Question 1

A new dad is concerned about his toddlers play patterns. The nurse informs that __________ play is normally exhibited by toddlers?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This developmental stage reflects increasing awareness of others while still being primarily self-focused and lacking the skills for shared goals or organized roles. That pattern matches parallel play, where children may use similar toys near each other but do not coordinate activity. Cooperative forms like team play require more advanced social negotiation and rule-following typical of older children. Solitary play is more typical of younger infants/early toddlers but is less representative of the hallmark toddler peer-play style tested here.

Question 2

A new mom is instructed to have her toddler brush his teeth every night immediately after dinner. This is an example of ________ which increases the toddlers' sense of security and self mastery.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A consistent post-dinner toothbrushing routine is a structured daily pattern that reinforces autonomy and mastery while reducing anxiety from unpredictability. This fits the developmental concept of ritualistic behaviors in early childhood, where repetition supports self-regulation and trust in the environment. In contrast, negativism refers to oppositional behavior (e.g., saying “no”), not a soothing routine that promotes self-control.

Question 3

Causes which contribute to delirium are often remembered as an acronym of the same name. What cause does the tt in dtLIRIUM represent?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Abnormal sodium, calcium, and glucose-related osmolar shifts can rapidly impair neuronal function and trigger fluctuating attention and cognition. The delirium mnemonic is intended to cue clinicians to search for metabolic/toxic causes early because correction can quickly improve mental status. The other options are nonspecific strings or a diagnostic test, not an etiologic category for delirium.

Question 4

An adolescent client reveals that she is about to take a math test from her tutor. Nursing assessment reveals mild anxiety. The nurse explains that this level of anxiety does what?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At this level, perceptual field is broadened enough to support attention and effective problem-solving rather than impair it. Cognitive interference is more characteristic of moderate to severe anxiety, where attention narrows and information processing declines. Calling the response pathologic would be inappropriate because mild anxiety is a normal response to a performance situation and does not require postponing the test.

Question 5

During which type of anxiety does a person's perceptual field actually increase?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: With mild anxiety, the perceptual field broadens, improving awareness of the environment and the ability to learn and problem-solve. As anxiety progresses to moderate, the perceptual field begins to narrow with selective inattention, and in severe/panic it markedly constricts with impaired cognition. Therefore, the only level associated with an increased perceptual field is mild anxiety.

Question 6

The home environment in which a child is born into provides basic needs for growth and development and influences the child’s entire life. According to Maslow’s hierarchy, the most advanced need is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Physiological needs (food, water, shelter) form the foundation, and only after these and other lower tiers are reasonably met can higher needs be pursued. Love/belonging and esteem are intermediate levels that support psychological well-being but are not the top of the hierarchy. The most advanced need in the classic model is the drive for personal growth, meaning, and fulfillment.

Question 7

According to Freud’s developmental theory, infancy is a stage of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This stage is defined by dependence and gratification via oral activities, making it the best match for infancy. The anal stage characteristically aligns with toddlerhood when toilet training and control/retention become central issues. Latency and genital stages occur later in childhood and adolescence, so they do not fit the developmental timing described.

Question 8

The LPN is caring for an adolescent patient who during an admission assessment states "I want to be a doctor or a lawyer when I grow up because I think I like taking care of people". The LPN recognizes that according to Erickson, this adolescent is attempting which challenge?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Expressing interest in becoming a doctor or lawyer reflects role exploration and commitment formation typical of this stage. By contrast, trust versus mistrust applies to infancy and focuses on reliability of caregivers, not career identity. Autonomy versus shame and doubt is a toddler-stage task about independence and self-control, making it developmentally mismatched here.

Question 9

The nurse is providing preoperative education for a Jewish client schedule to receive a xenograft graft to promote burn healing. Which information should the nurse provide this client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This teaching directly addresses what the material is and is especially relevant for a client whose religious practices may be affected by animal-derived products. It does not permanently incorporate into the patient’s tissue; it is typically replaced as the wound bed heals or with an autograft later. Infection risk is a general concern with burns and grafting but does not define what a xenograft is, and removal is usually due to natural separation/replacement rather than planned debriding solely because it is a xenograft.

Question 10

It involves the care of the woman and family throughout pregnancy and childbirth, and the health promotion and illness care for the children and families.

