Question 1

The nurse reviews the complete blood count with differential for a patient with cytomegalovirus. The nurse expects an elevation of what value?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Viral infections characteristically produce a lymphocytic predominance on the WBC differential due to activation and proliferation of T cells and other lymphocyte subsets. Cytomegalovirus is a herpesvirus and commonly causes lymphocytosis with atypical/reactive lymphocytes, similar to other mononucleosis-like illnesses. Neutrophilia is more typical of acute bacterial infection or physiologic stress responses. Eosinophilia and basophilia more strongly suggest allergic/parasitic disease or myeloproliferative processes rather than CMV.

Question 2

Normal bleeding time is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A short normal range supports intact platelet number/function and adequate capillary integrity. Prolonged values are classically seen with thrombocytopenia, qualitative platelet dysfunction (e.g., aspirin effect), or von Willebrand disease. The longer time ranges listed would suggest clinically significant impairment of primary hemostasis rather than a normal result.

Question 3

Which blood responsible for a fight the disease?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: White blood cells detect, engulf, and destroy microbes (e.g., neutrophil phagocytosis) and coordinate targeted immunity (e.g., lymphocyte antibody production and cell-mediated killing). In contrast, RBCs mainly transport oxygen/CO2, and platelets primarily function in hemostasis and clot formation. Plasma is the fluid carrier for cells and proteins and supports immunity via antibodies and complement, but the cellular “fight” function is attributed to WBCs.

Question 4

Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Without adequate vitamin K, these factors are produced but function poorly, leading to prolonged bleeding and an elevated PT/INR. This makes vitamin K the key nutritional requirement for normal clot formation. A common distractor is vitamin C, which is more associated with collagen integrity and capillary fragility (scurvy) rather than the coagulation cascade itself.

Question 5

ABO incompatibility common in ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: An A-positive baby of an O-positive mother is therefore a classic, common setup for ABO incompatibility leading to neonatal jaundice and mild-to-moderate hemolysis. Rh status is less relevant to ABO incompatibility, so the “+ve” does not drive the risk here. A mother with group A and an AB baby typically has anti-B antibodies that are mainly IgM and do not cross the placenta efficiently, making this pattern less common clinically.

Question 6

Erythropoiesis starts in ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In postnatal life, this process occurs primarily in red bone marrow (especially in the axial skeleton), where erythroid precursors mature under the influence of growth factors. The kidney’s key role is endocrine regulation via erythropoietin release in response to hypoxia, not serving as the primary site of cell production. Liver and spleen can participate in fetal hematopoiesis or extramedullary hematopoiesis in disease, but they are not the usual starting site after birth.

Question 7

Reduced number of platelet is found in all the conditions except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DIC causes consumption of platelets within widespread microthrombi, so platelet count falls. Aplastic anemia leads to bone marrow failure with pancytopenia, including low platelets, and acute myeloid leukemia commonly suppresses normal marrow hematopoiesis, also reducing platelets. Von Willebrand disease is primarily a qualitative platelet adhesion defect due to von Willebrand factor abnormality; platelet count is typically normal despite bleeding symptoms.

Question 8

Bleeding time is prolonged in a person who?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet COX-1, reducing thromboxane A2 and impairing platelet aggregation, which prolongs bleeding time. In contrast, coumarin derivatives and liver disease mainly reduce vitamin K–dependent clotting factors and prolong PT/INR rather than bleeding time. Factor VIII deficiency (hemophilia A) affects the intrinsic pathway and typically prolongs aPTT with a normal bleeding time.

Question 9

Normal hemoglobin in males?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A range around 13–17 g/dL is the commonly accepted reference interval used to screen for anemia or polycythemia in men. Values like 8 g/dL or 5 g/dL indicate moderate to severe anemia in most clinical contexts and would typically prompt evaluation for bleeding, hemolysis, or marrow suppression. A value near 2 g/dL would be profoundly life-threatening and incompatible with normal physiologic oxygen delivery. Therefore, the only option consistent with normal adult male hemoglobin is the mid-teen range.

