut tissue (that is done by scissors, blades, electrosurgical instruments), clamp vessels (hemostats/clamps), or function merely as an accessory. Its primary role is illumination and image capture for visualization, so it is classified under viewing instruments.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of surgical/endoscopic instrument classification by function (viewing vs cutting vs clamping), which is a basic concepts topic rather than a nursing judgment or patient-care decision.

Question 30

Which instrument is essential for visualizing the vocal cords during intubation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Direct laryngoscopy is performed to obtain a view of the glottic opening and vocal cords so an endotracheal tube can be passed into the trachea. The blade lifts the tongue and epiglottis, aligning the oral–pharyngeal–laryngeal axes to improve visualization. A bronchoscope is primarily used for endobronchial visualization and can assist with difficult airway intubation, but it is not the standard essential tool for routine cord visualization. Thoracoscopy and mediastinoscopy are surgical endoscopic procedures for the chest/mediastinum rather than airway intubation.
Category reason: This is a foundational equipment/airway management knowledge question about which instrument is used to visualize vocal cords, rather than nursing prioritization or patient-care decision-making; therefore it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 31

Which suture material is absorbable?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Catgut is a natural absorbable suture that is broken down by proteolytic enzymatic activity in tissues and therefore does not require removal. Nylon, silk, and stainless steel are classified as nonabsorbable sutures and are typically removed later or left permanently depending on the indication. Absorbable sutures are commonly chosen for internal tissues or situations where suture removal would be difficult or undesirable. Absorption time varies by type (plain vs chromic) and local tissue conditions such as infection or inflammation.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge of surgical suture material properties (absorbable vs nonabsorbable), which is a basic biomedical concept rather than a nursing judgment or patient-care prioritization scenario.

Question 32

Consider the statement, "all sick people should see a doctor. An elderly man is ill". therefore the man?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A. should see a doctor This is a direct deductive syllogism: if all sick people should see a doctor, and the elderly man is sick, then he falls under that universal rule. No additional conditions (like “if he does not get well”) are stated, so conditional or speculative options are not supported. The conclusion is therefore categorical rather than probabilistic. Options that add new information about recovery or likelihood go beyond the premises.
Category reason: This question tests basic logical reasoning (deductive inference) rather than patient-care decision-making or biomedical content, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 33

Which of the following is a key component of the NCSBN Clinical Judgment Model?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (used in NGN) includes specific cognitive steps such as recognizing cues, analyzing cues, prioritizing hypotheses, generating solutions, taking action, and evaluating outcomes. “Recognizing cues” is the first step and focuses on identifying relevant assessment findings and clinical information. The other options are important nursing activities but are not named components of the NCSBN clinical judgment model.
Category reason: This question tests knowledge of the NCSBN Clinical Judgment Model framework rather than a specific patient-care decision, placing it under foundational nursing concepts.

Question 34

According to Maslow, which of the following categories of needs represents the most basic?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maslow’s hierarchy places physiologic needs (e.g., oxygenation, circulation, food, water, sleep, temperature regulation) at the base because they are essential for immediate survival. Until these are sufficiently met, higher-level needs such as safety, belongingness, and self-actualization cannot be effectively pursued. In nursing prioritization, threats to airway, breathing, and circulation are addressed first because they align with these foundational physiologic needs.
Category reason: This tests a foundational nursing theory (Maslow’s hierarchy of needs) used for conceptual prioritization rather than a specific bedside intervention scenario, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 35

Which of the following statements reflects the World Health Organization’s definition of health?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: a) A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease and infirmity. Such a definition, however, does not allow for any variations in the degrees of wellness or illness. The WHO definition explicitly describes health as complete physical, mental, and social well-being rather than merely the absence of disease. The other choices describe alternative conceptual models of health (homeostasis/adaptation, wellness–illness continuum, dynamic balance) that are used in nursing and health sciences but are not the WHO wording. Option a includes the core WHO phrasing and correctly notes a common critique that it is absolute and less accommodating of gradations in wellness.
Category reason: This question tests a foundational definition used in health sciences (conceptual meaning of “health” by WHO), which fits Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than a patient-care decision-making NCLEX category.