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: That scope aligns with the population-focused concept of maternal and child health, which covers both maternal and pediatric/family health across the continuum. Gynecologic nursing is narrower and primarily focuses on the female reproductive system rather than pregnancy/newborn/child health. The “maternal & child nurses” option names providers rather than the discipline or care domain being defined.

Question 11

A trained nurse who specializes in the health and development of children from birth to school age.?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Maternal–child health nursing encompasses preventive care, growth and development monitoring, and health promotion for infants and young children, often in conjunction with family-centered care. Options A–C describe broader fields or areas of practice/discipline rather than the specific designation of the trained nurse described. The most direct match to the “trained nurse who specializes” wording is the role title rather than the specialty area alone.

Question 12

The typology of family nursing problems is used in the statement of nursing diagnosis in care of families. The youngest child of the de los Reyes family has been diagnosed as mentally retarded. This is classified as a?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  A health deficit refers to an existing illness, disability, or impairment that is already present in a family member and creates care needs and functional limitations. A diagnosis of intellectual disability (historically termed “mental retardation”) indicates a current, established condition rather than a potential problem. Health threats are risks or conditions that may lead to illness if not addressed, whereas foreseeable crises relate to predictable life transitions. This situation is best categorized as an actual deficit requiring ongoing support, rehabilitation, and family adaptation.

Question 13

The public health nurse conducts a study on the factors contributing to the high mortality rate due to heart disease in the municipality where she works. Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse practice in this situation?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Analytical epidemiology focuses on investigating determinants and testing hypotheses about why a health outcome occurs in a population. The stem describes studying factors contributing to a high mortality rate from heart disease, which is aimed at identifying associations and potential causal contributors. Descriptive epidemiology would mainly characterize the distribution by person, place, and time rather than examine contributing factors. Evaluation epidemiology would assess the effectiveness of a program or intervention, which is not the primary task described.

Question 14

Which of the following is a function of epidemiology?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Identifying contributing factors (risk factors/exposures) for a disease occurrence directly tests the “determinants” component. Option A is clinical diagnosis based on symptoms, which is mainly a clinical/medical assessment task rather than population-based investigation. Options C and D relate more to clinical effectiveness research/program evaluation, which are related public health activities but are not the core defining function being asked here.

Question 15

The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Epidemiologic investigation is fundamentally aimed at determining the cause and source of an outbreak so effective control measures can be targeted. Identifying the agent, mode of transmission, and contributing environmental/host factors establishes why the epidemic is occurring and how it is propagating. While mapping cases and identifying at-risk groups are key steps in an investigation, they are methods used to generate and test hypotheses about causation rather than the primary end goal. Community cooperation supports the process but is not the central purpose of the investigation.

Question 16

MWSS provides water to Manila and other cities in Metro Manila. This is an example of which level of water facility?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: MWSS is a metropolitan utility that sources, treats, and distributes water via extensive piping to multiple cities, matching a centralized system rather than a point source. Level I is typically a protected well/spring with no piping, and Level II is a communal faucet/standpost system serving a smaller cluster of households. Because the stem describes a regional, piped utility supplying multiple cities, the most appropriate level is III.

Question 17

Which criterion in priority setting of health problems is used only in community health care?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Community health nursing uses specific prioritization frameworks (e.g., community diagnosis tools) that first classify the type of community problem (health deficit, health threat, or foreseeable crisis) before ranking it for action. This “nature of the problem” criterion is distinctive to community-level priority setting because it reflects population risk and stage of preventability rather than an individual client’s acuity. Magnitude, modifiability, and preventive potential are important in many settings (clinical and public health) and are not unique to community health. Therefore, the criterion used only in community health care is the classification of the problem’s nature within a community diagnosis framework.

Question 18

The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health service delivery. What is/are true of this movement?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason:  Quality improvement initiatives in primary care commonly use standard-setting with external assessment to drive consistent service delivery. The Sentrong Sigla Movement is characterized by establishing benchmarks for health centers and recognizing those that meet required criteria, which operationalizes improvement through measurable compliance. This approach directly targets system performance and accountability rather than simply increasing budgets or shifting administrative control. A common distractor is assuming it is primarily an LGU-led funding mechanism, but the defining feature is the certification process tied to standards.

Question 19

Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry of a client into the health care delivery system?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It focuses on health promotion, disease prevention, basic diagnosis and treatment, and appropriate referral when higher-level services are needed. Secondary and tertiary levels typically require referral and provide more specialized inpatient/outpatient services. “Intermediate” is not a standard level in the classic primary–secondary–tertiary framework, making it less appropriate than primary for the usual entry point.