Question 10

Which of the following is a symptom of anemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This commonly presents as pallor, especially noticeable in the conjunctiva, nail beds, and palmar creases. Runny nose and diarrhea are not typical direct manifestations of anemia and more often reflect infectious or gastrointestinal etiologies. Chest pain can occur in severe anemia from myocardial oxygen demand–supply mismatch, but it is less typical as a general symptom compared with pallor and would raise concern for urgent cardiac ischemia or severe anemia when present.

Question 11

Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Folate (vitamin B9) is essential for thymidylate and purine synthesis, so deficiency directly causes defective nuclear maturation and macrocytosis. Clinically this presents as macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils, classically due to folate or vitamin B12 deficiency; among the listed choices, folate is the match. Riboflavin (B2), vitamin C, and vitamin A deficiencies do not primarily disrupt DNA synthesis in a way that produces megaloblastic changes.

Question 12

The nurse is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with chronic myelocytic (or myeloid) leukemia. Which statement is true regarding this type of leukemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: CML is a myeloproliferative neoplasm with marked granulocytic proliferation and extramedullary hematopoiesis, which commonly enlarges the spleen. Clinically, patients often present with early satiety, left upper quadrant fullness, and significant splenomegaly that can be prominent. In contrast, lymphadenopathy is more characteristic of lymphoid leukemias/lymphomas than of CML. Acute leukemias typically feature more immature blast cells, whereas chronic leukemias generally show more mature-appearing cells, making the “less mature than acute” statement incorrect.

Question 13

Which type of cancer affects the white blood cells?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly impacts white blood cell production, function, and circulating counts, leading to infection risk and other marrow-failure features. In contrast, lung, skin, and breast cancers arise from epithelial tissues of their respective organs and do not primarily originate from or target white blood cell lineages. Although solid tumors can cause secondary blood count abnormalities, the cancer type that intrinsically involves white blood cells is leukemia.

Question 14

A person with blood group ..... is called a universal donor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Group O has no A or B antigens, and Rh negative lacks the D antigen, making it compatible for emergency RBC transfusion to most recipients. In contrast, AB+ is the universal recipient because it lacks anti-A and anti-B antibodies, but its RBCs carry A, B, and D antigens and would trigger hemolysis in many recipients. O+ still carries the Rh(D) antigen and can sensitize or hemolyze Rh-negative recipients, especially in females of childbearing potential.

Question 15

A client's laboratory test results reveal a decrease in both serum transferrin and total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Which disorder is the most likely cause of the client's anemia?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In infection, cytokine-driven increases in hepcidin reduce intestinal iron absorption and trap iron in macrophages, limiting iron availability for erythropoiesis despite adequate or increased iron stores. This pattern contrasts with iron deficiency anemia, where the liver increases transferrin synthesis, producing an elevated TIBC. Sickle cell disease causes hemolytic anemia rather than a primary transferrin/TIBC decrease pattern.

Question 16

What is not characteristic of the erythrocytes?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Erythrocyte membranes are classically described by their lipid bilayer with roughly equal proportions of lipids and proteins, containing phospholipids and cholesterol that contribute to membrane fluidity. They also contain numerous membrane proteins, many of which are glycoproteins exposed on the external surface and responsible for antigenic properties (e.g., blood group antigens). The claim of a fixed number like “100 special proteins” is not a standard or defining characteristic and is too specific/inaccurate for RBC membrane composition, which includes many proteins with variable categorization in different references. Therefore, this option best represents what is not characteristic.

Question 17

The Percentage of Blood cells in whole blood is known as?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This directly matches the concept of “percentage of blood cells” in whole blood in routine clinical usage. Plasma and serum refer to the liquid components of blood (serum is plasma without clotting factors), so they do not describe a cellular percentage. “Erythrocytes” names the cells themselves rather than the measured fraction of blood volume they occupy.

Question 18

Which type of cell in the blood helps in clotting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These anucleate cell fragments also provide a phospholipid surface that accelerates the coagulation cascade, stabilizing the clot with fibrin. Red blood cells primarily transport oxygen and carbon dioxide and do not initiate clot formation. White blood cells and plasma cells are involved in immune defense, not the primary clotting mechanism.