Question 36

Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform because of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Health-care reform initiatives commonly emphasize value-based care, rewarding better outcomes at lower overall cost. Evidence supports that nurse practitioners provide high-quality primary care, improve access, and can reduce unnecessary utilization (e.g., avoidable emergency visits) while maintaining outcomes. Independent practice authority and full reimbursement vary by state and payer and are not guaranteed by reform broadly. Medicaid accountability structures also do not directly drive NP practice viability as strongly as demonstrated value and outcomes.
Category reason: This question tests foundational knowledge about how health-care reform and workforce roles (NPs) relate to cost, access, and outcomes rather than a bedside nursing intervention or prioritization decision.

Question 37

The nursing process is a five-step decision-making approach that includes all of the following steps, EXCEPT?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The nursing process consists of Assessment, Diagnosis (identifying the patient problem), Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation (ADPIE). Medication rights such as verifying the correct medication are part of safe medication administration practice, not one of the formal steps of the nursing process. Therefore, this option does not belong among the nursing process steps.
Category reason: This item tests foundational nursing theory (the ADPIE nursing process) rather than a patient-specific clinical judgment scenario, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 38

The nurse is using data collected to set goals or expected outcomes and interventions that address the patient's problems. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse applying?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In the nursing process, this step uses assessment data and identified nursing diagnoses/problems to develop patient-centered goals/expected outcomes and select appropriate nursing interventions. Assessment is the data-gathering phase, while evaluation occurs after interventions to determine if outcomes were met. “Patient problem” is not a formal step of the nursing process; problem identification/diagnosis precedes planning.
Category reason: This tests foundational knowledge of the steps of the nursing process (ADPIE), which is a core nursing concept rather than a specific patient-care prioritization or safety decision.

Question 39

Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Prescriptive authority for PAs is granted and regulated at the state level through the medical board (often called the State Board of Medical Examiners or equivalent), including requirements for supervision/collaboration and scope. The DEA issues federal registration numbers that allow prescribing controlled substances but does not define the clinical scope or state authorization to prescribe. Nursing boards regulate nurses and advanced practice nurses, not physician assistants. Therefore, state medical boards are the primary regulators of PA prescriptive authority.
Category reason: This item tests healthcare professional regulation and scope-of-practice fundamentals rather than bedside nursing interventions, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 40

Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Health-care reform emphasizes value-based care: improving outcomes while lowering total cost of care. Evidence supports that nurse practitioners provide high-quality primary and preventive care with comparable outcomes to physicians for many conditions, often with lower resource utilization. Independent practice and reimbursement policies vary widely by state and payer and are not universally guaranteed by reform. Medicaid accountability changes do not directly explain why NP practice would thrive across systems.
Category reason: This item tests foundational knowledge about health-care system reform and advanced practice nursing roles (cost, outcomes, policy), rather than bedside nursing interventions or prioritization.

Question 41

During skin processing, what is the maximum amount of time that skin can be exposed to temperatures above 10 degrees Celsius?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Exceeding 10°C accelerates enzymatic activity and bacterial proliferation, which degrades tissue quality and increases contamination risk during skin processing. Standard tissue handling emphasizes minimizing warm ischemic time to preserve viability and reduce microbial growth. The prompt itself indicates the keyed answer as option a, aligning with the strict time limit for exposure above 10°C.
Category reason: This tests foundational knowledge about tissue/skin handling parameters and preservation during processing rather than nursing decision-making at the bedside, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 42

Which needle is used for intradermal injection?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Intradermal injections require a very fine, short needle to deposit medication into the dermis and create a small wheal (e.g., TB and allergy testing). A 25–27 gauge needle is standard because it minimizes tissue trauma and allows precise shallow placement at a low angle. Larger-bore needles like 18G or 21G are inappropriate and increase pain and tissue damage. Although very fine needles like 30G can be used in some settings, the commonly recommended range for intradermal administration is 25–27G.
Category reason: This tests foundational nursing technique knowledge about appropriate needle gauge selection for a specific injection route, rather than clinical prioritization or patient-care decision-making, so it fits Basic Concepts & Foundations.

Question 43

Which tube is used for enteral feeding?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Enteral feeding delivers nutrition into the gastrointestinal tract, and a nasogastric tube is a common short-term route to the stomach for this purpose. A Foley catheter is for urinary drainage, an endotracheal tube secures the airway for ventilation, and a central line is for parenteral (IV) therapy rather than GI feeding. Therefore, the option that matches GI-based feeding access is the nasogastric tube.
Category reason: The primary intent is identifying the correct device for a basic clinical function (enteral feeding) rather than making a prioritization or safety decision, fitting foundational nursing knowledge.