Question 20

A business firm must employ an occupational health nurse when it has at least how many employees?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In standard occupational health practice requirements taught in nursing foundations, large workplaces are mandated/expected to have designated occupational health services beginning at the 100+ employee level. Among the choices, 101 best matches this commonly tested cutoff and reflects the point where workforce size materially increases the need for surveillance, injury prevention programs, and on-site health management. Lower thresholds (e.g., 21) are typically too small to trigger the same formal staffing requirement, while higher numbers are less consistent with the usual benchmark taught for minimum coverage.

Question 21

Best indicator of air pollution is_____?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Particulates are ubiquitous across many pollution sources (traffic, industry, biomass burning) and correlate strongly with haze/visibility reduction and respiratory health effects, making them a practical overall indicator. Carbon monoxide is an important pollutant but is more source-specific and does not reflect overall air quality as consistently as particulate load. Lead is a toxic contaminant but not a general day-to-day indicator of ambient air pollution in most settings, and rust is not used as an air pollution indicator.

Question 22

Which of the following units is most appropriate for measuring the weight of an adult?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Kilograms match the scale used in clinical practice for adult weights and align with dosing calculations that often use mg/kg. Grams are more appropriate for small objects or newborn weights when expressed with more precision, while milligrams and micrograms are used for medication doses and laboratory quantities rather than whole-body weight. Using kilograms reduces risk of magnitude errors compared with smaller units.

Question 23

Which statement describes the use of a decision grid for decision making?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It is also visual because it lays out options and criteria in a tabular format that makes trade-offs easy to see. This directly matches the definition and purpose of a decision grid in evidence-based selection among multiple choices. Speed is not its primary advantage because scoring and weighting can take time, especially in groups. It also does not guarantee perfect objectivity because the choice of criteria and weights can be subjective.

Question 24

The nurse explains an autograft to a client scheduled for excision of a skin tumor. The nurse knows the client understands the procedure when the client says, "I will receive tissue from..."?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An autograft is tissue transplanted from one site to another in the same individual, which eliminates immunologic rejection concerns seen with donor tissue. A common donor site for split-thickness skin grafting is the thigh, making this statement consistent with correct understanding. Tissue from a tissue bank represents an allograft, typically used as temporary coverage and associated with higher rejection risk. Pig-derived grafts are xenografts, and synthetic skin is a biologic/synthetic substitute rather than the client’s own tissue.

Question 25

A client who is to have antineoplastic chemotherapy tells the nurses of a fear of being sick all the time and wishes to try acupuncture. Which of these beliefs stated by the client would be incorrect about acupuncture?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Acupuncture in traditional Chinese medicine is based on the concept of qi flowing through meridians, not through anatomically defined nerve clusters. While needles may stimulate peripheral nerves and modulate pain pathways physiologically, the traditional explanatory model does not describe qi as moving through nerve groupings. The other statements are consistent with common acupuncture descriptions: variable needle depth and retention time, illness related to qi imbalance, and using many acupuncture points to restore balance. A common confusion is mixing modern neurophysiologic hypotheses with the traditional meridian/qi framework.

Question 26

A nurse is to present information about Chinese folk medicine to a group of student nurses. Based on this cultural belief, the nurse would explain that illness is attributed to the?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The correct choice captures the core etiologic concept that symptoms arise from disharmony rather than from one force alone. Options describing only yin or only yang are incomplete because either excess or deficiency of either aspect can produce illness. The “improper hot foods” distractor reflects a partial diet-based concept but does not represent the overarching principle explaining illness in this belief system.

Question 27

LIFE EXPECTANCY IS A TYPE OF -?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Because it is calculated from mortality experience (life tables based on deaths), it is classified as a mortality measure rather than a measure of illness occurrence. Morbidity indicators quantify disease incidence/prevalence, not survival duration. Health service and disability indicators instead reflect service availability/utilization and functional limitation, respectively, which are different constructs from survival.

Question 28

CONIOMETER IS USED TO ASSESS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A coniometer (commonly referring to a goniometer-type angle-measuring device) is designed specifically to quantify these joint angles in degrees for musculoskeletal assessment and rehabilitation tracking. This makes it the appropriate instrument when documenting limitations or improvements in mobility. By contrast, muscle strength is graded with manual muscle testing or a dynamometer, and hearing/vision require audiometry and visual acuity charts, respectively.

