Question 1

Which vaccine is available for Hepatitis B?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The hepatitis B vaccine is a recombinant HBsAg vaccine administered intramuscularly, recommended for infants, children, and adults at risk. There are no licensed oral or intranasal formulations for hepatitis B. Therefore, the available vaccine form is injectable.

Question 2

MMR vaccine is given at age?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first dose of the MMR vaccine is recommended at 12–15 months of age, which corresponds to 1 year. Vaccination before 12 months can be less effective due to residual maternal antibodies. A second dose is given later, typically at 4–6 years, to ensure immunity. Therefore, 1 year is the best answer.

Question 3

Newborn screening is done to detect?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Newborn blood spot screening (heel prick) is designed to identify congenital metabolic, endocrine, and hematologic disorders early, such as phenylketonuria, congenital hypothyroidism, sickle cell disease, and cystic fibrosis. Early detection allows timely treatment to prevent severe morbidity and developmental impairment. Heart rate, weight, and color are assessed by routine vital signs and physical examination, not by newborn screening tests.

Question 4

BCG vaccine given for?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: BCG (Bacillus Calmette–Guérin) is a live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis vaccine used to prevent tuberculosis, especially severe forms like miliary and meningeal TB in infants and young children. It is not used for polio, which is prevented by IPV/OPV vaccines. Tetanus prevention uses a tetanus toxoid vaccine, and hepatitis prevention uses hepatitis vaccines (e.g., Hepatitis B). Therefore, TB is the correct indication.

Question 5

Which vaccine is used to prevent tetanus?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Tetanus is caused by the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani. Protection is achieved with an inactivated tetanus toxoid vaccine, administered as TT/Td in adults or as part of DTaP/Tdap schedules. BCG protects against tuberculosis, OPV against poliomyelitis, and MMR against measles, mumps, and rubella, not tetanus.

Question 6

Measles vaccine is usually given at what age in children?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In many national immunization schedules, the first measles-containing vaccine is typically administered at 9 months of age, with a subsequent dose later in childhood to ensure durable immunity. Giving it earlier is less effective because maternal antibodies can neutralize the live attenuated vaccine virus and reduce seroconversion. Options such as at birth or 6 weeks are too early for routine measles immunization, and 5 years is usually a later booster dose rather than the initial dose.

Question 7

Measles is most common in which age group?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Measles (rubeola) is primarily a childhood infection and historically occurs most often in children, especially where immunization coverage is incomplete. Newborns often have temporary passive maternal antibodies, making disease less common in early infancy. Adults and the elderly can be affected, but incidence is typically lower than in children, though severity may be greater when it occurs. Therefore, the best answer is school-age children.

Question 8

Polio is prevented by?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Poliomyelitis is prevented through vaccination with polio vaccines, including oral polio vaccine (OPV) and inactivated polio vaccine (IPV). MMR protects against measles, mumps, and rubella; DPT protects against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus; and BCG protects primarily against tuberculosis. Therefore, OPV is the option specifically used for polio prevention.

Question 9

All the following vaccines are given at birth except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At birth, routine immunizations commonly include BCG (in many national programs), hepatitis B (birth dose), and oral polio vaccine/zero dose depending on the country schedule. Hepatitis A vaccination is not a standard birth vaccine; it is typically started later in infancy/early childhood (often at ≥12 months) because maternal antibodies and low early-life exposure reduce benefit at birth. Therefore, among the options, hepatitis A is the exception.

Question 10

HIV test is indicated for a (n)?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HIV screening is indicated based on sexual risk factors, not as an adjunct to a Pap test or because of genital warts alone. A new sexual partner increases HIV risk and warrants offering HIV testing as part of STI screening, regardless of age. Genital warts (HPV) do not themselves indicate HIV testing unless accompanied by other risk behaviors, but the combination of a new partner and STI-related risk history supports testing.

Question 11

A 25 year old patient is inquiring about the methods or ways to detect cancer earlier. The nurse least likely identify this method by stating?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A Pap smear is a cervical cancer screening test recommended based primarily on age and cervical status (e.g., presence of a cervix), not limited to being "sexually active" only. Making sexual activity the sole qualifier is inaccurate and can lead to missed or delayed screening for eligible patients. The other options describe general (though not always universally recommended) approaches people often associate with cancer detection; the clearly incorrect counseling statement is the one that restricts Pap smears to sexually active women only.