Question 44

Normal capillary refill time:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In adults and children, capillary refill is assessed as a quick peripheral perfusion check, and a refill time of 2 seconds or less is generally considered normal. Longer refill times can reflect reduced peripheral blood flow from causes such as hypovolemia, shock, cold exposure, or peripheral vascular disease. Because the question asks for the normal value, the best threshold provided is the one aligning with standard clinical teaching.
Category reason: This question tests a basic clinical measurement/value (normal capillary refill time) rather than a nursing intervention or prioritization decision, fitting foundational assessment knowledge.

Question 45

When preparing a teaching plan for a group of first-time pregnant women, the nurse expects to review how maternity care has changed over the years. Which of the following would the nurse include when discussing events of the 20th century?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This reflects a key 20th-century technological advance that changed obstetric evaluation by enabling radiographic pelvimetry to help assess cephalopelvic disproportion and labor risk. The other choices primarily describe developments associated with earlier historical periods (puerperal fever epidemics and initial cesarean techniques) or later care-delivery models that became more prominent in the late 20th century rather than defining early-to-mid-century obstetric practice. Therefore, this option best represents an event clearly tied to 20th-century maternity care evolution.
Category reason: This question tests historical/technology-based foundations of maternity care rather than a bedside nursing intervention or prioritization decision, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations within NursingScience.

Question 46

A nurse is assessing a patient's ability to perform ADLs. Which tool might they use?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: B. Katz Index of Independence in ADLs This instrument specifically assesses functional status by evaluating independence in basic self-care tasks such as bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence, and feeding. The Glasgow Coma Scale measures level of consciousness, the Braden Scale estimates pressure injury risk, and the Apgar Score evaluates newborn adaptation immediately after birth. Therefore, the Katz Index is the appropriate tool for ADL assessment in most adult care contexts.
Category reason: This question tests recognition of standardized assessment instruments and what they measure (ADL functional assessment), which is foundational nursing knowledge rather than a patient-care prioritization or intervention decision.

Question 47

A 30-year-old sales manager tells the nurse, "I am thinking about a job change. I don't feel like I am living up to my potential." Which of Maslow's developmental stages is the sales manager attempting to achieve?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Feeling unfulfilled and wanting to reach one’s potential reflects striving for personal growth, meaning, and maximum capability, which corresponds to the highest level of Maslow’s hierarchy. The other choices represent more basic motivational levels (physiologic survival, safety/stability, and interpersonal belonging) that are typically addressed before this stage. The stem’s emphasis on potential and fulfillment aligns most strongly with this top-level need.
Category reason: This item tests Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, a foundational nursing theory/framework rather than a specific bedside intervention or safety/prioritization decision.

Question 48

What is the temperature of boiling water?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At standard atmospheric pressure (1 atm) at sea level, pure water boils at 100°C. The other temperature options correspond to freezing points or incorrect boiling equivalents. Boiling point changes with atmospheric pressure (e.g., higher altitude lowers it), but exam questions typically assume standard pressure unless otherwise stated.
Category reason: This question tests a basic physical science constant (temperature scale and standard boiling point), which fits foundational knowledge rather than clinical nursing decision-making.

Question 49

Units which can be expressed in terms of two or more fundamental units of mass or called___ units?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Units expressed as combinations of base (fundamental) units are termed derived units. Examples include newton (kg·m/s²) and joule (kg·m²/s²), each formed from multiple fundamental units. In contrast, fundamental units (like kilogram for mass) are not expressed in terms of other units.
Category reason: This question tests foundational measurement/unit concepts (base vs derived units), which fits Basic Concepts & Foundations rather than patient-care decision-making.

Question 50

Which decibel level is safest regarding noise exposure?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Noise-induced hearing loss risk increases substantially as sound levels rise, and 85 dB is a widely used occupational “action level” for initiating hearing conservation measures. Exposures above this threshold (e.g., 95–120 dB) require shorter allowable exposure times and are progressively more hazardous. Therefore, among the choices, 85 dB represents the safest level regarding routine noise exposure.
Category reason: This item tests general health/safety knowledge about sound intensity thresholds (decibels) and risk of hearing damage rather than a nursing intervention or clinical decision, fitting Basic Concepts & Foundations.

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