Question 29

The interaction between the educator, educand and the environment enables education through:

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This framework emphasizes that learning is not only a transfer from teacher to learner but is also influenced by social, physical, and cultural contexts. The inclusion of the environment distinguishes the triadic model from a bipolar model, which focuses only on educator–educand interaction. A one-way process contradicts modern educational principles that require feedback and learner participation.

Question 30

ANTI SPASMODIC ENEMA IS ALSO KNOWN AS?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In nursing fundamentals terminology, this is referred to as a carminative enema, commonly formulated to promote flatus passage and decrease cramping. Oil enemas primarily lubricate and soften stool rather than target spasm. Purgative enemas are designed to stimulate evacuation and can worsen cramping, while astringent enemas aim to reduce mucosal irritation/secretions rather than treat spasm.

Question 31

FATHER OF STETHOSCOPE?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: ” This is a foundational history-of-medicine fact relevant to basic clinical assessment tools used in nursing and medicine. The other choices refer to scientists/physicians known for different landmark contributions (e.g., germ theory/bacteriology) rather than inventing the stethoscope. Therefore the option that corresponds to Laennec is the best answer despite the misspelling.

Question 32

FATHER OF INDIAN SURGERY?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Sushruta is traditionally regarded as the father of Indian surgery because the Sushruta Samhita describes surgical principles, operative techniques, and instruments in substantial detail. This association is specifically surgical, whereas Charaka is more strongly linked with internal medicine through the Charaka Samhita. Atreya is an early teacher associated with Ayurveda broadly, and Dhanvantari is a revered figure linked to healing but is not the standard exam answer for “father of Indian surgery.”.

Question 33

Which of the following values is equivalent to 88 mL?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Milliliters (mL) and cubic centimeters (cc) are equivalent volume units in clinical practice (1 mL = 1 cc). Therefore, converting 88 mL to cc keeps the same numeric value. This makes 88 cc the direct equivalent without any scaling. The smaller decimal options reflect incorrect division by 10 or 100, and 176 cc incorrectly doubles the volume.

Question 34

Father of medicine is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This aligns with the foundational shift toward bedside assessment and documentation that underpins modern medical practice. Claude Bernard is more closely associated with experimental physiology and the concept of the internal milieu. Sushruta is commonly referred to as the father of surgery, and Andreas Vesalius is a foundational figure in human anatomy.

Question 35

Site of bcg vaccine is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard immunization practice specifies the left upper arm as the routine site in infants and children for consistency and documentation. The thigh is primarily used for intramuscular vaccines in infants, not for intradermal BCG. The hand is not an accepted site due to higher risk of complications and poor standardization.

Question 36

‘Monitoring of BP’ is an example for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Monitoring blood pressure functions as a screening/early-identification measure to detect hypertension or assess control early, enabling timely management. Primary prevention would involve actions taken before disease onset (e.g., lifestyle counseling, vaccination) rather than detecting an emerging problem. Tertiary prevention targets reducing disability and complications after established disease (e.g., rehabilitation, complication management), which is beyond routine BP monitoring as a detection strategy.

Question 37

The sum of all forms of (kinetic and potential) of a substance is termed as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly matches the stem’s wording about combining kinetic and potential forms for a substance. Heat is not energy stored in a body but energy transferred due to a temperature difference, so it is not the correct definition. Elastic energy is only one specific form of potential energy and therefore cannot represent the total sum of kinetic and potential energies.

Question 38

Ideal place to record body temperature in a dead body is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The rectum is relatively insulated and provides a stable approximation of core temperature after death compared with peripheral sites. Axillary, oral, and groin measurements are more exposed and cool faster, making them less reliable in a dead body. Forensic and clinical postmortem practice therefore prefers rectal temperature when available and feasible.

Question 39

Neonatal death occurs within?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This standard definition is used in vital statistics and public health reporting to distinguish neonatal deaths from post-neonatal infant deaths. Options listing 2 or 3 days are too narrow and correspond more to “early neonatal” periods rather than the full neonatal interval. “Soon after birth” is vague and not a time-bounded definition, so it cannot be the correct standard cutoff.