Question 12

The first vaccine given immediately after birth in the national immunization schedule is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In many National Immunization Schedules used in nursing/public health exams (e.g., where OPV “0 dose” is included at birth), the vaccine administered immediately after birth is OPV (oral polio vaccine) as the birth dose. BCG is also given at birth in these schedules, but OPV is commonly considered the first/immediate “at birth” vaccine (OPV-0) alongside BCG and Hepatitis B birth dose depending on the program. Pentavalent vaccine is not given at birth; it starts later in infancy (e.g., 6 weeks).

Question 13

Measles vaccine is usually given along with which other vaccines?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Measles immunization is most commonly administered as part of the combined MMR vaccine, which includes measles, mumps, and rubella components. This combination reduces the number of injections needed while providing protection against three viral illnesses with similar pediatric immunization timing. The other options list vaccines that are not routinely combined with measles vaccine in a standard formulation.

Question 14

Which immunization is given at birth?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In routine pediatric immunization schedules (e.g., many national programs), a “zero dose” of OPV is administered at birth to provide early protection against poliomyelitis. DPT is started later in infancy (typically at 6 weeks or later), MMR is given at 9–12 months or later depending on guidelines, and typhoid vaccination is not given at birth. Therefore, among the listed options, OPV is the best answer.

Question 15

Which vaccine is given to prevent cervical cancer?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Persistent infection with high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV), especially types 16 and 18, is the primary cause of cervical cancer. HPV vaccination prevents infection with these oncogenic HPV types and thereby reduces cervical cancer risk. Hepatitis B vaccination prevents HBV-related liver disease/cancer, while MMR and varicella vaccines prevent measles-mumps-rubella and chickenpox, respectively, not cervical cancer.

Question 16

Nurse Sarah is attending to a 4-month-old baby at the well-baby clinic for a scheduled immunization visit. Besides the DPT and polio vaccines, which additional vaccine should the baby receive?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At 4 months, the routine immunization schedule includes a second dose of Hib (along with DTaP and polio), making Hib the appropriate additional vaccine at this visit. MMR and mumps-containing vaccines are not given until around 12–15 months of age. Hepatitis B is typically given at birth and in early infancy, but it is not the standard additional vaccine specifically paired with the 4-month DPT and polio visit compared with Hib.

Question 17

HPV vaccine prevents?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: HPV vaccines protect against infection with high-risk human papillomavirus types (notably 16 and 18) that cause most cases of cervical cancer, and also reduce other anogenital cancers. They do not prevent bacterial diseases like tuberculosis or typhoid, nor viral diseases like rabies. Therefore, among the options listed, prevention of cervical cancer is the best answer.

Question 18

Measles vaccine is administered at the age of ...?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In many national immunization programs (especially in settings where measles risk is high), the first measles-containing vaccine dose is given at 9 months to provide protection as maternal antibodies wane. Giving it earlier (e.g., 6 or 10 weeks) is not effective because maternal antibodies can reduce vaccine response and it is not part of routine schedules. Six months is generally reserved only for special early-dose situations (e.g., outbreaks/travel) and is not the standard routine age. Therefore, nine months is the best answer among the options.

Question 19

Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated during pregnancy as per WHO guidelines?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Live attenuated vaccines are generally contraindicated during pregnancy due to a theoretical risk of fetal infection/teratogenicity. The measles vaccine (typically given as part of MMR) is a live attenuated vaccine, so it should not be administered during pregnancy. In contrast, tetanus toxoid and hepatitis B vaccines are inactivated/recombinant and are considered safe when indicated in pregnancy. OPV is a live vaccine, but the classic single best contraindicated option in pregnancy is measles/MMR per standard immunization guidance.

Question 20

First vaccine given at birth is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Many national newborn immunization schedules include vaccines administered at birth: OPV (polio) “zero dose,” BCG for tuberculosis prevention (especially in high-burden settings), and a birth dose of hepatitis B (ideally within 24 hours) to reduce perinatal transmission. Since the question lists these three as possible birth vaccines, the best choice is that all are given at birth in standard immunization programs. The exact mix can vary by country, but commonly these are the birth vaccines referenced in such MCQs.