Question 19

Process of formation of blood corpuscles is called ________?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This term specifically refers to the formation and differentiation of all cellular elements of blood. Hemolysis is the destruction of red blood cells, not their production. Haemozoin is a malarial pigment formed from hemoglobin digestion, and haemolytic describes processes causing RBC destruction rather than cell formation.

Question 20

Which cells are colorless?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Their appearance is essentially colorless/transparent in circulation and only becomes distinctly visible when stained on a blood smear. By contrast, red blood cells are red due to hemoglobin, and plasma is the straw-colored liquid portion rather than a cell. Platelets are cell fragments and may appear pale, but the classic “colorless blood cells” reference in basic hematology is to leukocytes.

Question 21

Which type of cell is responsible for blood clotting?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: They also provide a phospholipid surface that accelerates the coagulation cascade, stabilizing the plug with fibrin. Red blood cells mainly transport oxygen and can influence blood viscosity but do not initiate clot formation. White blood cells are primarily immune cells, and neurons are unrelated to coagulation.

Question 22

Which type of anemia is caused by a mutation in hemoglobin?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This is a classic hemoglobinopathy where the primary defect is in hemoglobin structure itself. Iron deficiency anemia results from inadequate iron for hemoglobin synthesis rather than an abnormal hemoglobin molecule. Megaloblastic anemia is due to impaired DNA synthesis (often folate/B12 deficiency), and aplastic anemia reflects bone marrow failure, not a hemoglobin mutation.

Question 23

Bleeding time is prolonged in all the following EXCEPT-?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hemophilia A is a coagulation factor VIII deficiency that impairs secondary hemostasis, so bleeding time is typically normal while aPTT is prolonged. In contrast, von Willebrand disease causes defective platelet adhesion and can prolong bleeding time. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia reduces platelet count and prolongs bleeding time, and viper envenomation can produce consumptive coagulopathy with platelet dysfunction that may also prolong it.

Question 24

Which blood cells are responsible for fighting infections?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Leukocytes (e.g., neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes) identify, phagocytose, and/or coordinate antibody and cellular responses to eliminate infections. Red blood cells primarily transport oxygen and carbon dioxide and do not provide immune defense. Platelets mainly function in hemostasis and clot formation rather than pathogen clearance.

Question 25

The medical term for low hemoglobin is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The clinical and laboratory term that describes this low hemoglobin/hematocrit state is anemia. Hypoxemia refers to low arterial oxygen tension (PaO2), not hemoglobin level, and can occur even with normal hemoglobin. Hypoglycemia is low blood glucose, and leukemia is a malignancy of white blood cells rather than a direct synonym for low hemoglobin.

Question 26

A person of which blood group can be a universal donor?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Group O RBCs lack both A and B antigens, so they are least likely to trigger an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction across ABO types. In contrast, group AB RBCs express both antigens and would be incompatible for recipients with anti-A and/or anti-B antibodies. Clinically, “universal donor” for RBCs is specifically O negative when Rh factor is considered, but within the ABO choices given, O is correct.

Question 27

A person with Type O blood can safely receive a transfusion from which blood type?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, so transfusing A, B, or AB red cells risks acute hemolytic transfusion reaction due to antigen–antibody binding and complement-mediated hemolysis. Type O red cells lack A and B antigens, so they are the only ABO type that avoids those antibody reactions in a type O recipient. A common confusion is that “universal donor” (type O red cells) applies to donating, not to what a type O person can safely receive.

Question 28

What organ is primarily responsible for the production of blood cells?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This makes it the main site responsible for ongoing blood cell production in healthy children and adults. The spleen is more involved in filtering blood and removing aged or abnormal blood cells, not being the primary production site. The liver can be a major hematopoietic organ in fetal life, but not the primary source after birth in typical physiology.

Question 29

A person with Type O blood can safely receive a blood transfusion from which donor type?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Type O recipients have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, so transfusing A, B, or AB RBCs would trigger hemolysis. Type O RBCs lack A and B antigens, so they are the only ABO type that avoids an antigen–antibody reaction in a Type O recipient. While Rh factor also matters clinically, this question is testing ABO type alone, making this the single best choice.

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