Question 40

Florence nightingale was born on?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Florence Nightingale’s birthdate is May 12, 1820, which aligns with widely accepted historical records used in nursing education. The other dates are either the wrong year or a different day/month and therefore do not match the established biographical timeline. Such questions assess foundational professional knowledge rather than clinical decision-making.

Question 41

How much usually is donated at a time?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This amount is selected to provide a clinically useful unit while keeping donor hemodynamic risk low in healthy adults. Larger volumes like a quart (about 946 mL) would remove an excessive proportion of circulating blood and increase risk of hypotension/syncope and anemia. Therefore, the usual amount donated at one time is the pint-sized unit.

Question 42

A person stands on a weighing scale that reads in kilograms. The scale shows the value between 60 and 70, with ten divisions between two values. The needle points at the point that points at the fifth division in between 60 and 70. Which of the following gives the correct weight of the person?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The fifth division from 60 corresponds to 60 + 5 = 65. This matches the midpoint between 60 and 70 when evenly divided. The 60.5 kg option would require each division to be 0.1 kg, which contradicts the stated ten divisions over a 10-kg range.

Question 43

Precision reflects?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Repeated results that cluster closely together indicate high precision even if they are offset from the true value. Closeness to the true value is accuracy, which is more affected by systematic error and calibration problems. Therefore, the option describing reproducibility best captures what precision reflects.

Question 44

World Health Organisation was constituted in the year?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The WHO’s constitution was adopted in 1946 and entered into force in 1948, but among the provided choices the closest and commonly keyed exam answer is the year the constitution was established/constituted in this framing. The other years listed do not correspond to the creation or start of WHO and are therefore less defensible historically. This makes the first option the best match within the option set.

Question 45

National iron plus initiative is an example of ..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The National Iron Plus Initiative provides iron and folic acid supplementation to vulnerable groups (e.g., adolescents, women of reproductive age) to prevent iron deficiency anemia from developing. This is a classic “specific protection” measure rather than screening for existing disease (secondary) or limiting disability/rehabilitation after disease occurs (tertiary). Primordial prevention would focus more on preventing the emergence of risk factors at a population level (e.g., broad nutrition/food-system changes) rather than targeted supplementation.

Question 46

Ramsey scale is used for the assessment of?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: It categorizes responsiveness from anxious/agitated through cooperative to progressively reduced response to commands and stimuli, helping clinicians titrate sedatives safely. This is distinct from broader neurologic consciousness scales (e.g., Glasgow Coma Scale) that assess eye opening, verbal, and motor responses for brain injury. Using a sedation-specific scale improves monitoring for oversedation and related respiratory compromise.

Question 47

Sign & symptoms expressed by the patient are referred as ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Subjective findings include sensations like pain, nausea, dizziness, and shortness of breath when reported by the patient. Objective data are measurable/observable findings (e.g., temperature, blood pressure, visible edema) obtained by the clinician. “Current” and “historical” describe timing/source of data but do not distinguish patient-reported versus clinician-observed assessment findings.

Question 48

Which occupation is at least risk for developing sensory alterations?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Welding carries high risk for ocular damage from UV/IR radiation (“arc eye”) and potential fume exposure; carpentry and “Dic Jockey” (disc jockey) are commonly associated with sustained loud-noise exposure leading to noise-induced hearing loss. A waitress generally has lower intensity and duration of these specific hazardous exposures compared with the other listed jobs, making sensory alteration risk comparatively least. While slips, burns, or intermittent loud environments can occur in food service, they are less directly linked to chronic sensory impairment than welding or repeated high-decibel exposure.

Question 49

Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared for. It allows access to higher human spirit?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: That language is central to Jean Watson’s Theory of Human Caring, which emphasizes carative/caritas processes and a higher human spirit in the caring-healing relationship. Benner focuses on skill acquisition from novice to expert, Leininger emphasizes cultural care diversity and universality, and Swanson centers on caring processes like knowing/being with/doing for without the explicit transpersonal-spiritual consciousness emphasis. Therefore the theorist being referenced is Watson.

Question 50

Blue discoloration of skin is called ..?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term is specifically used for a bluish hue, especially noticeable in lips, nail beds, and distal extremities. Pallor refers to paleness from reduced blood flow or anemia, jaundice is yellowing from elevated bilirubin, and erythema is redness from vasodilation/inflammation. Therefore the correct medical term for blue skin discoloration is the option indicating reduced oxygen saturation/oxygen delivery.

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