Question 21

Which diagnostic test is commonly used to screen for cervical and vaginal abnormalities?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The Pap smear (Pap test) is the standard screening test to detect abnormal cervical cells and precancerous changes, helping identify cervical abnormalities early. It is used for routine screening in asymptomatic individuals, often alongside HPV testing depending on age and guidelines. Colposcopy is typically a follow-up diagnostic procedure after an abnormal Pap/HPV result rather than a primary screening tool. Ultrasound and mammography screen for different conditions (pelvic/uterine-ovarian issues and breast cancer, respectively).

Question 22

The nurse is educating a group of clients about colorectal cancer screening. At what age should routine screening begin for an average-risk adult?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: For average-risk adults, current major guideline consensus (e.g., USPSTF/ACS) recommends beginning routine colorectal cancer screening at age 45 due to increasing incidence in younger populations. Starting at 50 is an older recommendation and may delay detection of early, treatable disease. Ages 40 and 55 are not standard starting ages for average-risk individuals unless there are risk factors or specific clinical indications.

Question 23

Best time for pap smear?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A Pap smear is ideally collected when the cervix is free of menstrual blood and heavy mucus to optimize cytology interpretation. Mid-cycle (around 10–20 days after the first day of the last menstrual period) is commonly recommended because the sample is less likely to be obscured by blood and inflammation. During menses can yield an inadequate/unsatisfactory specimen, and routine screening is not timed to post-ovulation specifically. Pregnancy is not considered the “best time” for routine screening, even though Pap testing can be performed safely if indicated.

Question 24

What is the first step to confirm pregnancy at home?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Urine Pregnancy Test A home urine pregnancy test is the appropriate first step because it is designed for at-home use and detects hCG in urine, which rises early in pregnancy. Blood tests are more sensitive but require a clinical setting and are not typically done at home. Ultrasound confirms pregnancy location/viability later and also requires a healthcare facility. X-ray is not used to confirm pregnancy and is avoided in suspected pregnancy due to ionizing radiation exposure.

Question 25

Breastfeeding mothers should avoid vaccinations?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: False Breastfeeding is not a reason to avoid routine vaccinations; most vaccines are safe during lactation and help protect the mother from vaccine-preventable diseases. Maternal immunization can also provide passive antibody protection to the infant through breast milk for some infections. In general, inactivated vaccines and many live vaccines are compatible with breastfeeding, with only rare, specific exceptions based on the individual vaccine and maternal condition.

Question 26

The nurse is conducting health screening for osteoporosis. Which client is at greatest risk of developing this problem?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Postmenopausal age and female sex are major risk factors for osteoporosis due to decreased estrogen and accelerated bone resorption. Cigarette smoking further reduces bone mineral density and impairs osteoblast function, increasing fracture risk. A sedentary lifestyle reduces mechanical loading on bone, limiting bone formation and contributing to loss of bone mass. The other clients have fewer combined high-impact risk factors compared with an older, sedentary smoker.

Question 27

Why is regular monitoring of head circumference important in infants?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Head circumference tracks brain growth in early life, and abnormal increases or decreases can signal conditions such as hydrocephalus, microcephaly, or intracranial pathology. Serial measurements plotted on standardized growth charts help identify deviations from expected growth velocity. Early detection supports timely referral for diagnostic evaluation and intervention to reduce risk of long-term neurodevelopmental impairment.

Question 28

A nurse is reviewing the Core Functions of Public Health. Which nursing action reflects the assurance function?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Assurance in public health focuses on ensuring that needed health services are available, accessible, and provided to the population, especially vulnerable groups. Facilitating access to immunizations is a direct service/connection-to-care activity that operationalizes this function. By contrast, collecting incidence data and investigating clusters are assessment activities, and informing policymakers aligns with policy development.

Question 29

The ideal time to perform breast self-examination (BSE) is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Breast tissue is least swollen and tender shortly after menses due to lower hormone-related fluid retention, improving the ability to detect true masses or changes. Performing the exam during menstruation or around ovulation can increase nodularity and tenderness, making findings harder to interpret. A consistent monthly timing after the period helps the client notice new or progressive changes more reliably.

Question 30

Vaccines typically given at birth are the ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: These immunizations are part of standard newborn prophylaxis schedules in many countries to provide early protection against tuberculosis, perinatal/early-life hepatitis B infection, and poliomyelitis. Administering them soon after birth reduces the risk of severe disease during a period of high vulnerability. While exact birth-dose schedules can vary by national program and vaccine availability, the combination listed represents the typical set in many routine immunization programs.

Question 31

A 55-year-old woman asks when she should have colon cancer screening. The nurse responds?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Average-risk colorectal cancer screening traditionally begins at age 50 with colonoscopy repeated every 10 years if results are normal. The other choices are either too early/too frequent for average risk, start too late, or incorrectly suggest screening only when symptomatic (which misses early, treatable disease). While some guidelines now recommend starting at 45, the option given that matches standard nursing exam screening intervals is this one.

Question 32

A nurse is teaching a client about breast self-exams. The best time to perform the exam is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Breast tissue is least influenced by cyclical hormone-related swelling and tenderness several days after menses starts, making palpation more accurate and comfortable. Performing the exam during the premenstrual phase or during menstruation can increase nodularity and tenderness, which may mask abnormalities or lead to false concern. Choosing a consistent time in the cycle improves the client’s ability to notice true changes over time.

Question 33

A 70-year-old client asks about immunizations. Which is recommended?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Adults should receive a tetanus and diphtheria booster every 10 years, and one of those boosters should be Tdap to ensure ongoing pertussis protection. Varicella is not given yearly; it is a 2-dose series for non-immune individuals. Routine polio boosters are not recommended for most U.S. adults unless specific exposure risk exists. Influenza vaccination is recommended annually, not every 2 years.

Question 34

The nurse is working in a community health promotion clinic. Which is an example of an illness prevention activity?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Immunizations are primary prevention because they reduce the risk of developing a disease before it occurs. HPV vaccination helps prevent HPV infection and lowers the risk of related cancers (e.g., cervical cancer). The other choices focus on health promotion or management/support for existing conditions rather than preventing disease onset.

Question 35

An appointment to have a Papanicolaou smear done was made by a client with a family history of cervical cancer. The nurse who schedules the appointment should give which instruction to the client?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Recent intercourse can leave semen and cause cervical irritation, which may obscure or alter cytology and reduce test accuracy. Clients should also avoid douching, vaginal deodorants/sprays, and intravaginal medications before a Pap for the same reason. A Pap smear does not require local anesthetic and is ideally scheduled when the client is not menstruating.

Question 36

Zero dose of polio vaccine is given?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The OPV “zero dose” is part of routine immunization schedules and is administered as soon as possible after delivery to provide early mucosal priming against poliovirus. Giving it at birth helps protect during the vulnerable neonatal period before subsequent primary series doses are due. Diarrhea is not an indication for an extra “zero dose,” and suspected/confirmed poliomyelitis is managed clinically rather than by giving OPV as treatment. The timing is not tied to DPT administration; it is scheduled independently based on age.

Question 37

The mother of a 2-month-old infant asks which vaccines are due at the next well-child visit. The nurse correctly states that the infant should receive?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At the 2-month visit, routine primary series immunizations begin, including diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis, inactivated poliovirus, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. MMR and varicella are first given at 12–15 months, and HPV plus hepatitis A are given later in childhood/adolescence. Tdap is an adolescent/adult booster, and influenza is started at 6 months of age (then yearly).

Question 38

A nurse is educating a patient scheduled for a Pap smear. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Menstrual blood can obscure cervical cells and interfere with specimen adequacy, increasing the chance of an unsatisfactory or inaccurate result. Patients are typically instructed to schedule the test when they are not on their period (light spotting may be handled case-by-case). Avoiding douching, vaginal products, and intercourse for about 24–48 hours before the test helps prevent removal or contamination of cervical cells and improves test quality.

Question 39

The nurse is assessing a healthy child at the 2 year check up. Which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: At age 2, a deceleration in expected growth velocity can indicate an underlying nutritional, endocrine, gastrointestinal, or chronic disease process and warrants prompt evaluation. Normal variation includes temporary uneven short-term weight changes and differences between recumbent length and standing height due to technique and physiologic factors. Percentile “spread” can occur without pathology as long as the child tracks along a consistent curve; a notable slowing or downward crossing of growth percentiles is more concerning.

Question 40

A nurse in a clinical is caring for a middle age adult who states, "the doctor says that since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening". what does that invoke?" which of the following responsible the nurse make?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: " Average-risk colorectal cancer screening includes regular stool-based testing (e.g., annual fecal occult blood testing) or periodic endoscopic exams starting in midlife. The blood sample option is not a standard screening approach for colorectal cancer. Starting colonoscopy at age 60 is later than typical recommendations, and sigmoidoscopy is performed more frequently than every 10 years when used for screening.

Question 41

If fever convulsions occur after administering DPT, what should the nurse best suggest to the mother?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: A febrile seizure after a pertussis-containing vaccine is a significant adverse reaction that warrants avoiding further pertussis components in subsequent immunizations. The child should still be protected against diphtheria and tetanus, so switching to DT maintains coverage for those diseases. Continuing DPT risks recurrence of a similar reaction and is not the safest recommendation. Delaying without changing the vaccine does not address the causative component.

Question 42

These vaccines are given 3 doses at one month interval?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard infant immunization schedules commonly deliver primary series doses at roughly 4-week intervals for multiple vaccines. OPV and DPT are typically administered as multi-dose primary series in early infancy with about one-month spacing between doses. Hepatitis B vaccine is also given as a 3-dose series where the second dose is separated by about 4 weeks from the first, aligning with the one-month interval concept. Options including BCG or measles are less consistent with a three-dose, monthly interval pattern because BCG and measles are generally given as single-dose vaccines at specific ages.

Question 43

Which vaccine is appropriate to administer to a 2-month-old infant?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DTaP is recommended at 2, 4, and 6 months (with later boosters), making it appropriate at this visit. Live attenuated vaccines like MMR and varicella are typically deferred until 12–15 months due to immune maturity and maternal antibody interference. Hepatitis A is also routinely started later (around 12 months) rather than at 2 months.

Question 44

The first dose of vitamin A is given at the age of ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: The first dose is given at 9 months, commonly aligned with the measles vaccine visit to improve coverage and adherence. Giving it earlier is not part of standard routine schedules and can increase the risk of dosing errors while not matching program guidance. Later options delay protection during a high-risk window in infancy.

Question 45

Which is the best site for DPT Immunization ?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: DPT is given IM, and the mid-anterolateral thigh offers reliable absorption with lower complication rates than gluteal sites in young children. The dorsogluteal site is avoided due to potential sciatic nerve injury and variable subcutaneous fat leading to improper delivery. Ventrogluteal can be appropriate in older children/adults, but in infants the thigh muscle is the preferred and most consistently safe site.

Question 46

Which Vaccine is Contraindicated in Pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: This vaccine includes live attenuated measles and rubella components, so it should be avoided in pregnant patients and given postpartum if needed. In contrast, inactivated or toxoid vaccines (e.g., tetanus-containing vaccines) can be administered when indicated during pregnancy. Hepatitis B vaccine is non-live and is considered safe when risk factors are present.

Question 47

Most appropriate age for early primary immunization against TB, Diphtheria, Whooping cough, Tetanus, Polio, Measles and Hepatitis B is?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Standard schedules initiate BCG and hepatitis B at birth and give primary series doses for DPT/OPV (or equivalent) in early infancy, with measles commonly targeted by around 9 months in many national programs. This makes the window from birth through 9 months the best match for achieving early primary protection across the listed diseases. Options extending to 12 or 18 months include later boosters or catch-up doses rather than the “early primary” timeframe.

Question 48

EPI includes all vaccine except?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: In many EPI schedules, protection against rubella and mumps is not part of the basic program, so the combined measles-mumps-rubella product is not universally included as an EPI core vaccine. Measles vaccine may be given as a standalone measles dose in EPI, which makes it distinct from the combined product. Therefore, the combined formulation is the best choice for the exception among the options provided.

Question 49

Which vaccine is given soon after birth?

Accepted Answer

Answer reason: Hepatitis B vaccine is recommended as a birth dose (typically within 24 hours) to reduce perinatal and early household transmission and lower the risk of chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular carcinoma. By contrast, DPT begins later in infancy, and MMR is given at around 12 months because maternal antibodies can blunt response and the diseases are targeted later. While BCG may be given at birth in some countries, the broadly tested “soon after birth” vaccine in standard nursing immunization teaching is the hepatitis B birth dose.

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